Final Flashcards
Midgut herniation is considered abnormal past ___ weeks.
12
14 according to ppt
When is NT abnormal?
3mm+
When is implantation complete?
Day 23
When does fertilization occur? Where?
24-36 hours after ovulation in the ampulla
Blastocyst burrows about ___ days after fertilization.
7 days
When do the amnion and chorion fuse?
12-16 weeks, 14-16 weeks LMP
Where is the yolk sac located?
chorionic cavity
The yolk sac is visualized endovaginally at week ___. It will always be seen when the MSD is ___ mm.
week 5, 8mm
A missed abortion is defined as:
Retention of a dead conceptus for a prolonged period (e.g. 2 months)
The CRL measurement may be used through week ___.
12
The length of time calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period to the point at which the pregnancy is being assessed is ______ age and _____ age.
gestational and menstrual
The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium is ______.
the double decidual sign
The first site of formation of RBCs that will nourish the embryo is the ____.
Primary yolk sac
The diameter of the yolk sac should never be more than ___ mm.
6 (5.6)
After fertilization, the corpus luteum produces
estrogen and progesterone
The zygote undergoes rapid cell division to form the 12-16 cell
morula
A pt is 10 weeks and presents with extremely elevated hCG levels and pregnancy induced HTN. You suspect:
hydatidiform mole
A heterotopic pregnancy is:
an ectopic pregnancy with a normal IUP
In a ruptured ectopic, which site is more life threatening?
a. interstitial
b. ampulla
c. fimbria
d. isthmus
a. interstitial
Theca lutein cysts, pregnancy induced HTN, hyperemesis, and large for gestational age are all associated with ____.
GTD
A molar pregnancy that is invasive but does not metastasize is called ___.
chorioadenoma destruens
hCG titers with an ectopic
will not double every two days, will be lower than normal then start dropping
hCG titers with GTD
abnormally high
What is the most accurate measurement to determine EDD?
CRL
A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to form is called ____ or _____.
blighted ovum, anembryonic pregnancy
Formed at 23 days when the primary yolk sac is pinched off by the extraembryonic coelom
secondary yolk sac
cellular, outermost embryonic membrane composed of trophoblast lined with mesoderm
chorion
The muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries are
Piriformis
Where does fertilization usually occur?
ampulla
The floor of the pelvis is formed by the _____ muscles
Levator ani
Miss Greenfield is 73 years old and asymptomatic. She is NOT on hormone replacement therapy. Her endometrium should not measure more than
5mm
Which vessel provides the best landmark for localizing the ovary
internal iliac artery
Doppler waveforms of the uterine arterial flow typically show
high velocity, high resistance
Doppler waveforms of the ovarian arterial flow typically show
low velocity, low resistance
Which muscle groups form the lateral pelvic sidewalls
Obturator Internus
Anatomically, the uterus lies _______ to the urinary bladder and ________ to the rectum
posterior, anterior
T/F: The broad ligament is a true ligament?
false
A double fold of peritoneum that does not provide suspensory support to the uterus is _____
broad ligament
The potential space around the cervix is called the
fornix
The term used to describe the onset of the first menstrual cycle is
menarche
The endometrial echo would appear hypoechoic
during the periovulatory stage
Until ovulation, ovarian follicles grow at the daily rate of
2-3mm
The phase of the menstrual cycle following ovulation is referred to as the
secretory phase
Amenorrhea is
the absence of menses
Hematometracolpos
blood in the vagina and uterus
What is the most likely cause of Hematometracolpos?
imperforate hymen
The drug of choice most commonly used to induce ovulation is
clomid
What is GIFT
gamete intrafallopian transfer
A procedure involving the transfer of fertilized oocytes into the fallopian tube either laparoscopically or transcervically is
ZIFT
The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT would be considered abnormal if it measured more than
8mm
On color Doppler sonography, most malignant ovarian tumors yield flow signals that are best characterized as (high/low) impediance?
low
How does tamoxifen affect the uterus?
Causes a thickened, cystic appearing endometrium and increases the risk for endometrial carcinoma
A small amount of physiologic fluid may be seen in a postmenopausal endometrium. What is this usually due to?
endometrial atrophy
The most common gynecological malignant disease?
endometrial carcinoma
The functional layers of the endometrium are vascularized by the _______ arteries
spiral
In postmenopausal women, the ovaries measure approximately
2 x 1 x 0.5 cm
The abdominal circumference is measured at the level of
the stomach, left portal vein, and umbilical vein
The BPD is measured at the level of
thalamus and cavum septum pellucidum
Holoprosencephaly is associated with trisomy
13
The CI (cephalic index) is used to determine
head shape
The term double bubble denotes:
dilated duodenum next to stomach
T/F: The femur length includes only the femoral diaphysis
true
Clinodactyly
permanent curvature or overlapping digits
Measurement that includes both orbits at the same time
binocular distance
Findings of thickened nuchal fold, shortened femurs, and hypoplasia of the middle phalanx of the 5th digit are most likely associated with
Trisomy 21
Fetuses with Turner’s syndrome may also have an associated
cystic hygroma
an extra set of chromosomes
triploidy
A small rounded echogenic structure within the left ventricle of a fetal heart most likely is
papillary muscle
euploid
normal, balanced set of chromosomes
findings of epicanthal folds, cardiac defects, simian crease, protruding tongue
Trisomy 21
The absence of the cavum septum pellucidum and enlargement of the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle is called
tear drop sign/Dandy Walker’s malformation
nasal hypoplasia
nasal bone is not existent or measures less than 2.5 mm
A demonstration of the stomach, intestines, liver or heart in the thorax and associated with a mediastinal shift to the opposite side is called a
diaphragmatic hernia
normally situated umbilicus: omphalocele or gastroschesis
gastroschesis
Hyperechoic bowel should be compared to the echogenicity of ________ to be definitively diagnosed as “hyperechoic bowel”
the skeleton
Open neural tube defects are associated with elevated MS-AFP of ____________
> 2 MOM
____ should not be included in femur length measurement
distal femoral epiphysis
hypotelorism
eyes too close together
hypertelorism
eyes too far apart
which occurs with median cleft syndromes and frontal cephaloceles (hypertelorism/hypotelorism)
hypertelorism
IUGR is classified as weight below the ___ percentile
10th
teratogen
Any substance that causes abnormal structures in an embryo
thalidomide is an example of a
teratogen
Platycephaly
Flattening of the skull
“banana” sign
Refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present
“lemon” sign
Occurs with spina bifida; frontal bones collapse inward
Microphthalmos
small eyes
The space of Retzius is also known as the
prevesical space
The follicles of the ovary are found in the
cortex
T/F: The posterior surface of the ovary is not covered by the broad ligament
true
Which of the following terms correctly describes the echogenic properties of the normal secretory endometrium in relation to the surrounding myometrium
hyperechoic
The primary function of LH is to
ensure the maturation of the Graafian follicle
In a uterus bicornis bicollis, there will be
1 uterine body with a septation, 2 cervices and 1 vagina
Which hormone supports and maintains the activity of the corpus luteum during the first trimester of pregnancy
progesterone
The four parts of the fallopian tubes are the following, in order from ovarian end to uterine end
infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, intramural (interstitial)
What layer(s) of the endometrium are sloughed off during menstruation
decidual
Ovulaton occurs between the
follicular phase and proliferative phase
uterine response
menstrual, proliferative, secretory
ovarian response
follicular, ovulatory, luteal
menopause
termination of regular menses usually occurring at 45-55 years
menarche
onset of menses usually occurring at 11-14 years of age
premature menopause
before age 40
Many birth control pills work by blocking ______. This inhibits the release of an egg.
LH surge
the hormone that stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles
FSH
the hormone that stimulates progesterone production and peaks after ovulation
it also makes the dominant follicle mature in order to rupture and release the egg
LH
Follicular response
days 1-14, follicles identified
when may a dominant follicle be seen by ultrasound, what might it measure
day 8, 10mm
Ovulatory response (ovulation)
day 14, dominant follicle ruptures 24-36 hrs after onset of LH surge
luteal response
15-28, ruptured Graafian follicle forms corpus luteum which produces progesterone, maintains the secretory endometrium
When does the corpus luteum regress if fertilization does not occur?
14 days
What would you not see after ovulation?
a. ) dominant follicle
b. ) corpus luteum cyst
c. ) ectopic pregnancy
a.) dominant follice
Menstrual phase
days 1-5, progesterone declines, endometrium sheds
what does the endometrium look like before and after the menstrual phase?
before: thick and echogenic, after: thin and slightly irregular measuring less than 2mm post menses
Proliferative phase
days 6-14, ovaries are releasing estrogen causing regrowth of the endometrium
How does the endometrium appear in the early and late proliforative phase?
early: hypoechoic area around prominent midline echo
late: thichkened, isoechoic endometrium
max ap 6-8mm
What is the bight echogenic middle line seen during the proliferative phase?
a reflection of the mucosal and basal layers are touching each other
The echogenicity of an IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) should be
hyperechoic to the myometrium
A submucosal leiomyoma is found
under the endometrium
The classic appearance of a fibroid is
focal hypoechoic mass with poor sound through transmission
By the 10th day, the invading trophoblast has formed 2 distinct layers called
cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
The function endocrine units of the placenta are
chorionic villi
Put the following in order:
embryo, zygote, blastocyst, morula
zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo
In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by week ____
12
________ refers to the number of deliveries of viable infants
parity
The first reliable indicator of IUP is the
yolk sac
The triad of findings in Meckel-Gruber syndrome is:
occipital encephalocele, polycystic kidneys and polydactyly
The most common clinical indications for an ectopic pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT
A.) painful adnexal region and vaginal bleeding
B.) painless, vaginal bleeding
C.) amenorrhea and adnexal mass
D.) abdominal tenderness and amenorrhea
B.) painless, vaginal bleeding
“bunch of grapes”
sonographic findings of a complete hydatidiform mole
landmarks for BPD
falx, 3rd ventricle, cavum septum pellucidum, thalami
Decreased head circumference after 38 weeks is associated with
asymmetrical IUGR
In transabdominal scanning, a normal gestational sac can be consistently demonstrated when the beta hCG level is:
1800 mIu/ml
With a CVS procedure, ______________ is/are obtained either transcervially or transabdominally.
trophoblastic cells
Which structure is located directly posterior to the vagina?
rectum
Menorrhagia
abnormally heavy or prolonged periods
Dysmenorrhea
painful periods
Amenorrhea
absence of menses (primary or secondary)
This benign uterine disease caused by the development and extension of endometrial tissue into the myometrium is called
adenomyosis
The double bleb sign is an uncommon transient phenomenon in an early pregnancy. It represents the ____ and ____
amniotic sac and yolk sac
Triploidy syndrome is when there is a(an
complete extra set of chromosomes
The postpartum presentation of an invasive mole is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
1) very enlarged uterus
2) persistent bleeding
3) elevated beta hCG
4) amenorrhea
4) amenorrhea
the most sensitive indicator of fetal growth and nutrition
fetal weight
shoulder dystocia is related to what
large for gestational age
The clinical hallmark for an invasive mole
hemorrhage
Theca lutein cysts are associated with _____
GTD
Macrosomnia is a fetus measuring in the ____ percentile in growth
90th
T/F: Hypertelorism is caused by craniosynstosis or an anterior cephalocele and causes the orbits to be too far apart.
True
T/F: Hypotelorism is associated with holoprosencephaly, chromosomal and central nervous system disorders, and cleft palate with abnormally closely spaced orbits.
true
T/F: Cleft palate can be associated with chromosomal and congenital anomalies and an incomplete fusion of facial grooves that create a fissure in the roof of the mouth which can communicate with the nasal cavities.
true
What is the sonographic appearance of an endometrioma
discrete adnexal mass with enhancement
The most common pelvic tumors in women are:
leiomyomas
The differential for a solid adnexal mass would include
fibroma
An infection that involves the fallopian tube and ovaries is called:
TOA
T/F: PID is almost always a bilateral collection of pus and fluid
true
T/F: PID includes a vaginal discharge with bleeding
true
What is an infection within the fallopian tube called?
salpingitis
Early in the disease, the clinical presentation of both PID and endometriosis may mimic:
functional bowel disease
The most common etiology of PID is:
STDs
Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary is called:
TOA complex
parametritis
Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments
Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called:
parametritis
TOA complex
Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary
Clinical symptoms of PID may include:
fever, dull aching pain, no symptoms
The differential considerations of PID may include all of the following EXCEPT:
1) dermoid
2) endometriosis
3) serous cystadenoma
4) ovarian neooplasm
3) serous cystadenoma
Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts and indistinct margins describe:
periovarian inflammation
A complex adnexal mass most likely represents:
pyosalpinx
Perihepatic inflammation ascending from a pelvic infection is called:
Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
An asymptomatic 32 year old woman is diagnosed with a left adnexal mass on physical examination A prior history of PID has been reported. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates an anechoic tubular structure in the LLQ. This most likely represents:
hydrosalpinx
A 24 year old woman presents with a fever, vaginal discharge and intense pelvic pain. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a complex multi-loculated irregular mass in the pouch of Douglas. This most likely represents:
TOA
A 25 year old woman complains of painful menstrual cycles and infertility. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a hypoechoic well-defined adnexal mass. Normal ovaries are seen bilaterally. This most likely represents:
endometrioma
complex cul-de-sac mass that distorts the pelvic anatomy
pelvic abscess
Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome is associated with:
PID
Large pelvic masses, whether benign or malignant, may cause ________; therefore the _________ should be evaluated also:
urinary obstruction, kidneys
Women with a history of PID are at risk for all of the following EXCEPT:
1) tubal scarring
2) endometrial hyperplasia
3) ectopic pregnancy
4) peritonitis
2) endometrial hyperplasia
T/F: Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called parametritis.
true
T/F: Infection within the ovary is called oophoritis.
true
While scanning the uterus and ovaries you notice a large pelvic mass. What is another area that will need to be evaluated for any abnormalities?
kidneys for hydronephrosis
When you see a crescent or banana shaped cerebellum what do you suspect?
spina bifida
Fetal Tachycardia vs Bradycardia
Tachycardia: 200-240 BPM
Bradycardia: usually less than 100 BPM
Placenta Accreta vs
Increta vs
Percreta
Accreta: growth of the placenta into the superficial myometrium
Increta: deep invasion of the placenta into the myometrium
Percreta: placenta perforates the myometrium
What do you suspect in a fetus with
hypoplasia or agenesis of the spine
Mom has diabetes before gets pregnant (not gestational diabetes)
caudal regression syndrome
When is the distal femoral epiphysis routinely visualized?
32 weeks
oligohydraminos
<5cm
polyhydraminos
> 20cm
What is the path of the blood into and out of the fetus?
Placenta carries oxygenated blood to fetus through the umbilical vein
Blood leaves fetus through the 2 umbilical arteries and returns to the placenta (not oxygenated)
Who is at a greater risk of developing endometrial cancer?
Morbidly obese diabetic female with no children
Average size female with 7 children
Endometrical CA risks
Obese
Diabetic
No children
Most common form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Type 1
Osteogenesis Imperfecta that manifests deafness
Type 1
Osteogenesis Imperfecta with good prognosis
Types 1 & 4
most severe form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Type 2
Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta has
Underdeveloped lungs, multiple bone fractures
Frequently lethal (prior or shortly after birth)
Due to respiratory distress
Type 2
Non lethal forms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
1, 3, & 4
Prune Belly Syndrome aka?
AKA Eagle Barrett Syndrome
Eagle Barrett Syndrome
Partial or complete absence of abdominal muscles
Urinary tract malformations
Can cause ureters to enlarge
oligohydramnios
Monozygotic vs Dizygotic
Monozygotic
One zygote originated forms multiple fetuses
One egg and one sperm
Can be Di-Di, Mono-Di, or Mono-Mono
Dizygotic
Two zygotes originated forms multiple fetuses
Two eggs and two sperm
ALWAYS have 2 amnios, 2 chorions, 2 separate placentas
how many placentas with mono-mono
single placenta
Twin peak sign is seen with
2 placentas, di/di
on u/s looks same as dizygotic
monozygotic di-di
monozygotic twinning when division occurs before Day 5 after conception
di-di
most common monozygotic twinning
mono-di
how many placentas with mono-di?
one
how many placentas with di-di?
two
monozygotic twinning when division 5-10 days after conception
Mono-di
least common monozygotic twinning
mono-mono
most dangerous type of twinning
mono-mono
Conjoined twins occur when division occurs after day _______.
day 13
Twin-twin transfusion
Unique to monozygotic twins
Shared placenta
Anomaly in the vascular supply of the placenta
Artery to vein anastomosis
Arterial blood from donor twin pumped into venous system of receiving twin
Donor twin
Small for dates
Oligo
“stuck” twin with empty bladder and decreased movement
Recipient twin
Hydropic with ascites
Enlarged liver, heart and kidneys
polyhydramnios
Fusion of the amnion and chorion should occur by:
week 16???????????????????????????????????
Cisterna magna AP diameter should not exceed:
10mm
Secretory Phase
Days 15-28
Increase in progesterone
Endo up to 18 mm
Hyperechoic endo with obscured midline, often with posterior acoustic enhancement
Proliferative Phase
Days 6-14
Increase in estrogen
Endo 6-8 mm
Triple line seen on ultrasound
Menstrual phase
Days 1-5
Decrease in Progesterone
Max endo post menses 2 mm
Follicular phase
Days 1-14
Follicles grow; any over 11mm likely ovulates
Ovulatory phase
Day 14
Sudden decrease in follicular size
FF in cul-de-sac
Luteal Phase
Days 15-28
Small, irregular cystic mass (regressing corpus luteum)
What affect does estrogen have on the endometrium?
Causes it to regenerate itself
What is relationship between patient on oral contraceptives and their endometrium?
They don’t elevated estrogen levels in their system-therefore, their endometrium doesn’t thicken
Looks thin and echogenic
When is the choroid plexus initially visualized as a hyperechoic structure on ultrasound?
week 10
The umbilical arteries are branches from what?
internal iliac arteries
By seeing this structure in the brain you are able to exclude most midline brain abnormalities.
CSP
Which laboratory value will be greatly increased in a fetus with gastroschisis?
AFP
While scanning a fetus you see the following: Severely shortened limbs (rhizomelia) Bowed long bones Narrow thorax with normal trunk length Cloverleaf skull What do you suspect?
Thanatophoric dysplasia
Lethal skeletal dysplasia
What is the most common neural tube defect?
anencephaly
While scanning a 2nd trimester fetus you see the following: A single large midline ventricle Proboscis May see cleft lip or palate What do you suspect?
Holoprosencephaly Associated with Trisomy 13 Associated with facial defects “the face predicts the brain” Appearance varies based on severity Alobar – most severe Semilobar Lobar – least severe
Most severe form of holoprosencephaly
alobar
What is the most common non-lethal skeletal dysplasia?
achondroplasia
Heterozygous form is rhizomelic shortening of limbs (usually UE) and short LE
Later manifestation and spontaneous
Often missed in the 2nd trimester
Heterozygous – non lethal
Homozygous – lethal
rhizomelia; small thorax=pulm hyplasia; possibly cloverleaf skull/large cranium
Achondroplasia
While doing an anatomy scan on a 22 week fetus you measure the nuchal fold to be 8 mm. What is a concern?
Trisomy 21/ Down Syndrome
Nuchal fold measuring over 6mm between weeks 15-21 weeks is abnormal
Elevated HCG
Decreased MFAFP
Down’s
What is dilated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?
3rd ventricle
What is the role of the foramen ovale in a fetus?
This structure allows for communication to occur between the right and left atria.
How soon after seeing the cumulus oophorus does ovulation typically occur?
within 36 hours
While scanning a fetus you see the following: Lymphedema or cystic hygroma Cardiac anomalies; aortic stenosis Horseshoe kidney or only one kidney What do you suspect?
Turner’s Syndrome
Prognosis based on how severe the cardiac and renal abnormalities are
Complete or partial absence of the X chromosome in phenotypic females
Turner’s
What is maternal side of placenta called?
decidua basalis
What is fetal side of placenta called?
chorion frondosum
What do you suspect when you see that the chorionic plate of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate? A small chorionic ring surrounded by thickened amnion and chorion
Placenta Circumvallate
What do you suspect if you see the following while scanning a 24 yr/ old female:
Thick and hypervascular endometrium OR
Complex tubular adnexal mass OR
Ill defined multi locular adnexal mass OR
Everything looks WNL
PID
hematoclpos
blood in the vagina - usually because of an imperforate hymen
hematometra
blood in uterus
What can polyhydraminos be as sign of?
abnormal swallowing abilities
An MD has requested a translabial ultrasound. What is the structure you will be focusing mostly on?
The cervix
While scanning a 32 week pregnant patient you suspect she has a placenta previa. What do you need to do to ensure you aren’t misleading the Radiologist with your findings?
Make sure her bladder isn’t overdistended
An overdistended bladder can give the appearance of a placenta previa
What are the following most likely associated with? Duodenal atresia Omphalocele Neural tube defect Facial cleft
polyhydraminos
What is evaluated when doing an umbilical artery Doppler study?
Specifics of PW image
S/D ratio
Also looking at whether the diastolic flow is reduced or reversed (below the baseline)
How should the apex of the fetal heart be positioned?
45 degrees
left side of body
A pregnant patient comes in for an ultrasound due to elevated maternal alpha fetoprotein levels. You are suspicious the fetus might have what complication?
abdominal wall defect
THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS
PREVESICAL SPACE
AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS
What is the Space of Retzius aka
PREVESICAL SPACE
AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS
What is the space of Retzius?
THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS
THE ENDOMETRIUM IS _______________ COMPARED TO THE MYOMETRIUM DURING THE SECRETORY PHASE.
hyperechoic
THIS HORMONE DOES THE FOLLOWING:
STIMULATES THE ENDOMETRIUM TO THICKEN
MAKES FIBROIDS ENLARGE
CAUSES BREAST DUCTS TO BECOME ENGORGED
STIMULATES THE FALLOPIAN TUBES TO CONTRACT
estrogen
MRS. JONES COMES IN WITH A UTERUS BICORNIS BICOLLIS. WHAT DO YOU EXPECT TO SEE?
2 UTERINE BODIES
2 CERVIXES
1 VAGINA
WHILE DOING AN OB EXAM YOU NOTICE THERE IS NO CSP AND THE POSTERIOR HORN OF THE LATERAL VENTRICLE IS ENLARGED. WHAT OTHER STRUCTURE IS LIKELY MISSING? THE ENLARGED VENTRICLE WILL CAUSE WHAT APPEARANCE?
ABSENSE OF THE CORPUS CALLOSUM
TEAR DROP SIGN
WHAT IS SUSPECTED WHEN THE FETUS HAS THE FOLLOWING:
SHORT FEMUR
CARDIAC DEFECTS
DOUBLE BUBBLE SIGN
Down’s Syndrome
TRUE OR FALSE:
THE FOURTH VENTRICLE IS A SCAN PLANE LANDMARK FOR A BPD MEASUREMNT
False; 3rd
WHILE SCANNING THE FETAL HEAD YOU NOTICE AN ANECHOIC AREA INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM. WHAT ARE YOU IMAGING?
Cisterna magna
LIST 3 CAUSES OF A DECREASED SERUM HCG LEVEL
FETAL DEMISE
INCORRECT DATES
MISSED ABORTION
THE NAME OF THE PROCEDURE WHERE TROPHOBLASTIC CELLS ARE OBTAINED
CVS
WHICH LIGAMENT EXTENDS FROM THE UTERINE CORNU, GOES OVER THE PELVIC RIM, THROUGH THE INGUINAL CANAL, AND IS SECURED AT THE LABIA MAJORA?
round ligament
WHILE SCANNING A 24 WK FETUS YOU NOTICE HE HAS A CLEFT PALATE, HOLOPROSENCEPHALY AND HEART DEFECTS. WHAT DO YOU SUSPECT?
Trisomy 13
WHEN SHOULD CORPUS LETEUM CYSTS RESOLVE DURING THE PREGANCY?
by week 16
LOCATION OF GARTNER DUCT CYSTS VS. NABOTHIAN CYSTS
nabothian = cx Gartner = vagina
TRUE OR FALSE
PATIENT HAS A SERUM TEST THAT SHOWS A LOWER THAN NORMAL LEVEL OF AFP. YOU SUSPECT A FETUS WITH SPINA BIFIDA
False, tris 21
WHEN PERFORMING A TRANSVAGINAL U/S YOU SHOULD SEE A YOLK SAC WHEN THE MSD IS:
8mm
70 yr/old F and no symptoms. No HRT. Her endometrium should not measure more than:
8mm
The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT should not measure more than:
8mm
What is the corpus callosum’s role?
It is a mass of white matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres
Forms the roof of the lateral ventricles
Sits on top of the CSP
Bicornuate uterus vs. Didelphyic uterus:
Both due to “lack of fusion”
Bicornuate : 1 uterus; indented > 1 cm; 1 CX and vagina
Didelphyis : 2 uteri; (may have 1 or 2 CX or vaginas)
When is the Nuchal fold abnormal?
6mm
When is the Nuchal fold measured?
15-21 weeks
fetal papyraceous
when fetal death occurs too late in pregnancy to be reabsorbed
name the space around the cervix
fornix
What are the 4 d’s of enndometriosis?
dysuria
dyschezia
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea
postmenopausal women with simple ovarian cysts are not likely cancer if measuring less than ____
5cm
Meig’s syndrome
ovarian mass, ascites, pleural effusion
chorionic villi invade the myometrium superficially in placenta ______
accreta
what forms between the corpus callosum and fornices
CSP
what do you suspect when you see ascites, polyhydraminos, pleural effusion, and anasarca?
nonimune hydrops
What is measured when you suspect IUGR?
FL/AC
Cloverleaf skull
thnatophoric dysplasia
What will the placenta look like with fetal demise?
complex, small, deteriorating
when the cord inserts into the membranes before it enters the placenta
velamentous
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
VSD
What is the most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia?
heterozygous achondroplasia
What three conditions cause bowel to be echogenic?
Down’s, cystic fibrosis, or hx of placental hemorrhage
What is the most common entanglement of the cord?
nuchal cord
Where is the CSp located?
between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles
Scanning and you don’t visualize the CSP and the lateral ventricles posterior horn is dilated
teardrop sign
agenesis of the corpus callosum
Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome
Inflammation of the liver due to pelvic infection
rhizomelia
shortened limbs
