Final 2nd sm. Flashcards
1
Q
How many possible amino acids are there?
A
20
2
Q
The amino acid is attached to the ______.
A
rRNA
3
Q
______ associates with proteins to form a ribosome.
A
rRNA
4
Q
_____ has the anti-codon sequence.
A
tRNA
5
Q
Building a protein at the ribosome involves 3 steps which is not one of the steps?
A
translocation
6
Q
_____ is attaching additional amino acids.
A
elongation
7
Q
DNA is converted to mRNA during ______.
A
transcription
8
Q
- Proteins are folded correctly with an operon protein. T/F
A
False
9
Q
A mutation that codes for a STOP codon is _____.
A
nonsense
10
Q
A mutation that codes for a different amino acid is ___.
A
missense
11
Q
A _____ mutation is an example of a ____ mutation.
A
substation/point
12
Q
Mutations can create new alleles. T/F
A
true
13
Q
Somatic mutations will harm offspring. T/F
A
false
14
Q
For human cells that go through mitosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the end.
A
46
15
Q
For human cells that go through meiosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the start.
A
46
16
Q
For human cells that go through mitosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the start.
A
diploid
17
Q
Cells for identical eukaryotic cells used in growth are ____ cells.
A
mitotic
18
Q
______ is a programmed cell death.
A
apoptosis
19
Q
______ adds DNA nucleotides to an RNA primer.
A
polymerase
20
Q
______ phase is when cell cycle arrest.
A
G0
21
Q
Chromosomes are duplicated in the ______ phase.
A
S
22
Q
______ phase is the initial growth phase.
A
G1
23
Q
Chromatid of each replicated chromosomes separate is _____.
A
anaphase
24
Q
The chromosomes condense is ______.
A
prophase
25
A contractile ring forms and divides the cell is _____.
cytokinesis
26
When part of a chromosome receives an additional part to the chromosome, it is called _____ mutation.
translocation
27
When a part of a chromosome is reversed, it is called _____ mutation.
inversion
28
In plants, sexual reproduction involves an alteration of generations from haploid to diploid phases. T/F
True
29
In animals, the haploid nuclei are packaged into gametes. T/F
False
30
In spermatogenesis, the beginning cell is a diploid germ cell t/f
true
31
In oogenesis, ___ egg cells and ____ polar bodies are formed
1,3
32
In spermatogenesis, ____ sperm cells are produced.
4
33
When part of a chromosome is repeated, it is called _____ mutations.
duplication
34
A triploid cell has ____ sets of chromosomes.
3
35
A diploid cell has ____ sets of chromosomes.
2
36
Asexual reproduction will be more successful in an unstable environment compared to sexual reproduction t/f
false
37
Meiosis 2 yield ___ nu mber of cells
4
38
Meiosis 1 yields ____ number of cells.
2
39
In meiosis, chromosomes pairs align randomly during _____.
metaphase 1
40
There are ____ homologous pairs of sex chromosomes.
1
41
A human zygote has ____ chromosomes.
46
42
Genetic makeup of an organism.
genotype
43
Two alleles of the same gene separate into different gametes.
law of segregation
44
A test cross uses an unknown genotype and ______ to reveal the unknown’s genotype
homozygous recessive
45
Disorders can be inherited from one affected parent:
autosomal dominant
46
Colorblindness is a _______ _ trait
x linked recessive
47
8. Huntington disease is a _____ trait.
autosomal dominant
48
Cystic fibrosis is a _______ trait
autosomal recessive
49
Tay-Sachs disease is a _____ trait.
autosomal recessive
50
Polydactyl is a ____ trait.
autosomal dominant
51
____ relies on genetic testing and PGD to highlight sequences of DNA.
dna probe
52
____ Type of cloning that combines a nucleus taken from one individual’s body with a denucleated egg cell from another individual to produce the first cell of a new organism
somatic cell nuclear transfer
53
____ A single-strained sequences of DNA, labeled with a radioactive isotope of florescent tag, used to detect the presence of a known sequence of nucleotides.
dna probe
54
______ identical copy of an organism.
cloning
55
______ Uses PCR and DNA probes to detect genetic diseases in embryos that might later be implanted in a woman’s uterus.
preimplantation genetic disorders
56
____ determines the nucleotide sequence of DNA fragments
dna sequencing
57
_____ a technique used in laboratories in order to separate macromolecules based on size. The technique applies a negative charge so proteins move towards a positive charge.
eletrophoresis
58
_____ can develop into any type of cell with DNA.
stem cells
59
_____ amplifies DNA in a test tube using the cell’s replication machinery
pcr
60
____ uses DNA sequencing and PCR to detect genetic differences amount individuals.
dna profiling
61
Gene therapy is achieved by placing a functional gene into a cell by the use of bacteria. t/f
false
62
PGD is used to prevent all chromosomal diseases. t/f
false
63
A DNA probe binds to any complimentary DNAs and reveals its location t/f
true
64
4. In 1996, “Dolly” became the first cloned goat. t/f
false
65
Pluripotent stem cells are stem cells that can become any type of embryo. t/f
false
66
______ is how the emergences of new species take place
macroevolution
67
______ sailed on the HMS Beagle.
darwin
68
________ is the continual remodeling of the earth’s surface.
Catastrophism
69
_____ is when some individuals within a species survive longer and reproduces more than others do.
selection
70
_____is small scale genetic changes within a single species
microevolution
71
_______is the 2 extremes for a phenotype survive at the expense of the intermediate form of the phenotype.
Disruptive Selection
72
______ is a differentiation in the sexes within a species.
sexual dimorphism
73
_____ is an intermediate phenotype has an advantage over individuals with extreme ends of phenotypes.
stabilizing selection
74
_____ is when a human takes control of the selection process.
artificial selection
75
Assume that the dominant allele for the D gene occurs at a frequency of .8 in a population. What percentage of the population is heterozygous based on Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
32%
76
Suppose a population of 200 has a gene with 2 alleles (G and g). If 100 animals in the population are gg then the frequency of the g allele in the population is _____.
.71
77
100 birds in a population, 63 have green feather and 37 have blue feathers. Dominant F is green and recessive f is blue.
a. frequency of blue allele (f)
b. frequency of green allele (F)
c. heterozygous birds (Ff)
d. homozygous recessive (ff)
e. homozygous dominant (FF)
a. .61
b. .39
c. .43
d. .37
e. .15
78
Assume that the dominant allele for the D gene occurs at a frequency of .63 in a population. What percentage of the population is homozygous dominant based on Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
39.69%
79
Suppose a population of 200 has a gene with 2 alleles (G and g). If 150 alleles in the population are GG then the frequency of the homozygous recessive in the population is
.02%
80
In a population of birds, 845 have green feathers and 155 have blue feathers. Dominant allele F is green feathers, and recessive allele f is blue feathers.
a. frequency of blue allele f
b. frequency of green allele F
c. heterozygous birds (Ff)
d. homozygous recessive (ff)
e. homozygous dominant (FF)
a. .4
b. .6
c. .48
d. .16
e. .38
81
_____ Provides an indication of the relationships among species
DNA sequencing comparison
82
_______ They have no function in an organism but are homologous to function structures in related species
vestgial
83
_____ Combines the study of development with the study of DNA sequences
evolutionary development biology
84
____ Molecules that have similarities that indicate they were inherited from a shared ancestor
homologous
85
_____ Examples are wings of a pterodactyl and wings of an insect
analogous
86
___ Study of distribution of species on Earth
biogeography
87
____ Volcanic ash or silt bury an organism after it dies
sediment
88
___ Accumulation of silt or ash above the animal’s remains
layers
89
____ Rain, rivers and wind wear away the remaining rock layers
erosion
90
___ Exposure of fossils happens during this phase
erosion
91
___ Divides Earth’s history into eras defined by major events
geologic timescale
92
___ The study of the remains of life
paleontology
93
___ Remains of an ancient organism
fossils
