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Biol 102 > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

What are the seven properties of life?

A

cellular organization, reproduction, growth and development, metabolism, homeostasis, response to environment, evolutionary adaptation

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2
Q

What are the core themes of Biology?

A

Interactions, Matter and energy, Information, and Evolution

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3
Q

Why does DNA have thymine instead of uracil?

A

Uracil is more energy efficient, but thymine is more stable

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4
Q

How does energy enter and leave ecosystems?

A

enters as light and leaves as heat

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5
Q

What is light microscopy?

A

passing a beam of light through a specimen

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6
Q

What is electron microscopy>

A

passing electrons over or through a specimen

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7
Q

What is resolution?

A

Minimum distance two objects can be separated and still be distinguishable

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8
Q

What is magnitude?

A

ratio of an objects image to its real size

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9
Q

What is contrast?

A

difference in brightness between light and darkness

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10
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

Interior of a cell containing organelles

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11
Q

What is cytosol?

A

jelly-like substance that suspends the organelles

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12
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

complexes of proteins and rRNA that are responsible for protein synthesis

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13
Q

What are free ribosomes?

A

ribosomes suspended in the cytosol

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14
Q

What are bound ribosomes?

A

ribosomes attached to the ER or Nuclear Envelope

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15
Q

What is the endomembrane system?

A

Nucleus, ER, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the plasma membrane

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16
Q

How is the endomembrane system connected?

A

physical continuity or the transfer of vesicles

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17
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

Contains the genetic information of the cell in the form of chromosomes.

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18
Q

What is the nuclear envelope?

A

a double membrane, each being a lipid bilayer. lined by nuclear laminate (protein filaments) that provide structure. contains pores for transfer of molecules

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19
Q

What is the nucleolus?

A

location of rRNA transcription and ribosome assembly

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20
Q

What is the smooth ER?

A

involved in lipid synthesis, drug detoxification, calcium storage.

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21
Q

What is the rough ER?

A

covered in ribosomes, responsible for synthesis of proteins to be exported. involved in glycosylation and membrane synthesis

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22
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus?

A

sorts molecules and releases vesicles for transport elsewhere in the cell. alters the structure of macromolecules

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23
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

membranous sacs fwith an acidic interior containing hydrolytic enzymes

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24
Q

What are vacuoles?

A

large vesicles with an internal solution differing in composition from cytoplasm.

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25
Q

What is the mitochondria?

A

site of cellular respiration

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26
Q

What is a chloroplast?

A

site of photosynthesis, producing sugars from carbon dioxide, water and light

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27
Q

What does the endosymbiont theory describe?

A

the origins of mitochondria and chloroplasts

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28
Q

What does the endosymbiont theory describe?

A

Early prokaryotes engulfed an oxygen-using prokaryote and a photosynthetic prokaryote, that over time became the mitochondria and the chloroplast

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29
Q

What supports the endosymbiont theory?

A

The fact that both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own DNA and ribsosomes, which are more similar to that of prokaryotes than eukaryotes

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30
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

Dynamic network of fibres extending throughout the cytoplasm

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31
Q

What does the cytoskeleton consist of?

A

Microtubules, microfilaments, and in some cells, intermediate filaments

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32
Q

What does the cytoskeleton do?

A

Provides mechanical support, structure, and anchorage of organelles. also involved in cell mobility

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33
Q

What are types of cell junctions?

A

Plasmodesmata, Gap junctions, tight junctions

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34
Q

what are plasmodesmata?

A

channels connecting plant cells, allowing the transfer of compounds between cells

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35
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

the animal cell equivalent of plasmodesmata

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36
Q

what are tight junctions?

A

tight seals between cells that prevent the passage of extracellular fluid

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37
Q

What are Desmosomes?

A

fasten cells together, anchored by intermediate filaments

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38
Q

What is the plasma membrane?

A

selectively permeable phospholipid bilayer

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39
Q

What are membrane proteins?

A

proteins attached to the plasma membrane

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40
Q

What are integral proteins?

A

proteins that penetrate the hydrophobic interior of the bilayer, include transmembrane proteins

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41
Q

What are peripheral proteins?

A

proteins that are loosely bound to the surface of the membrane and often associate with integral membrane proteins

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42
Q

How is the fluidity of the plasma membrane determined?

A

by composition of the plasma membrane

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43
Q

What happens when more unsaturated lipid tails are present?

A

increased fluidity due to kinks (cis not trans double bonds)

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44
Q

What is the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A

Acts as a buffer to control membrane fluidity in fluctuating temperatures

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45
Q

What is the electrochemical gradient?

A

the diffusion gradient of an ion, influenced both by [ion] and membrane potential

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46
Q

What is tonicity?

A

the ability of a solution to make a cell lose or gain water

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47
Q

what is passive transport?

A

diffusion of molecule across a biological membrane down its electrochemical gradient

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48
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Passive transport aided by highly selective transport proteins

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49
Q

What is active transport?

A

uses energy to transport a compound against its electrochemical gradient

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50
Q

What is cotransport?

A

coupling the transport of the diffusion of one molecule down its electrochemical gradient with the transport of another molecule against its electrochemical gradient. (NaK pump)

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51
Q

What is symport?

A

cotransport where both molecules are going in the same direction

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52
Q

what is antiport?

A

cotransport where the molecules are going in opposite directions

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53
Q

What is a channel protein?

A

a hydrophilic channel. not active transport

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54
Q

what is a gated channel?

A

a channel that is not active until it receives a signal

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55
Q

what is a carrier protein?

A

a protein that can be used for active or passive transport. moves molecules through a change in its shape

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56
Q

What is bulk transport?

A

the endo/exocytosis of macromolecules across the membrane via vesicles

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57
Q

What are designer endosymbionts?

A

the introduction of a prokaryote into a eukaryote to try to foster a mutually beneficial symbiotic relationship

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58
Q

What is the magnification and resolution of light microscopy?

A

1000x, 200nm

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59
Q

What is the resolution and magnitude of electron microscopy?

A

1e6x-1e8x, 0.05-2nm

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60
Q

What is the ER made up of?

A

flattened sacs called cisternae?

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61
Q

What is the internal compartment of the ER called?

A

ER lumen

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62
Q

What is the transitional ER

A

produces tranport vesicles and moves products to other regions of the cell

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63
Q

What are the sacs of the Golgi apparatus called?

A

cisternae, 4-8 of them

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64
Q

How is the Golgi apparatus directional?

A

cis face oriented towards ER to receive vesicles, trans face sorts molecules and releases them to go elsewhere in the cell

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65
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The endocytosis of large particles coupled with digestion

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66
Q

What is autophagy

A

the recycling of the cells organic material

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67
Q

What are food vacuoles?

A

formed by phagocytosis

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68
Q

what are contractile vesicles?

A

pump excess water out of cell. found in aquatic, unicellular cells

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69
Q

What are hydrolytic vacuoles

A

similar to lysosomes, found in plants and fungi

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70
Q

What are small vacuoles?

A

storage of organic compounds like toxins

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71
Q

what are central vacuoles?

A

found in plants cells, stores inorganic ions and contributes to cell growth and structure

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72
Q

What is a system?

A

the matter under study. everything else is the surroundings

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73
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

A

energy cannot be created or destroyed

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74
Q

What is the second law of thermodynamics?

A

entropy of the universe increases for every transfer or transformation

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75
Q

What is entropy?

A

how dispersed energy is

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76
Q

Can the entropy of a system decrease?

A

yes, but it needs energy to do so

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77
Q

What is Gibb’s Free Energy?

A

How much of a system’s energy can do work

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78
Q

What is the energy of activation?

A

the energy required to start a reaction

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79
Q

What does exergonic mean?

A

decrease in free energy

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80
Q

What does endergonic mean?

A

increase in free energy

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81
Q

What are enzymes?>

A

biological catalysts. increase reaction rate by decreasing EA without affecting change in energy

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82
Q

What are enzyme inhibitors?

A

molecules that prevent the function of certain enzymes

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83
Q

what are competitive inhibitors?

A

inhibitors that bind to the active site

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84
Q

what re non-competitive inhibitors?

A

molecules that bind away from the active site

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85
Q

What is energy coupling?

A

pairing exergonic and endergonic reactions together so that the energy released from one reaction is used by the other reaction

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86
Q

Is bond breaking endo or exothermic

A

endothermic

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87
Q

Is bond formation endo or exothermic?

A

exothermic

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88
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

in the cytosol

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89
Q

How many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose?

A

30-32

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90
Q

What is the net reaction of glycolysis?

A

Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 phosphate -> 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 H2O + 2 pyruvate

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91
Q

What is pyruvate oxidation?

A

connects glycolysis to the CAC

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92
Q

Where does pyruvate oxidation occur?

A

in the mitochondria in eukaryotes and the cytosol in prokaryotes

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93
Q

What is the net reaction of pyruvate oxidation per 1 pyruvate?

A

pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA -> NADH + H+ + CO2 + acetyl CoA

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94
Q

What is allosteric regulation?

A

The binding of a regulatory molecule to a protein at one site that affects the function at another site

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95
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

form of allosteric regulation where the regulatory molecule is an end product of the same metabolic pathway

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95
Q

How is work performed using atp hydrolysis?

A

through changes in protein shape or a phosphorylated intermediate

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96
Q

What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

A

aerobic respiration consumes O2 as a reactant whereas anaerobic respiration replaces oxygen with another inorganic molecule

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97
Q

What types of bonds are oxidized to produce energy?

A

C-H bonds are oxidized to products with C-O bonds

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98
Q

How are electrons passed through to oxygen?

A

Through electron carriers

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99
Q

What is a dehydrogenase?

A

an enzyme that transfers 2 electrons and 1 proton from an organic compound to NAD+, producing NADH

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100
Q

What is substrate-level phophorylation?

A

formation of ATP from ADP and a phosphorylated intermediate

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101
Q

What is the net reaction of the CAC?

A

acetyl-CoA + 3 NAD+ + FAD + ADP + phosphate + H2O -> 2 ATP + 2 FADH2 + 6 A

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102
Q

How is the synthesis of ATP powered?

A

through the transfer of electrons from NADH and FADH2 to O2

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103
Q

What are the two stages of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

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104
Q

What is the electron transport chain?

A

th transfer of electrons to O2 through a series of redox reactions through multi protein complexes, tightly bound to non-protein prosthetic groups

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105
Q

What is a prosthetic group?

A

a non-protein molecule that binds to a protein and aids its function

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106
Q

What is the proton-motive force?

A

The free energy required to move protons across a membrane. result of [] and electrochemical differences

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107
Q

AZ What is chemiosmosis?

A

An energy coupling mechanism that uses energy stored in the form of a proton gradient across a membrane to drive cellular work

108
Q

AAÀZŹAZZZZ Z QZ What does chemiosmosis do?

A

Provides the energy for ATP production through ATP synthase

109
Q

What is the efficiency of cellular respiration?

A

~34%

110
Q

What is the main key step in the regulation of cellular respiration?

A

PFK. allosterically regulated by ATP (inhibitor), AMP (activator), and citrate (inhibitor)

111
Q

Why is anaerobic respiration less efficient than aerobic respiration?

A

Other molecules are less effectively oxidizing agents than O2

112
Q

What is fermentation?

A

skips ETC, relies soly on substrate level phosphorylation. turns pyruvate into ethanol or lactate. Recycles NADH to NAD+ via electron transport to pyruvate

113
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

The conversion of light energy into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds

114
Q

What are the two stages of photosynthesis?

A

the light reactions and the Calvin cycle

114
Q

What are the Stroma?

A

the fluid within the chloroplast that surrounds the thylakoids

115
Q

What are the thylakoids?

A

Thylakoids are membrane bound compartments consisting of the thylakoid membrane surrounding the thylakoid space

116
Q

What are the Grana?

A

stacks of thylakoid sacs

117
Q

What kind of energy is light?

A

electromagnetic energy

118
Q

What are electromagnetic waves?

A

disturbances in the electric and magnetic fields

119
Q

What is the electromagnetic spectrum?

A

The entire range of electromagnetic energy

120
Q

what is a photon?

A

a discrete quantity of light with a specific quantity of energy

121
Q

What are pigments?

A

substances that absorb visible light of specific wavelengths

122
Q

What is the absorption spectrum?

A

A graph showing the ability of a pigment to absorb different wavelengths of light

123
Q

What is chlorophyll a?

A

the primary light capturing pigment

124
Q

what is chlorophyll b?

A

an accessory pigment

125
Q

What are Carotenoids?

A

accessory pigments that broaden the spectrum of light that can drive photosynthesis and play a role in photo protection

126
Q

Why do leaves change color in the autumn?

A

chlorophyll pigments degrade, leaving carotenoids

127
Q

Where are the pigments located?

A

In the thylakoid membranes

128
Q

Where do light reactions occur?

A

In the thylakoid membrane

129
Q

What is cell signalling?

A

How a cell responds to its environment and to other cells

130
Q

What is reception?

A

the detection of a signal

131
Q

What is transduction?

A

The conversion of a signal to a form that can bring about a cellular response

132
Q

What is the response?

A

How the cell reacts to the signal

133
Q

What recieves a signal?

A

a receptor protein. Usually surface, but some are intracellular

134
Q

What is a ligand?

A

An alternate name for signal molecules

135
Q

What do receptors do?

A

They bind to signal molecules

136
Q

What are G protein coupled receptors?

A

receptors that work in conjunction with a G protein to bring about cellular response

137
Q

What is the G protein

A

a protein that binds GDP and GTP

138
Q

What is the G protein associated with in an active state?

A

GTP

139
Q

In what ways are G proteins and G coupled receptors specific?

A

G coupled receptors only for specific signal molecules and G proteins only interact with specific G coupled receptors and enzymes

140
Q

How does G coupled reception work?

A

A single molecule binds to the receptor inducing a change in shape, Receptor interacts with the G protein causing the replacement of GDP with GTP. Protein diffuses across the membrane and interacts with its target enzyme. Either activates or inhibits enzyme function. G protein has enzymatic activity and will hydrolyze GTP to GDP, inactivating the G protein , which will reset the signalling complex.

141
Q

What is an RTK?

A

a receptor tyrosine kinase

142
Q

How many signal transduction pathways can RTKs activate

A

up to 10

143
Q

What happens when signal molecules bind to RTK?

A

They dimerize

144
Q

What does dimerization of RTKS do?

A

Activates the kinase activity. transfers phosphates from ATP to its own tyrosines. The phosphorylated receptor is fully active.

145
Q

What are relay proteins?

A

Proteins that pass the message through the cell

146
Q

What are ligand gated ion channels?

A

Receptors that also function as ion transporters?

146
Q

What happens with Ligand gated ion channels in an inactive state?

A

There is a gate covering the channel, preventing the diffusion of ions across

147
Q

What happens with ion gated channels when they are activated?

A

The ligand bind to the channel, causing a change in shape, opening the channel for facilitated ion diffusion

148
Q

What is a voltage gated ion channel?

A

A channel activated by electrical current. Useful in the nervous system

149
Q

What are HKs?

A

Histidine Kinases

150
Q

What is the difference between between HKs and RTKs?

A

HKs transfer the phosphate group to a histidine which then transfers the phosphate to an aspartate on another protein called a response regulator, which is then activated and brings about a cellular response

151
Q

What are intracellular receptors?

A

Receptors located within the cytoplasm?

152
Q

What kinds of molecules do the ligands for intracellular receptors have to be?

A

non-polar, or small molecules that can cross the cell membrane

153
Q

What do intracellular receptors usually function as?

A

Transcription factors

154
Q

What are transcription factors?

A

Proteins that bind to DNA and influence the rate of transcription for a gene or for a class of genes

155
Q

What are the advantages of multi-step transduction pathways?

A

Increased amplification of signal, more opportunities for regulation

156
Q

What are scaffold proteins?

A

Proteins with many Relay molecules attached

157
Q

Why are scaffold proteins useful?

A

They allow for many relay proteins to be in close proximity, increasing the efficiency and amplitude of signal transduction. Similar in concept to a multi enzyme complex

158
Q

What is the role of protein phosphatase in many single transduction pathways?

A

Termination through dephosphorylation

159
Q

What is a phosphorylation cascade?

A

A transduction through which kinases activate other kinases and so forth, bringing about a cellular response

160
Q

What are second messenger?

A

small hydrophilic non-protein relay molecules

161
Q

What Is useful about second messengers?

A

Due to their size, they diffuse easily through the cytoplasm

162
Q

What is cAMP

A

cyclic adenosine monophosphate

163
Q

What is cAMP synthesized by?

A

adenylyl cyclase (substrate is ATP)

164
Q

How is cAMP synthesis regulated?

A

By G proteins

165
Q

What is phosphodiesterase?

A

The enzyme that converts cAMP to AMP

166
Q

What does cAMP do?

A

allosterically regulates other proteins, such as protein kinase A

167
Q

What does protein kinase A do?

A

Goes around and phosphorylates other proteins to bring about a cellular response.

168
Q

What function does calcium serve in the cell?

A

as a second messenger?

169
Q

How is calcium as a second messenger initiated?

A

by G protein coupled receptors or RTKs

170
Q

How does calcium interact with proteins?

A

it acts as an allosteric regulator

171
Q

What is IP3?

A

inositol triphosphate (another second messenger

172
Q

How does signal transduction involving calcium ions work?

A

The signal is received, and IP3 is released, which then diffuses through the cytosol, interacts with a Calcium ligand gated channel and allows Calcium to exit the ER. Calcium then activates various proteins leading to a cellular response

173
Q

What is the proteome?

A

The complete set of proteins in the cell.

174
Q

How is cell signalling specific?

A

Cell signalling is specific due to the different proteomes of different cells

175
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

“cellular drinking” non-specific intake of small solutes by forming a vesicle covered in protein “fuzz”

176
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

“cellular eating” the intake of a large food molecule by the extending of pseudopodia and the forming of a food vacuole

177
Q

What are sister chromatids?

A

two duplicated copies of a chromosome joined by protein

178
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

Chromatin with the same genes at the same loci but with different alleles

179
Q

What are non-sister chromatids?

A

Chromatids of homologous chromosomes

180
Q

What is the centromere?

A

Where sister chromatids are held together most tightly

181
Q

What is the cell cycle?

A

The sequence of events from cell organ to division

182
Q

What is the G1 phase?

A

cell growth occurs

183
Q

What is the S phase?

A

The phase where DNA replication occurs

184
Q

What is the G2 phase?

A

Another period of cell growth

185
Q

What is the Mitotic phase?

A

Where mitosis and cytokinesis occur

186
Q

What is the G1 checkpoint?

A

Where the cell determines if it has everything it needs and has undergone the right amount of great to divide

187
Q

What is the G2 checkpoint?

A

Where DNA is checked to make sure it was properly replicated

187
Q

What is the M checkpoint?

A

Checks if sister chromatids are attached to kinetochore microtubules

188
Q

What is the G0 phase?

A

A non-dividing phase that occurs if a cell doesn’t pass the G1 checkpoint

189
Q

What are Cyclin Dependent Protein Kinases?

A

CDK. Kinases that are only active when bound to cyclin

190
Q

What is cyclin?

A

a protein whose [] fluctuate throughout the cell cycle

191
Q

What is the maturation protein factor?

A

MPF. A Cyclin-CDK complex involved in the G2 checkpoint. As cyclin [] increase, MPF activity increases

192
Q

How is the cell cycle regulated?

A

By cyclins

193
Q

How is cell division regulated?

A

By growth factors, density dependent inhibition, and anchorage dependence

194
Q

What are growth factors?

A

proteins that are released by some cells that signal other cells to grow

195
Q

What is density dependent inhibition?

A

If cells become too crowded then they stop dividing due to the binding of cell-surface proteins to adjacent cells

196
Q

What is anchorage dependence?

A

in animal cells, division only occurs if the cell is on a solid surface

197
Q

What is Mitosis?

A

The division of cells into two genetically identical cells

198
Q

What happens in the interphase of mitosis?

A

Chromosomes duplicate (uncondensed)

199
Q

What happens during the prophase of mitosis?

A

Chromosomes condense, the nucleolus disappears and the mitotic spindle forms

200
Q

What is the mitotic spindle?

A

A microtubule network that is essential for the movement of chromosomes

201
Q

What happens during the pro metaphase of mitosis?

A

The nuclear envelope degrades, the kinetochore forms, and microtubules attach to the kinetochore

202
Q

What is the kinetochore?

A

proteins associated with the centromeres of the sister chromatids and allow for the attachment of the mitotic spindle

203
Q

What happens during the metaphase of mitosis?

A

chromosomes align along the centre of the cell

204
Q

What happens during the anaphase of mitosis?

A

The cohesions between sister chromatids are cleaved, they separate and the cell elongates

205
Q

What happens during the telophase of mitosis?

A

nuclei form and nucleoli reappear

206
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

The pinching of the plasma membrane by contractile actin filaments associated with myosin

207
Q

When is a chromosome considered distinct?

A

Once they are fully separated from each other, no matter how much chromatid there is

208
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

The process through which a single parent produces offspring with identical genomes. Accomplished through mitosis

209
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

two parents parents produce offspring with unique combinations of genes from both parents. Involves meiosis and fertilization, along with gametes and somatic cells

210
Q

What is meiosis?

A

The division of 1 parent cell to 4 genetically different daughter cells

211
Q

What occurs during meiosis 1?

A

The division of 1 diploid cell to two haploid cells

212
Q

What occurs in meiosis 2?

A

the separation of sister chromatids in the two cells from meiosis 1, and the formation of 2 daughter cells from each

213
Q

Why occurs during prophase 1?

A

Chromosomes condense, meiotic spindle forms, nuclear envelope breaks down, crossing over occurs, kinetochore forms, microtubules attach

214
Q

What happens during metaphase 1?

A

homologous chromosome pairs align at metaphase plate

215
Q

What happens during anaphase 1?

A

cohesion cleaved along chromosome arms. Cell elongates

216
Q

What occurs during telophase 1?

A

nuclei form. Cell splits

217
Q

What occurs during prophase 2?

A

The chromosomes condense, the spindle forms, and the nuclear envelope degrades

218
Q

What occurs during metaphase 2?

A

Chromosomes line up along the centre of the cell

219
Q

What occurs during anaphase 2?

A

The sister chromatids separate at the centromere and move to opposite poles along the spindle fibres

220
Q

What occurs during telophase 2?

A

The cells divide and the result is 4 haploid gametes

221
Q

What is crossing over?

A

The exchange of DNA of the non-sister chromatids of homologous pairs during the prophase of meiosis 1

222
Q

Why is crossing over good?

A

It increases genetic variability

223
Q

What is the independent assortment of chromosomes?

A

alignment of each pair of homologues is independent of other pairs of homologues?

224
Q

How many possibilities does independent assortment of chromosomes produce?

A

2^n possibilites (n=haploid #)

225
Q

What is Random Fertililzation?

A

Any sperm and egg can fuse to form zygotes

226
Q

How many possibilities does random fertilization produce?

A

2^n*2^n possibilites (n=haploid #)

227
Q

What is genomics?

A

The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions

228
Q

What is high-throughput sequencing?

A

Tech that rapidly determines all nucleotides in a DNA sequence

229
Q

What is genome assembly?

A

The aligning and merging of short DNA reads to construct a full original sequence

230
Q

What is bioinformatics?

A

The use of computers to address bio problems

231
Q

What is genome size?

A

The number of base pairs in a genome

232
Q

What is genome density?

A

The number of genes per Mbp

233
Q

How do prokaryote and eukaryote genome size and density compare?

A

Eukaryotes have much greater genome size whereas prokaryotes have much greater genome density

234
Q

What is alternate splicing?

A

Changes in the way introns are removed from pre-mRNA

235
Q

How is alternate splicing beneficial?

A

It increases protein diversity without increasing the number of genes. Only in eukaryotes

236
Q

What is non-coding DNA for?

A

Regulatory sequences, tandem repeat DNA, introns, etc…

237
Q

How much DNA is coding?

A

approx. 1.5% of the genome

238
Q

How much DNA is gene-related?

A

approx. 25% of the genome?

239
Q

How much DNA is non-coding?

A

over 70%

240
Q

How much of bacterial genomes are coding?

A

> 90%

241
Q

How do transposons move?

A

Via a DNA intermediate. Cut and Paste mechanism of movement.

242
Q

How do retrotransposons move?

A

Via a RNA intermediate. The overall amount of DNA in the genome increases

243
Q

Which are more common: Retrotransposons or Transposons?

A

Retrotransposons are more common in eukaryotes

244
Q

How do tandem repeats occur?

A

DNA polymerase error during replication leading to addition or deletion

245
Q

What can lead to alterations in chromosome structure?

A

Translocations and fusions

246
Q

What are multigene families?

A

Collections of two or more genes, all coming from a common ancestor

247
Q

What is exon shuffling?

A

The mixing and matching of exons within a gene or between non-allelic genes through meiotic recombination errors

248
Q

What is ancient DNA?

A

DNA isolated from ancient samples. Can be sequenced. Ex. Wolly Mammoth

249
Q

What is Primase?

A

Adds RNA primer to DNA

250
Q

What is the purpose of RNA primer?

A

Provides the 3’ end for DNA synthesis

251
Q

What is Helicase?

A

An enzyme that breaks dsDNA apart

252
Q

What is topoisomerase?

A

An enzyme that breaks the phosphodiester bond in a strand in order to relieve super coiling from helicase

253
Q

What are repair enzymes?

A

Enzymes that look for mismatched DNA

254
Q

Why is linear DNA problematic?

A

the 5’ of the strand where the primer was cannot be replicated as there is no 3’ end for the polymerase to attach to

255
Q

What happens to DNA after repeated replications?

A

It is shortened

256
Q

What is the leading strand?

A

The strand that can be seamlessly synthesized due to DNA coming being opened up 3’ end first

257
Q

What is the lagging strand?

A

The strand that is disjointedly synthesized due to DNA coming out of the replication bubble 5’ to 3’

258
Q

What are telomeres?

A

repetitive DNA that “caps” the end of chromosomes and allows for the replication of DNA without the erosion of chromosomes

259
Q

What is telomerase?

A

An enzyme that synthesizes telomeres in certain cells

260
Q

How do telomeres protect against cancer?

A

The prevent the cancer cells from replicating continuously

261
Q

How have some cancers bypassed telomeres?

A

They activate telomerase

262
Q

What is the template for telomerase?

A

RNA

263
Q
A
263
Q
A
264
Q
A

Biol 102 (1 decks)

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