Final 2nd sm. Flashcards

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1
Q

How many possible amino acids are there?

A

20

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2
Q

The amino acid is attached to the ______.

A

rRNA

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3
Q

______ associates with proteins to form a ribosome.

A

rRNA

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4
Q

_____ has the anti-codon sequence.

A

tRNA

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5
Q

Building a protein at the ribosome involves 3 steps which is not one of the steps?

A

translocation

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6
Q

_____ is attaching additional amino acids.

A

elongation

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7
Q

DNA is converted to mRNA during ______.

A

transcription

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8
Q
  1. Proteins are folded correctly with an operon protein. T/F
A

False

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9
Q

A mutation that codes for a STOP codon is _____.

A

nonsense

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10
Q

A mutation that codes for a different amino acid is ___.

A

missense

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11
Q

A _____ mutation is an example of a ____ mutation.

A

substation/point

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12
Q

Mutations can create new alleles. T/F

A

true

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13
Q

Somatic mutations will harm offspring. T/F

A

false

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14
Q

For human cells that go through mitosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the end.

A

46

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15
Q

For human cells that go through meiosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the start.

A

46

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16
Q

For human cells that go through mitosis, the chromosome number will be ___ at the start.

A

diploid

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17
Q

Cells for identical eukaryotic cells used in growth are ____ cells.

A

mitotic

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18
Q

______ is a programmed cell death.

A

apoptosis

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19
Q

______ adds DNA nucleotides to an RNA primer.

A

polymerase

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20
Q

______ phase is when cell cycle arrest.

A

G0

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21
Q

Chromosomes are duplicated in the ______ phase.

A

S

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22
Q

______ phase is the initial growth phase.

A

G1

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23
Q

Chromatid of each replicated chromosomes separate is _____.

A

anaphase

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24
Q

The chromosomes condense is ______.

A

prophase

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25
Q

A contractile ring forms and divides the cell is _____.

A

cytokinesis

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26
Q

When part of a chromosome receives an additional part to the chromosome, it is called _____ mutation.

A

translocation

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27
Q

When a part of a chromosome is reversed, it is called _____ mutation.

A

inversion

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28
Q

In plants, sexual reproduction involves an alteration of generations from haploid to diploid phases. T/F

A

True

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29
Q

In animals, the haploid nuclei are packaged into gametes. T/F

A

False

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30
Q

In spermatogenesis, the beginning cell is a diploid germ cell t/f

A

true

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31
Q

In oogenesis, ___ egg cells and ____ polar bodies are formed

A

1,3

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32
Q

In spermatogenesis, ____ sperm cells are produced.

A

4

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33
Q

When part of a chromosome is repeated, it is called _____ mutations.

A

duplication

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34
Q

A triploid cell has ____ sets of chromosomes.

A

3

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35
Q

A diploid cell has ____ sets of chromosomes.

A

2

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36
Q

Asexual reproduction will be more successful in an unstable environment compared to sexual reproduction t/f

A

false

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37
Q

Meiosis 2 yield ___ nu mber of cells

A

4

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38
Q

Meiosis 1 yields ____ number of cells.

A

2

39
Q

In meiosis, chromosomes pairs align randomly during _____.

A

metaphase 1

40
Q

There are ____ homologous pairs of sex chromosomes.

A

1

41
Q

A human zygote has ____ chromosomes.

A

46

42
Q

Genetic makeup of an organism.

A

genotype

43
Q

Two alleles of the same gene separate into different gametes.

A

law of segregation

44
Q

A test cross uses an unknown genotype and ______ to reveal the unknown’s genotype

A

homozygous recessive

45
Q

Disorders can be inherited from one affected parent:

A

autosomal dominant

46
Q

Colorblindness is a _______ _ trait

A

x linked recessive

47
Q
  1. Huntington disease is a _____ trait.
A

autosomal dominant

48
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a _______ trait

A

autosomal recessive

49
Q

Tay-Sachs disease is a _____ trait.

A

autosomal recessive

50
Q

Polydactyl is a ____ trait.

A

autosomal dominant

51
Q

____ relies on genetic testing and PGD to highlight sequences of DNA.

A

dna probe

52
Q

____ Type of cloning that combines a nucleus taken from one individual’s body with a denucleated egg cell from another individual to produce the first cell of a new organism

A

somatic cell nuclear transfer

53
Q

____ A single-strained sequences of DNA, labeled with a radioactive isotope of florescent tag, used to detect the presence of a known sequence of nucleotides.

A

dna probe

54
Q

______ identical copy of an organism.

A

cloning

55
Q

______ Uses PCR and DNA probes to detect genetic diseases in embryos that might later be implanted in a woman’s uterus.

A

preimplantation genetic disorders

56
Q

____ determines the nucleotide sequence of DNA fragments

A

dna sequencing

57
Q

_____ a technique used in laboratories in order to separate macromolecules based on size. The technique applies a negative charge so proteins move towards a positive charge.

A

eletrophoresis

58
Q

_____ can develop into any type of cell with DNA.

A

stem cells

59
Q

_____ amplifies DNA in a test tube using the cell’s replication machinery

A

pcr

60
Q

____ uses DNA sequencing and PCR to detect genetic differences amount individuals.

A

dna profiling

61
Q

Gene therapy is achieved by placing a functional gene into a cell by the use of bacteria. t/f

A

false

62
Q

PGD is used to prevent all chromosomal diseases. t/f

A

false

63
Q

A DNA probe binds to any complimentary DNAs and reveals its location t/f

A

true

64
Q
  1. In 1996, “Dolly” became the first cloned goat. t/f
A

false

65
Q

Pluripotent stem cells are stem cells that can become any type of embryo. t/f

A

false

66
Q

______ is how the emergences of new species take place

A

macroevolution

67
Q

______ sailed on the HMS Beagle.

A

darwin

68
Q

________ is the continual remodeling of the earth’s surface.

A

Catastrophism

69
Q

_____ is when some individuals within a species survive longer and reproduces more than others do.

A

selection

70
Q

_____is small scale genetic changes within a single species

A

microevolution

71
Q

_______is the 2 extremes for a phenotype survive at the expense of the intermediate form of the phenotype.

A

Disruptive Selection

72
Q

______ is a differentiation in the sexes within a species.

A

sexual dimorphism

73
Q

_____ is an intermediate phenotype has an advantage over individuals with extreme ends of phenotypes.

A

stabilizing selection

74
Q

_____ is when a human takes control of the selection process.

A

artificial selection

75
Q

Assume that the dominant allele for the D gene occurs at a frequency of .8 in a population. What percentage of the population is heterozygous based on Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

32%

76
Q

Suppose a population of 200 has a gene with 2 alleles (G and g). If 100 animals in the population are gg then the frequency of the g allele in the population is _____.

A

.71

77
Q

100 birds in a population, 63 have green feather and 37 have blue feathers. Dominant F is green and recessive f is blue.

a. frequency of blue allele (f)
b. frequency of green allele (F)
c. heterozygous birds (Ff)
d. homozygous recessive (ff)
e. homozygous dominant (FF)

A

a. .61
b. .39
c. .43
d. .37
e. .15

78
Q

Assume that the dominant allele for the D gene occurs at a frequency of .63 in a population. What percentage of the population is homozygous dominant based on Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

39.69%

79
Q

Suppose a population of 200 has a gene with 2 alleles (G and g). If 150 alleles in the population are GG then the frequency of the homozygous recessive in the population is

A

.02%

80
Q

In a population of birds, 845 have green feathers and 155 have blue feathers. Dominant allele F is green feathers, and recessive allele f is blue feathers.

a. frequency of blue allele f
b. frequency of green allele F
c. heterozygous birds (Ff)
d. homozygous recessive (ff)
e. homozygous dominant (FF)

A

a. .4
b. .6
c. .48
d. .16
e. .38

81
Q

_____ Provides an indication of the relationships among species

A

DNA sequencing comparison

82
Q

_______ They have no function in an organism but are homologous to function structures in related species

A

vestgial

83
Q

_____ Combines the study of development with the study of DNA sequences

A

evolutionary development biology

84
Q

____ Molecules that have similarities that indicate they were inherited from a shared ancestor

A

homologous

85
Q

_____ Examples are wings of a pterodactyl and wings of an insect

A

analogous

86
Q

___ Study of distribution of species on Earth

A

biogeography

87
Q

____ Volcanic ash or silt bury an organism after it dies

A

sediment

88
Q

___ Accumulation of silt or ash above the animal’s remains

A

layers

89
Q

____ Rain, rivers and wind wear away the remaining rock layers

A

erosion

90
Q

___ Exposure of fossils happens during this phase

A

erosion

91
Q

___ Divides Earth’s history into eras defined by major events

A

geologic timescale

92
Q

___ The study of the remains of life

A

paleontology

93
Q

___ Remains of an ancient organism

A

fossils