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OB/GYN Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Midgut herniation is considered abnormal past ___ weeks.

A

12

14 according to ppt

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2
Q

When is NT abnormal?

A

3mm+

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3
Q

When is implantation complete?

A

Day 23

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4
Q

When does fertilization occur? Where?

A

24-36 hours after ovulation in the ampulla

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5
Q

Blastocyst burrows about ___ days after fertilization.

A

7 days

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6
Q

When do the amnion and chorion fuse?

A

12-16 weeks, 14-16 weeks LMP

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7
Q

Where is the yolk sac located?

A

chorionic cavity

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8
Q

The yolk sac is visualized endovaginally at week ___. It will always be seen when the MSD is ___ mm.

A

week 5, 8mm

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9
Q

A missed abortion is defined as:

A

Retention of a dead conceptus for a prolonged period (e.g. 2 months)

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10
Q

The CRL measurement may be used through week ___.

A

12

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11
Q

The length of time calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period to the point at which the pregnancy is being assessed is ______ age and _____ age.

A

gestational and menstrual

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12
Q

The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium is ______.

A

the double decidual sign

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13
Q

The first site of formation of RBCs that will nourish the embryo is the ____.

A

Primary yolk sac

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14
Q

The diameter of the yolk sac should never be more than ___ mm.

A

6 (5.6)

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15
Q

After fertilization, the corpus luteum produces

A

estrogen and progesterone

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16
Q

The zygote undergoes rapid cell division to form the 12-16 cell

A

morula

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17
Q

A pt is 10 weeks and presents with extremely elevated hCG levels and pregnancy induced HTN. You suspect:

A

hydatidiform mole

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18
Q

A heterotopic pregnancy is:

A

an ectopic pregnancy with a normal IUP

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19
Q

In a ruptured ectopic, which site is more life threatening?

a. interstitial
b. ampulla
c. fimbria
d. isthmus

A

a. interstitial

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20
Q

Theca lutein cysts, pregnancy induced HTN, hyperemesis, and large for gestational age are all associated with ____.

A

GTD

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21
Q

A molar pregnancy that is invasive but does not metastasize is called ___.

A

chorioadenoma destruens

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22
Q

hCG titers with an ectopic

A

will not double every two days, will be lower than normal then start dropping

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23
Q

hCG titers with GTD

A

abnormally high

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24
Q

What is the most accurate measurement to determine EDD?

A

CRL

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25
Q

A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to form is called ____ or _____.

A

blighted ovum, anembryonic pregnancy

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26
Q

Formed at 23 days when the primary yolk sac is pinched off by the extraembryonic coelom

A

secondary yolk sac

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27
Q

cellular, outermost embryonic membrane composed of trophoblast lined with mesoderm

A

chorion

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28
Q

The muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries are

A

Piriformis

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29
Q

Where does fertilization usually occur?

A

ampulla

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30
Q

The floor of the pelvis is formed by the _____ muscles

A

Levator ani

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31
Q

Miss Greenfield is 73 years old and asymptomatic. She is NOT on hormone replacement therapy. Her endometrium should not measure more than

A

5mm

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32
Q

Which vessel provides the best landmark for localizing the ovary

A

internal iliac artery

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33
Q

Doppler waveforms of the uterine arterial flow typically show

A

high velocity, high resistance

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34
Q

Doppler waveforms of the ovarian arterial flow typically show

A

low velocity, low resistance

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35
Q

Which muscle groups form the lateral pelvic sidewalls

A

Obturator Internus

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36
Q

Anatomically, the uterus lies _______ to the urinary bladder and ________ to the rectum

A

posterior, anterior

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37
Q

T/F: The broad ligament is a true ligament?

A

false

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38
Q

A double fold of peritoneum that does not provide suspensory support to the uterus is _____

A

broad ligament

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39
Q

The potential space around the cervix is called the

A

fornix

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40
Q

The term used to describe the onset of the first menstrual cycle is

A

menarche

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41
Q

The endometrial echo would appear hypoechoic

A

during the periovulatory stage

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42
Q

Until ovulation, ovarian follicles grow at the daily rate of

A

2-3mm

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43
Q

The phase of the menstrual cycle following ovulation is referred to as the

A

secretory phase

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44
Q

Amenorrhea is

A

the absence of menses

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45
Q

Hematometracolpos

A

blood in the vagina and uterus

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46
Q

What is the most likely cause of Hematometracolpos?

A

imperforate hymen

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47
Q

The drug of choice most commonly used to induce ovulation is

A

clomid

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48
Q

What is GIFT

A

gamete intrafallopian transfer

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49
Q

A procedure involving the transfer of fertilized oocytes into the fallopian tube either laparoscopically or transcervically is

A

ZIFT

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50
Q

The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT would be considered abnormal if it measured more than

A

8mm

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51
Q

On color Doppler sonography, most malignant ovarian tumors yield flow signals that are best characterized as (high/low) impediance?

A

low

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52
Q

How does tamoxifen affect the uterus?

A

Causes a thickened, cystic appearing endometrium and increases the risk for endometrial carcinoma

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53
Q

A small amount of physiologic fluid may be seen in a postmenopausal endometrium. What is this usually due to?

A

endometrial atrophy

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54
Q

The most common gynecological malignant disease?

A

endometrial carcinoma

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55
Q

The functional layers of the endometrium are vascularized by the _______ arteries

A

spiral

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56
Q

In postmenopausal women, the ovaries measure approximately

A

2 x 1 x 0.5 cm

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57
Q

The abdominal circumference is measured at the level of

A

the stomach, left portal vein, and umbilical vein

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58
Q

The BPD is measured at the level of

A

thalamus and cavum septum pellucidum

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59
Q

Holoprosencephaly is associated with trisomy

A

13

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60
Q

The CI (cephalic index) is used to determine

A

head shape

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61
Q

The term double bubble denotes:

A

dilated duodenum next to stomach

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62
Q

T/F: The femur length includes only the femoral diaphysis

A

true

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63
Q

Clinodactyly

A

permanent curvature or overlapping digits

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64
Q

Measurement that includes both orbits at the same time

A

binocular distance

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65
Q

Findings of thickened nuchal fold, shortened femurs, and hypoplasia of the middle phalanx of the 5th digit are most likely associated with

A

Trisomy 21

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66
Q

Fetuses with Turner’s syndrome may also have an associated

A

cystic hygroma

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67
Q

an extra set of chromosomes

A

triploidy

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68
Q

A small rounded echogenic structure within the left ventricle of a fetal heart most likely is

A

papillary muscle

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69
Q

euploid

A

normal, balanced set of chromosomes

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70
Q

findings of epicanthal folds, cardiac defects, simian crease, protruding tongue

A

Trisomy 21

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71
Q

The absence of the cavum septum pellucidum and enlargement of the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle is called

A

tear drop sign/Dandy Walker’s malformation

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72
Q

nasal hypoplasia

A

nasal bone is not existent or measures less than 2.5 mm

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73
Q

A demonstration of the stomach, intestines, liver or heart in the thorax and associated with a mediastinal shift to the opposite side is called a

A

diaphragmatic hernia

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74
Q

normally situated umbilicus: omphalocele or gastroschesis

A

gastroschesis

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75
Q

Hyperechoic bowel should be compared to the echogenicity of ________ to be definitively diagnosed as “hyperechoic bowel”

A

the skeleton

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76
Q

Open neural tube defects are associated with elevated MS-AFP of ____________

A

> 2 MOM

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77
Q

____ should not be included in femur length measurement

A

distal femoral epiphysis

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78
Q

hypotelorism

A

eyes too close together

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79
Q

hypertelorism

A

eyes too far apart

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80
Q

which occurs with median cleft syndromes and frontal cephaloceles (hypertelorism/hypotelorism)

A

hypertelorism

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81
Q

IUGR is classified as weight below the ___ percentile

A

10th

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82
Q

teratogen

A

Any substance that causes abnormal structures in an embryo

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83
Q

thalidomide is an example of a

A

teratogen

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84
Q

Platycephaly

A

Flattening of the skull

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85
Q

“banana” sign

A

Refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present

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86
Q

“lemon” sign

A

Occurs with spina bifida; frontal bones collapse inward

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87
Q

Microphthalmos

A

small eyes

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88
Q

The space of Retzius is also known as the

A

prevesical space

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89
Q

The follicles of the ovary are found in the

A

cortex

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90
Q

T/F: The posterior surface of the ovary is not covered by the broad ligament

A

true

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91
Q

Which of the following terms correctly describes the echogenic properties of the normal secretory endometrium in relation to the surrounding myometrium

A

hyperechoic

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92
Q

The primary function of LH is to

A

ensure the maturation of the Graafian follicle

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93
Q

In a uterus bicornis bicollis, there will be

A

1 uterine body with a septation, 2 cervices and 1 vagina

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94
Q

Which hormone supports and maintains the activity of the corpus luteum during the first trimester of pregnancy

A

progesterone

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95
Q

The four parts of the fallopian tubes are the following, in order from ovarian end to uterine end

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, intramural (interstitial)

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96
Q

What layer(s) of the endometrium are sloughed off during menstruation

A

decidual

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97
Q

Ovulaton occurs between the

A

follicular phase and proliferative phase

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98
Q

uterine response

A

menstrual, proliferative, secretory

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99
Q

ovarian response

A

follicular, ovulatory, luteal

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100
Q

menopause

A

termination of regular menses usually occurring at 45-55 years

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101
Q

menarche

A

onset of menses usually occurring at 11-14 years of age

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102
Q

premature menopause

A

before age 40

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103
Q

Many birth control pills work by blocking ______. This inhibits the release of an egg.

A

LH surge

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104
Q

the hormone that stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles

A

FSH

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105
Q

the hormone that stimulates progesterone production and peaks after ovulation

it also makes the dominant follicle mature in order to rupture and release the egg

A

LH

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106
Q

Follicular response

A

days 1-14, follicles identified

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107
Q

when may a dominant follicle be seen by ultrasound, what might it measure

A

day 8, 10mm

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108
Q

Ovulatory response (ovulation)

A

day 14, dominant follicle ruptures 24-36 hrs after onset of LH surge

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109
Q

luteal response

A

15-28, ruptured Graafian follicle forms corpus luteum which produces progesterone, maintains the secretory endometrium

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110
Q

When does the corpus luteum regress if fertilization does not occur?

A

14 days

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111
Q

What would you not see after ovulation?

a. ) dominant follicle
b. ) corpus luteum cyst
c. ) ectopic pregnancy

A

a.) dominant follice

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112
Q

Menstrual phase

A

days 1-5, progesterone declines, endometrium sheds

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113
Q

what does the endometrium look like before and after the menstrual phase?

A

before: thick and echogenic, after: thin and slightly irregular measuring less than 2mm post menses

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114
Q

Proliferative phase

A

days 6-14, ovaries are releasing estrogen causing regrowth of the endometrium

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115
Q

How does the endometrium appear in the early and late proliforative phase?

A

early: hypoechoic area around prominent midline echo
late: thichkened, isoechoic endometrium

max ap 6-8mm

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116
Q

What is the bight echogenic middle line seen during the proliferative phase?

A

a reflection of the mucosal and basal layers are touching each other

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117
Q

The echogenicity of an IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) should be

A

hyperechoic to the myometrium

118
Q

A submucosal leiomyoma is found

A

under the endometrium

119
Q

The classic appearance of a fibroid is

A

focal hypoechoic mass with poor sound through transmission

120
Q

By the 10th day, the invading trophoblast has formed 2 distinct layers called

A

cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

121
Q

The function endocrine units of the placenta are

A

chorionic villi

122
Q

Put the following in order:

embryo, zygote, blastocyst, morula

A

zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo

123
Q

In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by week ____

A

12

124
Q

________ refers to the number of deliveries of viable infants

A

parity

125
Q

The first reliable indicator of IUP is the

A

yolk sac

126
Q

The triad of findings in Meckel-Gruber syndrome is:

A

occipital encephalocele, polycystic kidneys and polydactyly

127
Q

The most common clinical indications for an ectopic pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT

A.) painful adnexal region and vaginal bleeding
B.) painless, vaginal bleeding
C.) amenorrhea and adnexal mass
D.) abdominal tenderness and amenorrhea

A

B.) painless, vaginal bleeding

128
Q

“bunch of grapes”

A

sonographic findings of a complete hydatidiform mole

129
Q

landmarks for BPD

A

falx, 3rd ventricle, cavum septum pellucidum, thalami

130
Q

Decreased head circumference after 38 weeks is associated with

A

asymmetrical IUGR

131
Q

In transabdominal scanning, a normal gestational sac can be consistently demonstrated when the beta hCG level is:

A

1800 mIu/ml

132
Q

With a CVS procedure, ______________ is/are obtained either transcervially or transabdominally.

A

trophoblastic cells

133
Q

Which structure is located directly posterior to the vagina?

A

rectum

134
Q

Menorrhagia

A

abnormally heavy or prolonged periods

135
Q

Dysmenorrhea

A

painful periods

136
Q

Amenorrhea

A

absence of menses (primary or secondary)

137
Q

This benign uterine disease caused by the development and extension of endometrial tissue into the myometrium is called

A

adenomyosis

138
Q

The double bleb sign is an uncommon transient phenomenon in an early pregnancy. It represents the ____ and ____

A

amniotic sac and yolk sac

139
Q

Triploidy syndrome is when there is a(an

A

complete extra set of chromosomes

140
Q

The postpartum presentation of an invasive mole is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

1) very enlarged uterus
2) persistent bleeding
3) elevated beta hCG
4) amenorrhea

A

4) amenorrhea

141
Q

the most sensitive indicator of fetal growth and nutrition

A

fetal weight

142
Q

shoulder dystocia is related to what

A

large for gestational age

143
Q

The clinical hallmark for an invasive mole

A

hemorrhage

144
Q

Theca lutein cysts are associated with _____

A

GTD

145
Q

Macrosomnia is a fetus measuring in the ____ percentile in growth

A

90th

146
Q

T/F: Hypertelorism is caused by craniosynstosis or an anterior cephalocele and causes the orbits to be too far apart.

A

True

147
Q

T/F: Hypotelorism is associated with holoprosencephaly, chromosomal and central nervous system disorders, and cleft palate with abnormally closely spaced orbits.

A

true

148
Q

T/F: Cleft palate can be associated with chromosomal and congenital anomalies and an incomplete fusion of facial grooves that create a fissure in the roof of the mouth which can communicate with the nasal cavities.

A

true

149
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of an endometrioma

A

discrete adnexal mass with enhancement

150
Q

The most common pelvic tumors in women are:

A

leiomyomas

151
Q

The differential for a solid adnexal mass would include

A

fibroma

152
Q

An infection that involves the fallopian tube and ovaries is called:

A

TOA

153
Q

T/F: PID is almost always a bilateral collection of pus and fluid

A

true

154
Q

T/F: PID includes a vaginal discharge with bleeding

A

true

155
Q

What is an infection within the fallopian tube called?

A

salpingitis

156
Q

Early in the disease, the clinical presentation of both PID and endometriosis may mimic:

A

functional bowel disease

157
Q

The most common etiology of PID is:

A

STDs

158
Q

Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary is called:

A

TOA complex

159
Q

parametritis

A

Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments

160
Q

Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called:

A

parametritis

161
Q

TOA complex

A

Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary

162
Q

Clinical symptoms of PID may include:

A

fever, dull aching pain, no symptoms

163
Q

The differential considerations of PID may include all of the following EXCEPT:

1) dermoid
2) endometriosis
3) serous cystadenoma
4) ovarian neooplasm

A

3) serous cystadenoma

164
Q

Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts and indistinct margins describe:

A

periovarian inflammation

165
Q

A complex adnexal mass most likely represents:

A

pyosalpinx

166
Q

Perihepatic inflammation ascending from a pelvic infection is called:

A

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome

167
Q

An asymptomatic 32 year old woman is diagnosed with a left adnexal mass on physical examination A prior history of PID has been reported. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates an anechoic tubular structure in the LLQ. This most likely represents:

A

hydrosalpinx

168
Q

A 24 year old woman presents with a fever, vaginal discharge and intense pelvic pain. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a complex multi-loculated irregular mass in the pouch of Douglas. This most likely represents:

A

TOA

169
Q

A 25 year old woman complains of painful menstrual cycles and infertility. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a hypoechoic well-defined adnexal mass. Normal ovaries are seen bilaterally. This most likely represents:

A

endometrioma

170
Q

complex cul-de-sac mass that distorts the pelvic anatomy

A

pelvic abscess

171
Q

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome is associated with:

A

PID

172
Q

Large pelvic masses, whether benign or malignant, may cause ________; therefore the _________ should be evaluated also:

A

urinary obstruction, kidneys

173
Q

Women with a history of PID are at risk for all of the following EXCEPT:

1) tubal scarring
2) endometrial hyperplasia
3) ectopic pregnancy
4) peritonitis

A

2) endometrial hyperplasia

174
Q

T/F: Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called parametritis.

A

true

175
Q

T/F: Infection within the ovary is called oophoritis.

A

true

176
Q

While scanning the uterus and ovaries you notice a large pelvic mass. What is another area that will need to be evaluated for any abnormalities?

A

kidneys for hydronephrosis

177
Q

When you see a crescent or banana shaped cerebellum what do you suspect?

A

spina bifida

178
Q

Fetal Tachycardia vs Bradycardia

A

Tachycardia: 200-240 BPM
Bradycardia: usually less than 100 BPM

179
Q

Placenta Accreta vs
Increta vs
Percreta

A

Accreta: growth of the placenta into the superficial myometrium
Increta: deep invasion of the placenta into the myometrium
Percreta: placenta perforates the myometrium

180
Q

What do you suspect in a fetus with
hypoplasia or agenesis of the spine
Mom has diabetes before gets pregnant (not gestational diabetes)

A

caudal regression syndrome

181
Q

When is the distal femoral epiphysis routinely visualized?

A

32 weeks

182
Q

oligohydraminos

A

<5cm

183
Q

polyhydraminos

A

> 20cm

184
Q

What is the path of the blood into and out of the fetus?

A

Placenta carries oxygenated blood to fetus through the umbilical vein
Blood leaves fetus through the 2 umbilical arteries and returns to the placenta (not oxygenated)

185
Q

Who is at a greater risk of developing endometrial cancer?

Morbidly obese diabetic female with no children
Average size female with 7 children

A

Endometrical CA risks
Obese
Diabetic
No children

186
Q

Most common form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

Type 1

187
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta that manifests deafness

A

Type 1

188
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta with good prognosis

A

Types 1 & 4

189
Q

most severe form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

Type 2

190
Q

Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta has

Underdeveloped lungs, multiple bone fractures
Frequently lethal (prior or shortly after birth)
Due to respiratory distress

A

Type 2

191
Q

Non lethal forms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

1, 3, & 4

192
Q

Prune Belly Syndrome aka?

A

AKA Eagle Barrett Syndrome

193
Q

Eagle Barrett Syndrome

A

Partial or complete absence of abdominal muscles
Urinary tract malformations
Can cause ureters to enlarge
oligohydramnios

194
Q

Monozygotic vs Dizygotic

A

Monozygotic
One zygote originated forms multiple fetuses
One egg and one sperm
Can be Di-Di, Mono-Di, or Mono-Mono

Dizygotic
Two zygotes originated forms multiple fetuses
Two eggs and two sperm
ALWAYS have 2 amnios, 2 chorions, 2 separate placentas

195
Q

how many placentas with mono-mono

A

single placenta

196
Q

Twin peak sign is seen with

A

2 placentas, di/di

197
Q

on u/s looks same as dizygotic

A

monozygotic di-di

198
Q

monozygotic twinning when division occurs before Day 5 after conception

A

di-di

199
Q

most common monozygotic twinning

A

mono-di

200
Q

how many placentas with mono-di?

A

one

201
Q

how many placentas with di-di?

A

two

202
Q

monozygotic twinning when division 5-10 days after conception

A

Mono-di

203
Q

least common monozygotic twinning

A

mono-mono

204
Q

most dangerous type of twinning

A

mono-mono

205
Q

Conjoined twins occur when division occurs after day _______.

A

day 13

206
Q

Twin-twin transfusion

A

Unique to monozygotic twins
Shared placenta
Anomaly in the vascular supply of the placenta
Artery to vein anastomosis
Arterial blood from donor twin pumped into venous system of receiving twin

207
Q

Donor twin

A

Small for dates
Oligo
“stuck” twin with empty bladder and decreased movement

208
Q

Recipient twin

A

Hydropic with ascites
Enlarged liver, heart and kidneys
polyhydramnios

209
Q

Fusion of the amnion and chorion should occur by:

A

week 16???????????????????????????????????

210
Q

Cisterna magna AP diameter should not exceed:

A

10mm

211
Q

Secretory Phase

A

Days 15-28
Increase in progesterone
Endo up to 18 mm
Hyperechoic endo with obscured midline, often with posterior acoustic enhancement

212
Q

Proliferative Phase

A

Days 6-14
Increase in estrogen
Endo 6-8 mm
Triple line seen on ultrasound

213
Q

Menstrual phase

A

Days 1-5
Decrease in Progesterone
Max endo post menses 2 mm

214
Q

Follicular phase

A

Days 1-14

Follicles grow; any over 11mm likely ovulates

215
Q

Ovulatory phase

A

Day 14
Sudden decrease in follicular size
FF in cul-de-sac

216
Q

Luteal Phase

A

Days 15-28

Small, irregular cystic mass (regressing corpus luteum)

217
Q

What affect does estrogen have on the endometrium?

A

Causes it to regenerate itself

218
Q

What is relationship between patient on oral contraceptives and their endometrium?

A

They don’t elevated estrogen levels in their system-therefore, their endometrium doesn’t thicken
Looks thin and echogenic

219
Q

When is the choroid plexus initially visualized as a hyperechoic structure on ultrasound?

A

week 10

220
Q

The umbilical arteries are branches from what?

A

internal iliac arteries

221
Q

By seeing this structure in the brain you are able to exclude most midline brain abnormalities.

A

CSP

222
Q

Which laboratory value will be greatly increased in a fetus with gastroschisis?

A

AFP

223
Q 
While scanning a fetus you see the following:
Severely shortened limbs (rhizomelia)
Bowed long bones
Narrow thorax with normal trunk length
Cloverleaf skull
What do you suspect?
A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

Lethal skeletal dysplasia

224
Q

What is the most common neural tube defect?

A

anencephaly

225
Q 
While scanning a 2nd trimester fetus you see the following:
A single large midline ventricle
Proboscis
May see cleft lip or palate
What do you suspect?
A 
Holoprosencephaly
Associated with Trisomy 13
Associated with facial defects “the face predicts the brain”
Appearance varies based on severity
Alobar – most severe
Semilobar
Lobar – least severe
226
Q

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar

227
Q

What is the most common non-lethal skeletal dysplasia?

A

achondroplasia

228
Q

Heterozygous form is rhizomelic shortening of limbs (usually UE) and short LE
Later manifestation and spontaneous
Often missed in the 2nd trimester
Heterozygous – non lethal
Homozygous – lethal
rhizomelia; small thorax=pulm hyplasia; possibly cloverleaf skull/large cranium

A

Achondroplasia

229
Q

While doing an anatomy scan on a 22 week fetus you measure the nuchal fold to be 8 mm. What is a concern?

A

Trisomy 21/ Down Syndrome

Nuchal fold measuring over 6mm between weeks 15-21 weeks is abnormal

230
Q

Elevated HCG

Decreased MFAFP

A

Down’s

231
Q

What is dilated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?

A

3rd ventricle

232
Q

What is the role of the foramen ovale in a fetus?

A

This structure allows for communication to occur between the right and left atria.

233
Q

How soon after seeing the cumulus oophorus does ovulation typically occur?

A

within 36 hours

234
Q 
While scanning a fetus you see the following:
Lymphedema or cystic hygroma
Cardiac anomalies; aortic stenosis
Horseshoe kidney or only one kidney
What do you suspect?
A

Turner’s Syndrome

Prognosis based on how severe the cardiac and renal abnormalities are

235
Q

Complete or partial absence of the X chromosome in phenotypic females

A

Turner’s

236
Q

What is maternal side of placenta called?

A

decidua basalis

237
Q

What is fetal side of placenta called?

A

chorion frondosum

238
Q

What do you suspect when you see that the chorionic plate of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate? A small chorionic ring surrounded by thickened amnion and chorion

A

Placenta Circumvallate

239
Q

What do you suspect if you see the following while scanning a 24 yr/ old female:
Thick and hypervascular endometrium OR
Complex tubular adnexal mass OR
Ill defined multi locular adnexal mass OR
Everything looks WNL

A

PID

240
Q

hematoclpos

A

blood in the vagina - usually because of an imperforate hymen

241
Q

hematometra

A

blood in uterus

242
Q

What can polyhydraminos be as sign of?

A

abnormal swallowing abilities

243
Q

An MD has requested a translabial ultrasound. What is the structure you will be focusing mostly on?

A

The cervix

244
Q

While scanning a 32 week pregnant patient you suspect she has a placenta previa. What do you need to do to ensure you aren’t misleading the Radiologist with your findings?

A

Make sure her bladder isn’t overdistended

An overdistended bladder can give the appearance of a placenta previa

245
Q 
What are the following most likely associated with?
Duodenal atresia
Omphalocele
Neural tube defect
Facial cleft
A

polyhydraminos

246
Q

What is evaluated when doing an umbilical artery Doppler study?
Specifics of PW image

A

S/D ratio

Also looking at whether the diastolic flow is reduced or reversed (below the baseline)

247
Q

How should the apex of the fetal heart be positioned?

A

45 degrees

left side of body

248
Q

A pregnant patient comes in for an ultrasound due to elevated maternal alpha fetoprotein levels. You are suspicious the fetus might have what complication?

A

abdominal wall defect

249
Q

THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS

A

PREVESICAL SPACE

AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS

250
Q

What is the Space of Retzius aka

A

PREVESICAL SPACE

AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS

251
Q

What is the space of Retzius?

A

THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS

252
Q

THE ENDOMETRIUM IS _______________ COMPARED TO THE MYOMETRIUM DURING THE SECRETORY PHASE.

A

hyperechoic

253
Q

THIS HORMONE DOES THE FOLLOWING:

STIMULATES THE ENDOMETRIUM TO THICKEN
MAKES FIBROIDS ENLARGE
CAUSES BREAST DUCTS TO BECOME ENGORGED
STIMULATES THE FALLOPIAN TUBES TO CONTRACT

A

estrogen

254
Q

MRS. JONES COMES IN WITH A UTERUS BICORNIS BICOLLIS. WHAT DO YOU EXPECT TO SEE?

A

2 UTERINE BODIES
2 CERVIXES
1 VAGINA

255
Q

WHILE DOING AN OB EXAM YOU NOTICE THERE IS NO CSP AND THE POSTERIOR HORN OF THE LATERAL VENTRICLE IS ENLARGED. WHAT OTHER STRUCTURE IS LIKELY MISSING? THE ENLARGED VENTRICLE WILL CAUSE WHAT APPEARANCE?

A

ABSENSE OF THE CORPUS CALLOSUM

TEAR DROP SIGN

256
Q

WHAT IS SUSPECTED WHEN THE FETUS HAS THE FOLLOWING:
SHORT FEMUR
CARDIAC DEFECTS
DOUBLE BUBBLE SIGN

A

Down’s Syndrome

257
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

THE FOURTH VENTRICLE IS A SCAN PLANE LANDMARK FOR A BPD MEASUREMNT

A

False; 3rd

258
Q

WHILE SCANNING THE FETAL HEAD YOU NOTICE AN ANECHOIC AREA INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM. WHAT ARE YOU IMAGING?

A

Cisterna magna

259
Q

LIST 3 CAUSES OF A DECREASED SERUM HCG LEVEL

A

FETAL DEMISE
INCORRECT DATES
MISSED ABORTION

260
Q

THE NAME OF THE PROCEDURE WHERE TROPHOBLASTIC CELLS ARE OBTAINED

A

CVS

261
Q

WHICH LIGAMENT EXTENDS FROM THE UTERINE CORNU, GOES OVER THE PELVIC RIM, THROUGH THE INGUINAL CANAL, AND IS SECURED AT THE LABIA MAJORA?

A

round ligament

262
Q

WHILE SCANNING A 24 WK FETUS YOU NOTICE HE HAS A CLEFT PALATE, HOLOPROSENCEPHALY AND HEART DEFECTS. WHAT DO YOU SUSPECT?

A

Trisomy 13

263
Q

WHEN SHOULD CORPUS LETEUM CYSTS RESOLVE DURING THE PREGANCY?

A

by week 16

264
Q

LOCATION OF GARTNER DUCT CYSTS VS. NABOTHIAN CYSTS

A 
nabothian = cx
Gartner = vagina
265
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

PATIENT HAS A SERUM TEST THAT SHOWS A LOWER THAN NORMAL LEVEL OF AFP. YOU SUSPECT A FETUS WITH SPINA BIFIDA

A

False, tris 21

266
Q

WHEN PERFORMING A TRANSVAGINAL U/S YOU SHOULD SEE A YOLK SAC WHEN THE MSD IS:

A

8mm

267
Q

70 yr/old F and no symptoms. No HRT. Her endometrium should not measure more than:

A

8mm

268
Q

The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT should not measure more than:

A

8mm

269
Q

What is the corpus callosum’s role?

A

It is a mass of white matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres
Forms the roof of the lateral ventricles
Sits on top of the CSP

270
Q

Bicornuate uterus vs. Didelphyic uterus:

A

Both due to “lack of fusion”

Bicornuate : 1 uterus; indented > 1 cm; 1 CX and vagina

Didelphyis : 2 uteri; (may have 1 or 2 CX or vaginas)

271
Q

When is the Nuchal fold abnormal?

A

6mm

272
Q

When is the Nuchal fold measured?

A

15-21 weeks

273
Q

fetal papyraceous

A

when fetal death occurs too late in pregnancy to be reabsorbed

274
Q

name the space around the cervix

A

fornix

275
Q

What are the 4 d’s of enndometriosis?

A

dysuria
dyschezia
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea

276
Q

postmenopausal women with simple ovarian cysts are not likely cancer if measuring less than ____

A

5cm

277
Q

Meig’s syndrome

A

ovarian mass, ascites, pleural effusion

278
Q

chorionic villi invade the myometrium superficially in placenta ______

A

accreta

279
Q

what forms between the corpus callosum and fornices

A

CSP

280
Q

what do you suspect when you see ascites, polyhydraminos, pleural effusion, and anasarca?

A

nonimune hydrops

281
Q

What is measured when you suspect IUGR?

A

FL/AC

282
Q

Cloverleaf skull

A

thnatophoric dysplasia

283
Q

What will the placenta look like with fetal demise?

A

complex, small, deteriorating

284
Q

when the cord inserts into the membranes before it enters the placenta

A

velamentous

285
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

VSD

286
Q

What is the most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia?

A

heterozygous achondroplasia

287
Q

What three conditions cause bowel to be echogenic?

A

Down’s, cystic fibrosis, or hx of placental hemorrhage

288
Q

What is the most common entanglement of the cord?

A

nuchal cord

289
Q

Where is the CSp located?

A

between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles

290
Q

Scanning and you don’t visualize the CSP and the lateral ventricles posterior horn is dilated

A

teardrop sign

agenesis of the corpus callosum

291
Q

Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome

A

Inflammation of the liver due to pelvic infection

292
Q

rhizomelia

A

shortened limbs

OB/GYN Final (1 decks)

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