Final Flashcards
The stage(s) of carcinogenesis detected by the SHE cell assay is/are:
promotion
The in vitro assay(s) that specifically detect(s) cytotoxicity/cell death is/are:
*Annexin V/PI staining with subsequent flow cytometry
*Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) release
The stage(s) of carcinogenesis detected by the Ames Test is/are:
Initiation
Which of the following would be the best markers to specifically detect toxicant-induced apoptosis?
*Caspase-3 activity
*Bax/Bcl-2 ratios
*p53 expression
Which of the following enzyme activities measures nucleoside analogue resistance in the MOLY assay?
Thymidine kinase
The animal model currently utilized to assess buccal delivery of compounds because of its large cheek pouches is the:
Hamster
The animal model currently utilized in the mass production of polyclonal antibodies is the:
rabbit
The animal model with no peripheral veins for intravenous administration, as well as an increased susceptibility to vitamin C and E deficiencies is the:
Guinea pig
The animal model that is resistant to barbiturates and morphine, but has an increased sensitivity to halothane and sevoflurane when compared to other species is the:
hamster
The animal model currently utilized as the best species to recapitulate chronic/congestive heart failure in humans is the:
dog
Which of the following enzyme activities measures nucleoside analogue resistance in the CHO/V79 assay?
Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
Oncogenes
are often via translocation to a location with a more active promoter
Which of the following is NOT one of the more common sources of DNA damage?
DNA polymerase error
Which of the following pairs of DNA repair mechanisms is most likely to introduce mutations into the genetic composition of an organism?
NHEJ and homologous recombination
Which of the following DNA mutations would NOT be considered a frameshift mutation?
deletion of 18 nucleotides
Which of the following base-pair mutations is properly characterized as a transversion mutation?
A → C
What is the purpose of the Ames assay?
the determine the frequency of a reversion mutation that allows bacterial colonies to grow in the absence of vital nutrients
In mammalian cytogenic assays, chromosomal aberrations are measured after treatment of the cells at which sensitive cell cycle phase?
S phase
Which of the following molecules is used to gauge the amount of a specific gene being transcribed to mRNA?
cDNA
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the role of mucus in the conducting airways?
Mucus plays a role promoting oxidative stress.
Respiratory distress syndrome sometimes affects premature neonates due to lack of surfactant production by which of the following cell types?
type II pneumocytes.
In a situation where there is an increased metabolic demand for oxygen, which of the following volume measurements will greatly increase?
tidal volume (TV).
The free radicals that inflict oxidative damage on the lungs are generated by all of the following EXCEPT:
SO2.
Which of the following gases would most likely pass all the way through the respiratory tract and diffuse into the pulmonary blood supply?
CO.
All of the following statements regarding particle deposition and clearance are true EXCEPT:
Diffusion is important in the deposition of particles in the bronchial regions.
Which of the following is not a common location to which particles are cleared?
liver.
Pulmonary fibrosis is marked by which of the following?
increased type I collagen.
Activation of what enzyme(s) is responsible for emphysema?
elastase.
Which of the following measurements would NOT be expected from a patient with restrictive lung disease?
increased VC.
In which of the following locations would one NOT find spontaneous depolarization?
myocardium.
Which of the following scenarios would increase contractility of the myocardium?
increased activity of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase.
All of the following statements regarding abnormal cardiac function are true EXCEPT:
Right-sided heart failure results in pulmonary edema.
Ion balance is very important in maintaining a normal cardia rhythm. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Blockage of the Na+/K+-ATPase increase contractility.
Which of the following is most likely NOT a cause of myocardial reperfusion injury?
inhibition of the electron transport chain.
- Which of the following statements regarding the cardio-toxic manifestations of ethanol consumption is FALSE?
Acute ethanol toxicity causes an increased threshold for ventricular fibrillation.
Cardiac glycosides:
can have sympathomimetic and parasympathomimetic effects.
Which of the following is NOT a common cardiotoxic manifestation of cocaine abuse?
parasympathomimetic effects.
Using high doses of anabolic-androgenic steroids is NOT likely associated with which of the following?
increased nitric oxide synthase expression.
Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of vascular toxicity?
reduction and accumulation of LDL in endothelium.
Which of the following statements regarding axons and/or axonal transport is FALSE?
A majority of the ATP in nerve cells is used for axonal transport.
Which of the following statements is not characteristic of Schwann cells in Wallerian degeneration?
Schwann cells increase synthesis of myelin lipids in response to axonal damage
Prenatal exposure to ethanol can result in mental retardation and hearing deficits in the newborn. What is the cellular basis of the neurotoxicity?
microcephaly
Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to place a neuron at risk of toxic damage?
ability to release neurotransmitters.
The use of meperidine contaminated with MPTP will result in a Parkinson’s disease-like neurotoxicity. Where is the most likely site in the brain that MPTP exerts its toxic effects?
substantia nigra.
Which of the following statements regarding the PNS and the CNS is TRUE?
PNS axons can regenerate, whereas CNS axons cannot.
Platinum (cisplatin) results in which of the following neurologic problems?
peripheral neuropathy
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of axonopathies?
A majority of axonal toxicants cause motor deficits.
All of the following statements regarding lead exposure are true EXCEPT:
Lead causes the transection of peripheral axons.
Regarding excitatory amino acids, which of the following statements is FALSE?
An ionotropic glutamate receptor is coupled to a G protein.
The impairment of hepatic function can have numerous negative consequences. Which of the following is likely NOT caused by impaired hepatic function?
hyperglycemia.
All of the following statements regarding the liver are true EXCEPT:
The liver manufactures and stores bile
Activation of which of the following cell types can result in increased secretion of collagen scar tissues, leading to cirrhosis?
Ito cell.
Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the failure to export which of the following metals into bile?
copper
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of apoptosis?
cell swelling
A patient suffering from canalicular cholestasis would NOT be expected to exhibit which of the following?
increased bile formation
Which of the following statements regarding liver injury is FALSE?
Hydrophilic drugs readily diffuse into hepatocytes because of the large sinusoidal fenestrations.
The inheritance of a “slow” aldehyde dehydrogenase enzyme would result in which of the following after the ingestion of ethanol?
nausea
Which of the following is not a common mechanism of hepatocellular injury?
increased transcytosis between hepatocytes
Ethanol is not known to cause which of the following types of hepatobiliary injury?
canalicular cholestasis.
The kidney is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
release of angiotensin.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to filtrate formation in the nephron?
positive charge of glomerular capillary wall.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the loop of Henle?
Water is freely permeable in the thin ascending limb.
Although the kidneys constitutes 0.5% of total body mass, approximately how much of the resting cardiac output do they receive?
20% to 25%.
Which of the following is most likely to occur after a toxic insult to the kidney?
Clinical tests will likely show normal renal function.
Chronic renal failure does not typically result in:
decrease in GFR of viable nephrons.
All of the following statements regarding toxicity to the kidney are true EXCEPT:
The distal convoluted tubule is the most common site of toxicant-induced renal injury.
Which of the following test results is NOT correctly paired with the underlying kidney problem?
brush-border enzymuria – glomerulonephritis.
Renal cell injury is NOT commonly mediated by which of the following mechanisms?
increased Na+, K+-ATPase activity.
Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to nephrotoxicants?
Chronic consumption of NSAIDs results in nephrotoxicity that is reversible with time.
Which of the following cells or substances is NOT part of the innate immune system?
antibodies
Myeloid precursor stem cells are responsible for the formation of all of the following EXCEPT:
lymphocytes
When an Rh- mother is exposed to the blood of an Rh+ baby during childbirth, the mother will make antibodies against the Rh factor, which can lead to the mother attacking the next Rh+ fetus. This is possible because of which antibody’s ability to cross the placenta.
IgG
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding important cytokine function in regulating the immune system?
IL-3 is the primary T-cell growth factor.
Which of the following is NOT a step performed during an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)?
Radioactively labeled cells are added to the solution.
The delayed hypersensitivity response (DHR) test does NOT:
evaluate memory T-cells’ ability to lyse foreign target cells.
The number of alveolar macrophages in smokers is greatly increased relative to nonsmokers. What is a characteristic of alveolar macrophages found in smokers?
They have decreased bactericidal activity.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
It involves immune complex deposition in peripheral tissues.
Which of the following types of hypersensitivity is NOT mediated by antibodies?
type IV
Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of autoimmune disorders?
subjection to positive selection in the thymus.
All of the following statements regarding plant toxicity are true EXCEPT:
Plant toxins are most highly concentrated in the leaves.
Contact with which of the following plant genus would be LEAST likely to cause an allergic dermatitis?
Urtica.
Which of the following statements regarding lectin toxicity is FALSE?
The fatality rate after ingestion of a fatal dose is very high.
Colchicine, found in lily bulbs:
blocks microtubule formation.
Activation of a vanilloid receptor is characteristic of which of the following chemicals?
capsaicin.
Which of the following plant species is known to cause cardia arrhythmias on ingestion?
Digitalis purpurea.
Which of the following plant toxins does NOT affect the neuromuscular junction?
muscimol.
Which of the following statements regarding animal toxins is FALSE?
Animal venoms are strictly metabolized by the liver.
Scorpion venoms do NOT:
affect calcium channels.
Which of the following statements regarding widow spiders is TRUE?
Alpha-latrotoxin stimulates increased exocytosis from nerve terminals
Which of the following diseases is not commonly caused by tick envenomation?
cat scratch fever.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic Lepidoptera envenomation?
decreased partial thromboplastin time.
Which of the following animals has a venom containing histamine and mast cell-degranulating peptide that is known for causing hypersensitivity reactions?
bees
Which of the following enzymes is not typically found in snake venoms?
histaminase
Which of the following statements regarding snakes is FALSE?
Inorganic anion are often found in snake venoms.
