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Final 2014 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following kind of secondary bonding is most subject to degradation in a water solution?
    a. Covalent
    b. metallic
    c. Van der Waals
    d. hydrogen
    e. plasma
A

d. hydrogen

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following Bravais lattice structures is the closest packing arrangement?
    a. body centered cubic
    b. orthorhombic
    c. hexagonal
    d. tetragonal - martensitic
    e. simple cubic
A

c. hexagonal

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3
Q
  1. Bond lengths are in the range of up to 1 Angstrom. Which of the following is another way of identifying this distance?
    a. 10 nanometers
    b. 10 micrometers
    c. 0.1 nanometers
    d. 0.1 micrometers
    e. 10 picometers
A

c. 0.1 nanometers

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4
Q
  1. Can atoms diffuse in the solid state when the ambient temperature is 100’s of degrees centigrade below the melting temperature of the material?
    a. Yes
    b. No
    c. Only if the material is solubilized
    d. Only if the material is a solid solution
    e. Only if the material has one single lattice structure
A

a. Yes

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5
Q
  1. The weakest of bonds are the van der Waals forces. How can they help hold a solid together?
    a. They can act as Velcro, especially with branches in polymeric materials, interlocking together.
    b. They can never be strong enough to hold a solid material together,
    c. With thousands of them in a solid they can add up to a significant amount of cohesive force at room temperature.
    d. They can convert to hydrogen bonds in the presence of water.
    e. They can attract chelating agents that increase interatomic bonding.
A

c. With thousands of them in a solid they can add up to a significant amount of cohesive force at room temperature.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is a term used to descrlbe a chemical attack on tooth structure?
    a. Abfraction
    b. Abrasion
    c. Erosion
    d. Elasticization
    e. Incineration
A

c. Erosion

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best definition of density?
    a. Height per unit weight
    b. Volume per unit mass
    c. Compaction per unit mass
    d. Weight per unit mass
    e. Mass per unit volume
A

e. Mass per unit volume

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is a result of refractive index mismatch in a composite restorative material between a glass filler and its resin matrix?
    a. The material is more opaque.
    b. The composite has more flexibility.
    c. The composite has more water sorption.
    d. The composite is more transparent.
    e. The composite is more brittle.
A

a. The material is more opaque.

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9
Q
  1. What causes fluorescence?
    a. The transmission of light through the material
    b. The response to varying intensities of light at one frequency
    c. The absorption of light at a lower wavelength causing the output of light at a longer wavelength
    d. The absorption of light at a longer wavelength causing the output of light at a shorter wavelength
    e. The reflectance of the entire absorption spectrum of a material
A

c. The absorption of light at a lower wavelength causing the output of light at a longer wavelength

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10
Q
  1. Which color system is divided into units based on the minimal change that can be perceived?
    a. Munsell
    b. Mosaic
    c. additive mixing
    d. L*,a*,b*
    e. Ostwald
A

a. Munsell

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11
Q
  1. What are the three regions designated on all Pourbaix diagrams for every metallic
    element?
    a. Passivation, immunity, active corrosion
    b. Solid solution, intermetallic compound, amorphous
    c. Stress, strain, modulus of elasticity
    d. Liquid, liquid/solid combination, solid
    e. Occlusal, facial, gingival
A

a. Passivation, immunity, active corrosion

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is a metal or alloy that passivates in normal oral conditions?
    a. titanium
    b. silica
    c. iron-carbide
    d. gold-palladium-copper
    e. molybdenum-iron
A

a. titanium

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13
Q
  1. What is oral galvanism?
    a. Pulpal pathosis leading to pulpal necrosis
    b. A systemic toxicity resulting from the absorption of the ions of metals in dental
    restorations
    c. The change in occlusal relationships due to metal restorations
    d. A current in the mouth due to different metallic restorations possible causing
    pulpal pain
    e. Inducing gingival hyperplasia due to metal margins on crowns
A

d. A current in the mouth due to different metallic restorations possible causing
pulpal pain

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14
Q
  1. Which Of the following is the most deleterious of the four mechanisms that increase corrosion of an alloy?
    a. Heterogeneous composition
    b. Inhomogeneous surface
    c. Two different metals in the mouth
    d. Pits and fissures
    e. Integrative resistance
A

d. Pits and fissures

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15
Q
  1. What is a limitation on using diametral tensile testing to determine the tensile strength of a material?
    a. The material must be viscoelastic.
    b. The set material must have a high modulus of elasticity.
    c. The unset material must be available in large quantities.
    d. The material must be tough.
    e. The set material must be wider at the ends than it is in the middle.
A

b. The set material must have a high modulus of elasticity.

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16
Q
  1. What kind of mechanical test is stress relaxation?
    a. The measurement of the loss of material through wear
    b. The determination of the ultimate strength by means of fatigue cycling
    c. The measurement of the change in dimension by application of a constant load lower than its ultimate strength
    d. The measurement of the change in the stress material exhibits under a constant strain
    e. The determination of the proportional limit by means of a constantly increasing load and the offset that allows easy reading of an intersection with a parallel line to the initial slope
A

d. The measurement of the change in the stress material exhibits under a constant strain

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best laboratorv test for predicting clinical failure by fracture?
    a. Compressive strength
    b. Fracture toughness
    c. Shear strength
    d. Fatigue testing
    e. Flexural strength
A

d. Fatigue testing

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18
Q
  1. A material demonstrates a lot of permanent deformation when tested with a slow increase in force, but only a little permanent deformation when tested with a quick application of force. Why?
    a. The material is having a lattice structure change within the grains during the application of force.
    b. The material is going from being tough to being brittle.
    c. The material is going from being brittle to tough.
    d. The material is viscoelastic.
    e. The material is becoming an intermetallic compound at high speeds.
A

d. The material is viscoelastic.

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19
Q
  1. What is viscoelasticity?
    a. The description of a fluid that is sticky
    b. The description of a material that does not follow a normal stress strain curve because of its elastic and fluid properties
    c. The description of the mechanical properties of fluid
    d. The description of the mechanical properties of a rigid solid
    e. The description of a solid material that still has a liquid, or molten, component within the matrix of the grain or crystalline structure
A

b. The description of a material that does not follow a normal stress strain curve because of its elastic and fluid properties

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20
Q
  1. For the crown and bridge material represented by line “D”, at what stress will the material fail because the bridge starts to deform permanently?
    a. 1,050 MPa
    b. 800 MPa
    c. 0.12
    d. 0.10
    e. 0.04
A

b. 800 MPa

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21
Q
  1. Which line represents a material with the lowest modulus of elasticity?
    a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
  2. Which line represents a material with the eatest toughness?
    a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
  3. Which line represents a material with the lowest proportional limit?
    a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
  4. Which of the lines represents a material with the highest ultimate strength?
    a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
A
  1. E
  2. D
  3. C
  4. A
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22
Q
  1. What is the basic precept of most of toxicolog?
    a. Everything in life poses a risk that is based on the probability that an exposure can take place.
    b. Everything in the environment can cause cancer.
    c. Everyone is subject to poisons.
    d. Everything can be a poison, whether there is an adverse response is dose dependent.
    e. Allerglc responses are dose dependent.
A

d. Everything can be a poison, whether there is an adverse response is dose dependent.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following means that the toxic effects are felt in the offspring and not in the individual exposed?
    a. Allergenicity
    b. Mutageniclty
    c. Teratogenicity
    d. Carcinogenicity
    e. Chronic toxicity
A

c. Teratogenicity

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24
Q
  1. What is the major advantage of testing for toxicity in vivo in animals?
    a. It has the most consistent with the least variation.
    b. It is the most valid.
    c. It can be performed with the least cost.
    d. It can produce the most rapid results.
    e. It can be performed with a small sample size.
A

b. It is the most valid.

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25
Q
  1. Which Of the following are tow factors to bc considered when determining the risk while performing a risk analysis on a material or chemical?
    a. Information on the web and the benefit of the material or chemical
    b. The incidence of the adverse effect and the perception of the population
    c. The benefit of the material or chemical and the seriousness of the negative effect
    d. The severity of the adverse effect and the percent of the population that could be affected
    e. The governmental regulations and the relative benefit of the material
A

d. The severity of the adverse effect and the percent of the population that could be affected

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26
Q
  1. What FDA product classification does most of our dental materials qualify under?
    a. Class I
    b. Class Il
    c. Class Ill
    d. Class IV
    e. Class V
A

b. Class Il

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27
Q
  1. What is the organization that creates standards in the United States for dental materials?
    a. SCDP
    b. CE
    c. NIST
    d. FDA
    e. ISO
A

a. SCDP

28
Q
  1. Which of the following phases of steel is used for cutting blades on dental hand instruments and scalpel blades that can be the hardest steel?
    a. martensitic
    b. hardenistic
    c. tungsten-carbide
    d. ferritic
    e. austenitic
A

a. martensitic

29
Q
  1. Which of the followine is not a way for hardening a metal?
    a. forming carbide precipitates in the alloy grain structure
    b. annealing
    c. grain refinement
    d. cold working
    e. alloying the metal with another element
A

b. annealing

30
Q
  1. Which of the following does increasing carbon content do when in very small concentrations in nickel-chromium alloys?
    a. decreases the strength by forming carbide precipitates
    b. decreases the strength by forming a solid solution
    c. increases the corrosion resistance by helping to form an oxide layer
    d. decreases the corrosion resistance by precipitating with chromium
    e. increases both corrosion resistance and strength by providing a stronger lining to the grain structure even at the surface
A

d. decreases the corrosion resistance by precipitating with chromium

31
Q
  1. What makes Nitinol unique among the metals used in dentistry?
    a. The rebound in a material when stressed below its proportional limit.
    b. The increased percent elongation caused by increasing temperatures.
    c. The ability to express a shape memory effect.
    d. The forcing of the material in a plastic state into a form that reproduces the same form.
    e. The change to its original size that is caused by decreasing the temperature after the material increased in size due to heating as a response to coefficient of thermal expansion.
A

c. The ability to express a shape memory effect.

32
Q
  1. What happens when a steel wire is overheated above the temperatures needed for an attempted annealing of the material?
    a. The steel will exhibit a shape memory effect.
    b. The atoms will allow redistribution of the defects throughout the lattice structures within the grains.
    c. The steel will form new nucleations and grow isotropic grains.
    d. The steel will precipitate nickel-chromium at the grain boundaries.
    e. The lattice structure will change to martensite.
A

e. The lattice structure will change to martensite.

33
Q
  1. What exist just below point “C”:
    a. An inter-metallic compound
    b. A solid solution
    c. A ferrite
    d. An eutectic
    e. A peritectic
A

d. An eutectic

34
Q
  1. Which set of letters designates a liquidus line?
    a. A-C-E
    b. A-B-C-F-E
    c. D-B-C-F-G
    d. B-C-F
    e. A-C-F-g
A

a. A-C-E

35
Q
  1. What exists in area outlined by A-B-D-A?
    a. A combination of large grain alpha and beta phases
    b. peritectic phase
    c. A pure alpha phase
    d. A pure beta phase
    e. Combination of beta phase and liquid
A

c. A pure alpha phase

36
Q
  1. What form of steel is used for cutting blades and would not be stable if held at an elevated temperature?
    a. Anatase
    b. Austenite
    c. Ferrite
    d. Martensite
    e. Rutile
A

d. Martensite

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ceramics?
    a. Refractory to heat
    b. Low modulus
    c. Extreme notch sensitivity
    d. Higher strength in compression than shear
    e. Higher strength in tension or shear
A

b. Low modulus

38
Q

41 Which of the following designates the oxide that is the main constituent of most ceramics and glasses?

a. Silane
b. Silicon
d. Silicosis
c. Silicone
e. Silica

A

e. Silica

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a strengthening mechanism for a ceramic material?
    a. Supporting the ceramic by bonding to a metal.
    b. Modifying the surface through a glazing procedure.
    c. Producing partial devitrification in a porcelain structure.
    d. Cooling the porcelain slowly so that the amorphous structure is more uniform.
    e. Producing compression stress on the surface of the maLerial by cooling processes.
A

d. Cooling the porcelain slowly so that the amorphous structure is more uniform.

40
Q
  1. “Ceramics” is the general term for this class of materials. Choose the best alternative regarding the subdivisions of this class of materials.
    a. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very little crystalline content, not enough to reinforce it. Highly crystalline ceramics are on the other side of the spectrum, with a significant amount of pores.
    b. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very little crystalline content, not enough ta reinforce it, Highly cyrstalline ceramics are on the other side of the spectrum, with increasing strength.
    c. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very little crystalline
    content, not enough to reinforce it. As the crystalline content increases, the general esthetic translucence increases.
    d. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very high crystalline content, and are the strongest among this class of materials. Highly crystalline ceramics are on the other side of the spectrum, with a significant amount of pores.
    e. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very little crystalline content, and are the most aesthetic among this class ff materials. As the crystalline content increases, the general mechanical properties decrease.
A

b. Amorphous ceramics (or porcelains or simply glasses) have very little crystalline content, not enough ta reinforce it, Highly cyrstalline ceramics are on the other side of the spectrum, with increasing strength.

41
Q
  1. Methacrylate is the basis of most of the monomers used in dentistry and methyl methacrylate is the simplest form of methacrylate. What is the chemical structure of methyl methacrylate?
A

E

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a description of condensation polymerization that differentiates it from addition polymerization?
    a. Develops high molecular weight polymer late in the polymerization process
    b. The alternative name for the reaction is chain growth reaction
    c. Usually vinyl (carbon carbon double bond) monomers provide the reactive sites
    d. There are no by-products created from thc polymerization process
    e. The polymerization requires an energy input to initiate the polymerization process
A

a. Develops high molecular weight polymer late in the polymerization process

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common mechanism used in addition polymerization as it is applied in dentistry?
    a. Cationic
    b. Condensation
    c. Free radical
    d. Anionic
    e. Heterogeneous
A

c. Free radical

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a highly cross-linked polymer?
    a. Will melt at high temperatures preserving the polymer chain
    b. Covalent bonds holding between the chains as well as in the backbone of the chain
    c. Dissolving in the right solvent
    d. Difficult to produce
    e. Thermoplasticity
A

b. Covalent bonds holding between the chains as well as in the backbone of the chain

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is an inorganic polymer?
    a. Mica plates
    b. Polymethyl methacrylate
    c. Silicone
    d. BisGMA/TEGDMA
    e. Polystylene
A

c. Silicone

46
Q
  1. Which of the following reaction in addition polymerization leads to shorter Chain lengths without stopping the polymerization process?
    a. Condensation
    b. Addition
    c. Propagation
    d. Chain transfer
    e. Termination
A

d. Chain transfer

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a method of initiating addition polymerization?
    a. Thermal, increased temperature
    b. Photopolymerization
    c. Cold curing
    d. Redox
    e. Entropy, increased disorder
A

e. Entropy, increased disorder

48
Q
  1. What role does oxygen have in a free radical addition polymerization?
    a. Plasticizer
    b. Catalyst
    c. Inhibitor
    d. Initiator
    e. Comonomer
A

c. Inhibitor

49
Q
  1. What is the effect of an inhibitor on the polymerization reaction when it starts?
    a. It limits the size of the polymer produced in the reaction.
    b. In increases the temperature to start an initiator.
    c. It delays the start of the reaction slightly.
    d. In increases the distribution of the sizes of the polymer chains resulting from the reaction.
    e. It decreases the cross-linking in a polymer that has a tendency to cross-link.
A

c. It delays the start of the reaction slightly.

50
Q
  1. The rate of change from the monomeric state to the polymeric state and the increase in the number of monomers incorporated into the polymer can be monitored for methacrylates most efficiently and accurately by which of the following procedures?
    a. Using change in the area of an absorption peak at a specific wavelength in the IR spectrum
    b. Monitoring the amount of temperature change that takes place in the exothermic reaction
    c. Measuring the increase in absorption of visible light, or increase in opacity
    d. Monitoring the change in weight of the material
    e. Measuring the evaporation of monomer from the solid as the polymer forms
A

a. Using change in the area of an absorption peak at a specific wavelength in the IR spectrum

51
Q
  1. Heating a solid polymer through its glass transition temperature does which of the following?
    a. Converts a cross-linked material from a glassy state to a rubbery state.
    b. Decomposes the polymer chains back to their monomeric state.
    c. Makes a cross-linked solid polymer a liquid, fluid material.
    d. Converts the material from a ceramic state to a glassy state.
    e. Decreases the materials coefficient of thermal expansion.
A

a. Converts a cross-linked material from a glassy state to a rubbery state.

52
Q
  1. What region of the polymer is most affected when passing through the glass transition temperature?
    a. martensitic region
    b. austenitic region
    c. amorphous
    d. cross-linked region
    e. crystalline region
A

c. amorphous

53
Q
  1. Plasticizers can be part of a polymer system. How do they work?
    a. They lubricate the polymer chains to allow more movement.
    b. They increase the density of the polymer thus increasing the toughness of the material.
    c. They break up the chain alignments to decrease the inter-chain secondary bonding.
    d. They slow the polymerization reaction which decreases the molecular weight of the final polymer chains and thus making it softer.
    e. They increase the rate of polymerization which decreases the molecular weight of the final polymer chains and thus making it softer.
A

c. They break up the chain alignments to decrease the inter-chain secondary bonding.

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common catalyst for a free radical polymerization which allows chemical curing at room or mouth temperatures?
    a. Dibutyl phthalate
    b. Tertiary amine
    c. BisGMA
    d. Butyl methacrylate
    e. Benzoyl peroxide
A

b. Tertiary amine

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is needed to make photoinitiation efficient in the blue region of light exposure for camphorquinone?
    a. Dibutyl phthalate
    b. Tertiary amine
    c. BisGMA
    d. Butyl methacrylate
    e. Benzoyl peroxide
A

b. Tertiary amine

56
Q
  1. Which of the following terms describes a polymer that can be reshaped to a new rigid from by heating to a temperature that allows reshaping and then cooling to solidify the new form?
    a. Thermosetting
    b. Elastomeric
    c. Cross-linked
    d. Dendrimer
    e. Thermoplastic
A

e. Thermoplastic

57
Q
  1. Which of the following monomers would by themselves produce a cross-linked polymer?
    a. Octyl methacrylate
    b. Dibutyl phthalate
    c. Methyl acrylate
    d. Bisphenol-A diglycidyl methacrylate
    e. Methyl methacrylate
A

d. Bisphenol-A diglycidyl methacrylate

58
Q
  1. What is an inonomer?
    a. A polymer or oligomer that exhibits extensive plasticity
    b. A polymer or oligomer that has many charged species extending off of the backbone
    c. A polymer or oligomer that exhibits extensive elasticity
    d. A polymer or oligomer that has multiple polymerizing functional units
    e. A polymer or oligomer that can be converted between an elastic state to a rigid state by changing the temperature
A

b. A polymer or oligomer that has many charged species extending off of the backbone

59
Q
  1. Which of the following materials is one that has been a potential component in the monomers used in dentistry that the public has raised concerns about the safety with data supporting some concern in infants and children?
    a. Methyl methacrylate
    b. Tertiary amine
    c. Urethane dimethacrylate
    d. Bisphenol A
    e. Benzoyl peroxide
A

d. Bisphenol A

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is a method of decreasing overheating when cutting tooth structure?
    a. Air/ water spray
    b. Light contact
    c. Shorter bur
    d. Intermittent application
    e. Short contact time
A

c. Shorter bur

61
Q
  1. What is the smear layer?
    a. A layer of debris that remains on the surface of a tooth after cutting that is not removed by washing with an air/water spray
    b. A microscopic deformed layer at the surface of a material that produces a reflective surface
    c. A layer of atoms at the surface of a material that has unsatisfied bonds available
    d. A layer of fluoride rich tooth structure that is resistant to acid etching
    e. A layer of reparative dentin that results from any potential insult to the tooth that is totally disorganized
A

a. A layer of debris that remains on the surface of a tooth after cutting that is not removed by washing with an air/water spray

62
Q
  1. What was the effect of MMPs (matrix metalloproteinases) that are currently being researched in relation to bonding?
    a. These are enzymes that attack collagen that is part of the dentin bonding mechanism.
    b. These are metal ion concentrated proteins that enhance the bond to dentin.
    c. These are metal ion concentrated proteins that enhance the bond to enamel.
    d. These are proteins that are released upon etching dentin that can inhibit bacterial growth.
    e. These are proteins in the matrix of the dentin that resist acid etching
A

a. These are enzymes that attack collagen that is part of the dentin bonding mechanism.

63
Q
  1. When etching enamel with phosphoric acid, what is the result?
    a. The interdigitation of grains of the hydroxyapatite with free collagen fibers
    b. The removal of debris leaving a smooth surface with high surface tension to improve the attraction of the liquid monomer
    c. The removal of tubular plugs that allows the resin to penetrate deep into the tooth structure locking the polymerized resin into the tooth
    d. The production of enamel tags that are approximately 25 microns deep
    e. The coalescence of hydroxyapatite with phosphate modified hydroxyapatite
A

d. The production of enamel tags that are approximately 25 microns deep

64
Q
  1. Why is amorphous calcium phosphate of interest as a treatment in dentistry?
    a. It can produce a condition at the pulpal surface that can allow the formation of reparative dentin to seal a pulp exposure.
    b. It has a high intrinsic strength that can “cement” the enamel prisms together.
    c. It has a high solubility that will allow it to deposit on tooth structure and may help to prevent demineralize of the tooth.
    d. It can interact with proteins to make a synthetic dentin that can be used to restore the bulk of the tooth.
    e. It has a refractive index that will allow it to match the tooth structure and produce an esthetic restoration.
A

c. It has a high solubility that will allow it to deposit on tooth structure and may help to prevent demineralize of the tooth.

65
Q
  1. What does “bioactive” mean?
    a. The material will resist the formation of biofilm on its surface.
    b. The material will kill the bacteria in the biofilm that grows on its surface.
    c. The material has a high toxic potential.
    d. The material will have an effect on a biological tissue.
    e. The material can have a radioactive effect on the tissue generating a biological barrier.
A

d. The material will have an effect on a biological tissue.

66
Q
  1. What is the most commonly used active ingredient in whitening agents used in dentistry?
    a. Peroxide
    b. Na perborate
    c. Na hypochlorite
    d. Phthalate esters
    e. Phosphoric acid
A

a. Peroxide

Sample (4 decks)

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