Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Biology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

All life & ecosystems on Earth are collectively known as a(n)

A

Biosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy of biological organization from large scale to smaller scale?

A

biosphere → ecosystems → communities → populations → organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All individuals of a species living in same area at same time is know as

A

population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Living things are divided into three different domains. Which of these domains are classified as prokaryotes?

Bacteria and Eukarya
Bacteria and Archaea
Bacteria and Fungi
Archaea and Eukarya

A

Bacteria and Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells share certain characteristics EXCEPT

True nucleus
Plasma membrane
DNA
Ribosome

A

True nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A Species is…

A

a group of organisms with similar structure, function, and behavior that can interbreed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A Genus is…

A

a group of closely related species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a common chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

A

the formation of ionic bonds between monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?

A

The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is true?

-They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
-They are generally solid at room temperature.
-They are more common in plants than in animals.
-They contain fewer hydrogen atoms than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.

A

They are generally solid at room temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What characteristic of water causes adhesion, cohesion, surface tension, and capillary action?

A

Hydrogen bonds between water molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A hydrogen bond is…

A

a weak bond between a H with a partial (+) charge and an electronegative atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An ionic bond is…

A

formed due to an attraction between opposite charges of an anion and cation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nonpolar covalent bond is

A

electrons equally shared between two atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Polar covalent bond

A

electrons shared unequally between two atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Glycosidic bond

A

Bond between carbohydrates monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Peptide bond

A

bond between amino acid monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hydrogenated vegetable oil is solid at room temperature, whereas nonhydrogenated vegetable oil is liquid. What kind of fatty acid is present in Hydrogenated vegetable oil?

A

Saturated Fatty acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

A

polar covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a compound?

carbon dioxide (CO2)
Water (H2O)
Glucose (C6H12O6)
Hydrogen gas (H2)

A

Hydrogen gas (H2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What structural feature makes the 20 common amino acids different from one another?

A

different side chains (R groups) attached to the carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins destined for export from the cell?

A

rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which type of interaction stabilizes the α helix and the β pleated sheet structures of proteins?

A

hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary protein structure

A

contain peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secondary Protein structure

A

contains peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tertiary Protein structure

A

contain disulfide bond, ionic bond, peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Match the following: The symbol of the following element is given. Please identify atomic no. , atomic mass, and neutron no. of the element.

16
O
8

A

Atomic number: 8
Atomic mass: 16
Neutron number: 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A nucleotide is composed of

A

a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Match the following: The symbol of the following element is given. Please identify proton no., neutron no. and electron no. of the element.

23 1+
Na
11

A

proton no.: 11

electron no. :10

neutron no. : 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure suggests that membranes

A

are composed of a fluid bilayer of fatty acids with proteins associated on the outer and inner surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Isomers

A

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hydrocarbons

A

Organic compounds containing on C and H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Organic compound

A

Compound in which C is covalently bonded to more C’s to form backbone of molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Starch

A

main energy storage carb for plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Glycogen

A

main energy storage carb for animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Acids

A

increases H+ conc. of a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na+ ion?

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/4542419/files/6370646/download?verifier=Bkso5ruhZKqtIGODUVofW4qrL68WgHuegDPyJz7v

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. In animal cells, which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following regulates passage of materials into & out of cell?

A

plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, chloroplasts, and mitochondria. It could be

A

a plant cell but not an animal cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In an animal cell, DNA may be found in which of the following organelles?

A

only in the nucleus and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?

A

chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which structure is common to both plant and animal cells?

A

mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which structure-function pair is mismatched?

-Golgi; protein trafficking
-ribosome; protein synthesis
-nucleolus; production of ribosomal RNA
-microtubule; muscle contraction

A

microtubule; muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following molecules would you expect to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?

A

O 2(small on bottom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following molecules is/are blocked through the plasma membrane?

-Larger molecules
-Most polar molecules
-Most ions
-All of the above
-None of the above

A

All off the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following is required for the sodium-potassium pump to transport potassium ions into an animal cell?

A

energy from ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Carrier Protein binds to molecule, changes shape, allows material to cross while Channel Protein forms channels through
membrane. (T/F?)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Active Transport involves

A

movement of molecules against concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Passive Transport involves

A

movement of molecules down concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hyper-tonic Solution causes

A

Cell to shrink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hypo-tonic Solution causes

A

Cell to swell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Identify and compare the properties of the bond between sodium and chloride (NaCl) with the bond between oxygen and hydrogen in water (H2O).

A

The bond in NaCl is an ionic bond, where sodium gives an electron to chlorine, forming oppositely charged ions that stick together. In H₂O, the bond is polar covalent, where oxygen and hydrogen share electrons unevenly, making the molecule slightly charged on each end. NaCl forms a solid crystal, while H₂O forms liquid molecules that can stick together through hydrogen bonding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Use the cell diagram to answer the following questions. (1) In the figure, what organelle is represented by D, and what is the primary function of that organelle? (2) What organelle is represented by F, and what is its primary function?

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8122791/preview

A

Organelle D is the rough ER and its job is to synthesis proteins and organelle F is the Mitochondria and its main job is to make energy and is the main site for cellular respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Give an example of any recent microorganism which has evolved through natural selection from the broad real-world scenario?

A

Covid has evolved through natural selection in order to try and survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The mitotic spindle is made of

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cytokinesis generally begins.

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chromatin condenses

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chromosomes decondense

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sister chromatids separate at their centromeres.

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mitotic spindle forms

A

prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chromosomes align at the cell’s midplane

A

metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis

A

Prophase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Sister chromatids separate and chromosomes move to opposite poles.

A

anaphase 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tetrads line up at the cell equator.

A

metaphase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Nuclear envelope forms around single-stranded chromosomes.

A

telophase 2

70
Q

Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.

A

anaphase 1

71
Q

crossing-over occurs

A

prophase 1

72
Q

Mendel’s principle of segregation states that

A

alleles separate from each other before forming gametes

73
Q

A tomato plant with the genotype Bb can produce gametes containing

A

either B or b

74
Q

Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between a heterozygous individual (Bb) and one that is homozygous (bb)?

75
Q

Alternative forms of a gene are called ___________.

76
Q

A heterozygous fruit fly with normal wings and a gray body (VvBb) is crossed with homozygous flies with vestigial wings and black bodies (vvbb). This type of cross is known as a

A

dihybrid cross

77
Q

An organism with the genotype of MmYy can produce gametes containing ____ if the two genes are unlinked.

A

MY, My, mY, or my

78
Q

When true breeding red tulips are crossed with true breeding white tulips, the progeny have pink flowers. This is an example of

A

incomplete dominance

79
Q

A gene that affects, prevents, or masks the expression of a gene at another locus is a(n) ____ gene.

80
Q

Aneuploidy results from nondisjunction - abnormal meiotic division where homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate. This may happen in which phase/phases of Meiosis?

A

Both Anaphase I and Anaphase II

81
Q

Polygenic Inheritance

A

when multiple genes have an additive effect on one phenotype

82
Q

Multiple Alleles

A

often within a population (not an individual) more than two alleles can exist for a single gene

83
Q

Codominance

A

when the heterozygote expressed by both phenotypes

84
Q

Pleiotropy

A

when one gene has multiple effects

85
Q

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type AA blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

A

50% A, 50% AB

86
Q

What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type O blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

A

50% A, 50% B

87
Q

What are the predicted phenotypes of the children from a union of a woman who is homozygous for hemophilia and a man who is normal? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.

A

50% hemophilia, 50% Normal

88
Q

Trisomy Down syndrome

A

Three copies of chromosomes 21

89
Q

Translocation Down syndrome

A

chromosomes 14 breaks off and attaches to chromosomes 21

90
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome

A

Deletion of chromosome 5 short arm

91
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

One extra X chromosomes

92
Q

Turner syndrome

A

One less sex chromosome

93
Q

Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%

How many map units apart are A & B?

A

10 map units

94
Q

Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%

How many map units apart are A & C?

A

6 map units

95
Q

Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%

Which gene is in the middle if B & C are 16 map units apart?

96
Q

Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%

Which is in the middle if B and C are 4 map units apart?

97
Q

Linked genes are tend to be inherited together (T/F?)

98
Q

Both Mitosis and Meiosis happens in both somatic cells and germ cells. (T/F?)

99
Q

Chromosome duplication happens in which phage of cell cycle?

100
Q

Hemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a phenotypically normal woman whose father had hemophilia ( Also, called carrier woman). What is the probability that their son will have hemophilia? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)

101
Q

Human has 23 pairs of chromosomes, how many possible combinations of gametes can be produced by the random lining up of pairs in meiosis (Independent Assortment)?

102
Q

To prevent disastrous consequences, the eukaryotic cell cycle is controlled by

A

a series of cell cycle checkpoints

103
Q

In the accompanying figure, which combination of letters accurately represents two sister chromatids?

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8465127/preview

104
Q

Which phase of cell division is depicted in the accompanying figure?

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8465138/preview

A

Prophase I of meiosis

105
Q

If gametes were produced by mitosis, how would this affect chromosome number in the offspring?

A

The chromosome number would double in each generation.

106
Q

An animal with a diploid number of 30 chromosomes will have ____ chromosomes in its gametes and ____ chromosomes in its somatic cells.

107
Q

Breeding an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual reveals the genotype of unknown organism. It is called _________

A

Test cross

108
Q

Phenotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals

109
Q

Phenotypic ratio of Dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals

110
Q

Phenotypic ratio of Epistasis

111
Q

The physical appearance of an organism for a given trait is known as

112
Q

(1) Write the difference between Mitosis and Meiosis.

(2) We know the fusion of gametes (fertilization) introduces genetic variation. How does the production of gametes introduce genetic variation?

A

(1) Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, used for growth and repair. Meiosis produces four genetically different gametes with half the number of chromosomes, used for sexual reproduction.

(2) During meiosis, genetic variation is introduced through crossing over (exchange of DNA between chromosomes) and independent assortment (random distribution of chromosomes). These processes ensure each gamete has a unique combination of genes.

113
Q

Write short notes on

(1) Incomplete dominance
(2) Pleiotropy

A

(1) Incomplete dominance:
Incomplete dominance is a type of inheritance where neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in a blend of traits in the offspring. For example, crossing red and white flowers may produce pink flowers.

(2) Pleiotropy:
Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences multiple, seemingly unrelated traits. An example is the gene responsible for sickle cell anemia, which affects both red blood cell shape and resistance to malaria.

114
Q

Why is DNA packaging important in eukaryotes? How is DNA packaged into eukaryotic cells?

A

DNA packaging is important to ensure they get all the information they need fitted into the nucleus. DNA is packaged around histone to ensure it fits.

115
Q

The organization of the lac operon, from upstream to downstream sequences, is represented by:

A

promoter -> operator -> lacZ -> lacY -> lac A

116
Q

Refer to the accompanying figure. The area of the tryptophan operon labeled as 3 is the:

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2

117
Q

The promoter in the accompanying figure is labeled as ____.

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2

118
Q

Refer to the accompanying figure. The structure labeled as 8 in the figure of the tryptophan operon is a(n):

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2

A

Polycistronic mRNA

119
Q

In an inducible operon, the ____ is the molecular switch that controls gene expression, while the ____ is the DNA region where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.

A

operator; promoter

120
Q

_____ is densely staining, highly compacted, and transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin.

A

Heterochromatin

121
Q

Genes in euchromatic regions are:

A

transcriptionally active

122
Q

Which of the following statements concerning DNA is FALSE?

A

The sugar present in DNA is ribose

123
Q

Hydrogen bonds can form between ____ and cytosine, and between adenine and ____.

A

guanine; thymine

124
Q

Which of the following DNA sequence represents the complement to the mRNA strand, 5′-AUGAGATCCG-3′?

A

3′-TACTCTAGGC-5′

125
Q

_____ bonds link the sugar and phosphate groups in the backbone of DNA molecules.

A

Covalent phosphodiester

126
Q

In one DNA molecule, 20% is Adenine (A), how many % of Guanine (G) is present in that DNA? (Hint: apply Chargaff’s rule)

127
Q

The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes can be lengthened by

A

telomerase

128
Q

DNA helicase

A

Breaks down H bonds between nucleotides

129
Q

Primase

A

synthesizes primers

130
Q

DNA polymerase

A

needs primer to synthesize DNA in a 5’ to 3’ direction

131
Q

RNA polymerase

A

binds to promoter and synthesize RNA in a 5’ to 3’ direction

132
Q

In the accompanying figure, the portion of the molecule containing the anticodon is indicated by the label:

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8490457/preview

133
Q

Refer to the accompanying figure. The portion of the molecule labeled as 5 is:

https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8490457/preview

A

The attached amino acid

134
Q

RNA is ____ and contains the nitrogenous base ____, which is absent in DNA

A

single stranded; uracil

135
Q

A ____ mutation results in the conversion of a codon specifying an amino acid to a termination codon

136
Q

During translocation, the movement of the ribosome repositions the tRNA linked to the growing polypeptide chain to the ____ site, thereby vacating the ____ site for the arrival of a new amino-acyl tRNA

137
Q

Frameshift mutations result from the

A

insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs

138
Q

Which strand will RNAP use as a template to build the mRNA molecule?

5’ —–ATGGATAGGCTTCG—–3’

3’ —–TACCTATCCGAAGC—–5’

A

3’ —–TACCTATCCGAAGC—–5’

139
Q

Undifferentiated cells that can divide and specialize to form a variety of different cells are called:

A

Stem Cells

140
Q

Which of the following statement is False regarding the Germ Layer?

Endoderm – liver
Endoderm – pancreas
Endoderm – kidney
Ectoderm – neurons, skin, retina
Mesoderm – blood, bone

A

Endoderm – kidney

141
Q

Cloning mammals has proven to be:

A

a process with a low success rate and a high incidence of genetic defects

142
Q

Zygote is pluripotent stem cell, while Embryonic stem cells and Adult stem cells are totipotent stem cells (T/F?)

143
Q

Totipotent nuclei are capable of:

A

directing normal development of an organism

144
Q

Evolution is genetic change in ____ that occurs over time.

A

a population

145
Q

Overproduction, variation, limits on population growth, and differential reproductive success are all components of:

A

evolution by natural selection

146
Q

Which process provides the genetic variability that natural selection acts on during evolution?

147
Q

Which example best illustrates homoplasy?

-shark fins and dog tails
-whale fins and bat wings
-bird wings and insect wings
-cactus spine and pea tendril

A

bird wings and insect wings

148
Q

What is the evolutionary relationship between a human arm and a cat’s forelimb?

A

They are homologous structures

149
Q

mRNA carries

150
Q

tRNA carries

151
Q

Primary Protein structure contains

A

peptide bonds

152
Q

secondary protein structure contains

A

peptide and hydrogen bonds

153
Q

Which of the following is Not a component of a nucleotide

-Pentose sugar
-Phosphate group
-Nitrogenous bases
-amino acid

A

amino acid

154
Q

In DNA, ______________________are needed for maintaining the structural integrity whereas _____________________ contain the genetic material.

A

sugar-phosphate backbones, nitrogenous bases

155
Q

Induced pluripotent stem cells are

A

pluripotent cells resulting from reprogramming of differentiated cells

156
Q

Totipotent are

A

stem cells that have the potential to give rise to all parts of an organism

157
Q

Endoderm germ layer contains

A

linings, liver, pancreas

158
Q

Mesoderm germ layer contains

A

blood, bone, muscle, kidney

159
Q

Ectodern germ layer contains

A

neurons, skin, retina

160
Q

Pluripotent are

A

stem cells that have the potential to give rise to many, but not all types of cells of an organism

161
Q

Methylation of DNA & histones…

A

prevents transcription by packing DNA so tight that it is inaccessible

162
Q

Acetylation of histones…

A

Activates transcription by loosening chromatin so DNA is accessible for transcription

163
Q

Activators are…

A

Transcription factor protein that bind to DNA sequences called ‘enhancers’ to initiate transcription

164
Q

Repressors are…

A

Transcription factor protein that bind to DNA sequences called ‘silencers’ to stop transcription

165
Q

Primase…

A

adds RNA primer

166
Q

Helicase

A

unzip the long DNA molecule by breaking H bonds

167
Q

SSB (single-strand binding) proteins

A

bind to/stabilize DNA to prevent double helix from re-forming until strands are replicated

168
Q

DNA polymerase

A

always adds new nucleotide to 3’ end, so always grows 5’ to 3’ direction

169
Q

DNA ligase

A

“grows” DNA segments together (links Okazaki fragments)

170
Q

In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus while translation occurs in the cytoplasm (T/F?)

Biology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions