Final Flashcards
0
Q
What term best describes mixing and matching foods in proportions that allow you to get enough of the nutrients you need?
balance, variety, moderation, nutrient density
A
balance
1
Q
Which of the following are energy-yielding substances?
carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, alcohol, fibre, minerals, lipids
A
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, alcohol
2
Q
A food with 180 total calories and 7 grams of fat had _____% of calories from fat?
A
35
3
Q
Choosing broccoli instead of french fries represent what dietary principle?
A
nutrient density
4
Q
A food with 12g of fat,7g of protein, and 20g of carbohydrates contains ____ kcal
A
216
5
Q
One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. “Variety” means?
A
to choose a variety of foods from within food groups as well as from among the food groups
6
Q
When someone’s usual intake for a nutrient is equal to the EAR this means that the probability that they are meeting their requirement for that nutrient is what?
A
50%
7
Q
Which reference value is set well above the needs of every healthy Canadian but will not cause toxicity symptoms?
A
UL
8
Q
Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?
A
405
9
Q
Canada’s Food Guide recommends how many servings of vegetables and fruits for a 24 year old woman?
A
7-8
10
Q
2 cups of raw spinach (a leafy vegetable) is equal to how many Canada’s Food Guide servings?
A
2
11
Q
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
A
97-98%
12
Q
Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when
A
supplements are taken
13
Q
What is the upper limit of fat, in grams, that should be consumed by a healthy person requiring 2,500 kcalories per day?
A
97
14
Q
Which is NOT equivalent to a Grain Product serving?
3/4 a cup of cold cereals, 1 bagel, 1/2 a cup of cooked rice, 1 slice of bread
A
1 bagel
15
Q
A 2,000 calorie diet in which carbohydrate provides 50% of the calories would provide how many grams of carbohydrate?
A
250
16
Q
For a 20 year-old man, Canada’s Food Guide recommends ______ servings from the vegetables and fruit group each day.
A
8-10
17
Q
A kiwi and a soda both contain 140 calories but the kiwi is considered to be a _______ food and the soda a _______ food:
A
nutrient dense, empty calorie
18
Q
The acceptable range of carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ____ of the total energy required.
A
45-65%
19
Q
A meal providing 630 kcalories contains 6g of saturated fats, 1g of monounsaturated fats, and 2g polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy is supplied by the lipids?
A
13
20
Q
According to the DRI recommendations for macronutrient intake, a healthy person consuming a 2,000 kcal/day diet should aim for no more than how many grams of protein per day?
A
175
21
Q
After water soluble nutrients are absorbed, they are carried to the ____ through the _____.
A
liver, hepatic portal vein
22
Q
What is the role of essential fatty acids in the body?
A
they are regulators of inflammation and blood clotting
23
Q
Amino acids, simple sugars, and water-soluble products are absorbed into capillaries that are part of what system?
A
hepatic portal circulation
24
Describe an association between dietary fat and cancer.
Increased risk of colon cancer is associated with the consumption of saturated fat from red meat
25
A meal providing 630 kcals contains 6g of saturated fats,1g of monounsaturated fats, and 2g polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy is supplied by the lipids?
13
26
Alpha-linolenic acid is an example of what type of fatty acid?
omega-3 fatty acid
27
What substance is released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of fat?
bile
28
The enzyme ______ promotes the uptake of fatty acids and glycerol by cell to be used as fuel or for storage.
lipoprotein lipase
29
What is needed for cells to take up low-density lipoproteins?
LDL receptors located on the surface of cells
30
The precursors for eicosaniod formation are
omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids
31
What is the name given to the small intestine protrusions that participate in the digestion and absorption of nutrients?
villi
32
In general, populations that have a high intake of total fat have a higher incidence of ______ than populations that have a lower intake.
obesity, heart disease, and certain types of cancer
33
Which health problems can increase a person's risk of developing heart disease?
obesity, high blood pressure, and type 2 diabetes
34
A strong correlation exists for colon cancer and diets that are
high in animal fats
35
Current recommendations regarding fat intake suggest a healthy diet should
provide about 20-35% of total kcal from fat
36
An obese person will tend to have
higher levels of VLDLs in the blood compared to a lean person
37
Which fatty acid is found in high levels in flax seeds and walnuts?
18: 3n-3
38
Which accessory organs releases its secretion into the GI tract?
gallbladder, pancreas, and salivary glands
39
Of the following list of foods, which represents an insoluble fibre?
oatmeal, beans, rye bran, apples
rye bran
40
High fructose corn syrup in the diet leads to
the formation of fat
41
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of lactose intolerance?
cramps, constipation, diarrhea, bloating
constipation
42
Muscle glucose, stored as glycogen in the muscle
must be used only by muscle cells
43
Abnormally high concentrations of blood glucose resulting from Type 2 diabetes are caused by ______
body cells not responding appropriately to insulin, a condition called insulin resistance
44
The digestion of sucrose (table sugar) results in what 2 monosaccharides?
fructose and glucose
45
All the following are examples of soluble fibre EXCEPT:
| pectin, guar gum, lignin, carageenin
lignin
46
Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John's diet of 2,700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?
405
47
The acceptable range of carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ______ of the total energy required.
45-65%
48
Oligosaccharides are
a carbohydrate containing 3-10 simple sugar units
49
What is a good source of complex carbohydrates?
cereal and grains
50
What part of a whole grain contains fat and vitamin E?
germ
51
Lactose intolerance is caused by
inadequate production of the enzyme lactase
52
A good source of resistance starch is
chilled, cooked potatoes
53
The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by
pancreatic hormones
54
The ______ reflects a ranking of how specific foods affect blood glucose compared to the response of a reference food.
glycemic index
55
Which type of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease?
Type 1
56
A well documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is
dental caries
57
A person who has been diagnosed with PKU (Phenylketonuria) should refrain from consuming which sugar alternative?
aspartame
58
What 3 ways can dietary fibre help reduce blood cholesterol levels?
binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract. blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract. and inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver
59
What group has the highest protein requirement (amount of protein required per unit of bodyweight)?
infants
60
Where does protein digestion begin?
stomach
61
What term described the continuous synthesis and breakdoqn of body proteins?
protein turnover
62
What process does NOT require amino acid deamination?
manufacturing enzymes
63
Describe the cause of sickle cell anemia
it is caused by a change in the amino acid sequence in hemoglobin
64
What term can be used to describe a protein?
polypeptide
65
Excessive intake of animal protein foods could cause
excessive bone mineralization (brittleness), a diet to be too low in energy, and increased waste production overworking the liver
66
The 3-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the
sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain
67
Protein denaturation can
alter the 3-dimensional shape of a protein
68
Food allergies can result when a protein in the diet
is absorbed without being completely digested
69
The enzyme trypsin and chymotrypsin
break large polypeptides into smaller peptides
70
A limiting amino acid
is present in short supply relative to the body's need
71
Hemoglobin is an example of
a transport protein
72
What can result from a deficiency of protein and energy?
marasmus
73
Why is urea synthesized?
deamination produces ammonia, which is toxic and must be converted to urea in the liver
74
To estimate protein requirements, you must know a person's
body weight
75
Complete protein sources can be found in which type of foods?
dairy products
76
One reason to get more of your protein from plants would be
to get more fibre, to get more poly and mono unsaturated fats, and lower blood cholesterol
77
Vegetarians have a lower risk of
diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and high blood pressure
78
Vegan vegetarians may not get enough of which nutrients?
iron, vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium
79
In the hierarchy of nutrient use..
first, carbohydrates are used to maintain blood glucose and build glycogen stores, and then the remaining carbohydrate is oxidized for energy
80
Body Mass Index is calculated by:
weight in kg/ (height in m)^2
81
At which rate of weight loss is most of what is lost fat and not lean tissue?
0.5-1 kg / week
82
What is the total energy content of a serving of granola that contains 7g of fat, 40g of carbohydrate, and 4g of protain?
239 kcalories
83
Overweight is defined as having a body mass index of _____ kg/^2
25-29.9
84
The energy expended to digest and store nutrients is called
thermic effort of food (TEF)
85
What does the set-point theory suggest about body weight?
body weight is genetically determined and that there are internal mechanisms to defend against weight change
86
Primarily, energy is stored in the body as _______ and ________
glycogen, triglycerides
87
What is a common outcome of "yo-yo" dieting, or a pattern of losing and gaining weight?
a decrease in the likelihood that future weight loss efforts will be successful
88
If no food is eaten for more than a few hours, gluconeogenesis occurs forming glucose from
functioning body protein
89
What results in an increase in an individual's basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
an increase in muscle mass, increase in body weight, and running a fever
90
Indirect calorimetry measures ______ and ______ to estimate calorie expenditure in humans
oxygen consumed, carbon dioxide expired
91
Skinfold thickness measures
subcutaneous fat
92
What is the BMI of someone who weighs 145 pounds and is 5 foot 7 inches tall?
22.26
93
The stimulus which prompts one to eat in response to internal physical cues is best described as
hunger
94
What phrase describes the energy needed to maintain basic bodily functions such as the beating of your heart, as well as that needed to process food and fuel activity?
total energy expenditure
95
The distribution of fat in the body can be an indicator of health risk. What is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes and breast cancer?
visceral fat deposited around the waist
96
The hormone produced in the stomach that stimulates food intake is
ghrelin
97
When a diet is very low in kcalories and carbohydrate for a long period of time, what is likely to develop?
ketosis
98
Researchers study whether caffeine has any effect on short-term memory. In the first part of the study, two groups of subjects are given capsules that look identical. Group A receives caffeine and Group B receives a harmless neutral substance. Group B is being given a _______.
placebo
99
The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is:
make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory
100
How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined?
by contribution to total weight
101
Continues acceptance of scientific theory depends on
the ability of other scientists to duplicate the original research and results
102
Approximately 1,000 high school students were asked to keep a record of what supplemental vitamins they took and how many colds they had over the course of a year. The amount of vitamin C consumed was compared with the students' incidences of colds. This type of study is called an
epidemiological study
103
Nutrition Facts Table labels contain information about which minerals?
calcium and iron
104
One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits, vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits, vegetables and diary foods. The 2 groups' blood pressure readings are monitored and compared. This is an example of an
intervention study
105
In a controlled study, if neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are receiving treatment, the study is called a
double blind study
106
"A healthy diet rich in a variety of vegetables and fruit may help reduce the risk of some types of cancer" is an example of what kind of food label claim?
disease-risk reduction claim
107
Daily Values are based on a ______ kcalorie diet.
2,000
108
Nutrition Facts Table labels include information about which vitamins?
Vitamin A and Vitamin C
109
The best reason for using a placebo as part of experimental design is:
all subjects are receiving some sort of treatment, which will minimize bias
110
As the number of variables in research study increases, the number of subjects needed to prove an outcome generally _______.
increases
111
Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of which type of study?
balance study
112
When subjects do not know which treatment they are receiving in a clinical trial, but the researchers do, the study is called
single blind
113
What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning
114
In a controlled experiment, the group that is NOT subject to treatment is called
the control group
115
What is folate needed for?
DNA synthesis and for cell division
116
Why are infants at risk for iron deficiency?
by the time they are 7 and 12 months of age, the iron stores they were born with are deplated
117
Colostrum
is the first fluid that is produced by the breast after delivery
118
In humans, a full-term pregnancy is approximately
40 weeks
119
An infant weighing 7 pounds at birth should weigh approximately ______ by 4 months of age
14 pounds
120
In terms of weight gain recommendations during pregnancy, which women should gain the most weight during pregnancy?
women with a low pregnancy weight
121
Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of
miscarriages
122
What is the recommended weight gain for healthy, normal-weight women?
11.5-16 kg (25-30 lbs)
123
The hormone responsible for the let-down reflex is
oxytocin
124
Nursing bottle syndrome refers to
tooth decay in the upper teeth resulting from putting a child to bed with a bottle containing milk or other sweetened liquids
125
What term describes periods when children will eat only certain foods and nothing else?
food jags
126
According to the CCHS, children's intake of ______ is of concern
calcium
127
Which nutrients are not needed in increased amounts for pregnant women above those for non-pregnant women?
calcium and vitamin D
128
According to the CCHS, children's intake of _______ is very high and should be reduced
sodium
129
Certain foods are not fortified with ______ in order to help reduce the incidence of neural tube defects in Canada.
folic acid
130
The rate of growth (increase in weight/height per year)
is slower during childhood ( > age 1) compared to infancy ( < age 1)
131
Young infants are at increased risk of developing allergies when compared to older children because
the lining of the intestine is more permeable to large molecules
132
The hormonal reflex triggered by the infant's suckling that causes milk to be released from the milk ducts is called _____ reflex.
let down
133
What can help reduce the risk of developing a food allergy?
breast feeding
134
Health Canada recommends exclusive breastfeeding for how long?
the first 6 months
135
Compared to formula-fed babies, babies receiving breast milk
have fewer allergies, ear infections and respiratory illness
136
The ______ is the site of most vitamin absorption into the body
small intestine
137
What term refers to how well a nutrient can be absorbed and used by the body?
bioavailability
138
What food is a good source of niacin?
chicken
139
What food is a good source of folate?
oranges
140
What combination of 3 vitamins is most important for proper homocysteine metabolism?
folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12
141
Describe the relationship between bleeding gums and vitamin C
lack of vitamin C results in inadequate collagen synthesis which in turn causes bleeding gums
142
A common adverse effect of niacin toxicity includes
flushing of the skin
143
What fetal defect can occur when inadequate amounts of folate are consumed during the first 28 days after conception?
spina bifida
144
What term is used to describe the process of adding nutrients to foods such as calcium to orange juice?
fortified
145
Vitamins may be lost when food is processed. When these vitamins are added back to the processed food at the same or higher level, the food is said to be
enriched
146
What are some good sources of thiamin?
sunflower seeds, whole grains, and pork
147
How is niacin synthesized in the body?
from the amino acid, tryptophan
148
Biotin is tightly bound by avidin, which prevents absorption of the vitamin. Avidin is commonly found in
egg whites
149
An elevation in homocysteine has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. In clinical studies, which vitamins have been shown to decrease levels of homocysteine in the blood?
vitamin B6, folate, and vitamin B12
150
For what group of people is taking B12 supplements the least beneficial?
people eating diets high in animal products
151
B12 deficiency caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor results in
pernicious anemia
152
Explain why fatigue is a symptom of beriberi
beriberi is caused by a deficiency of thiamin, which is involved in the production of ATP from glucose
153
Vitamin C deficiency causes
bleeding gums, easy bruising, depression
154
Many B vitamins are essential for the metabolism of energy yielding nutrients. They perform this function by binding to and promoting the activity of enzymes. When B vitamins perform in this way, they are _______.
coenzymes
155
Is choline classified as a vitamin?
no
156
Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to
light
157
A vitamin B12 deficiency can cause a secondary deficiency of what vitamin?
folate
158
The mineral, ________, is necessary for proper vitamin A transport and metabolism
zinc
159
As the intake of polyunsaturated fats increases, the need for vitamin E
increases
160
What transports vitamin A from liver stores to tissues?
retinol binding protein
161
What are good dietary sources of vitamin E?
safflower oil, almonds
162
Vitamin K is needed to produce prothrombin, a protein needed for
blood clotting
163
Fat-soluble vitamins require _____ and _____ for absorption into the mucosal cell
bile and dietary fat
164
Which form of vitamin A is involved in vision?
retinal
165
Fat-soluble vitamins are transported from the intestine to the liver in ________.
chylomicrons
166
What appears to be the best way to increase one's consumption of antioxidants?
eating more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains is addition to eating a balanced diet
167
Vitamin D regulates ______ and ______ balance in the body
calcium, phosphorus
168
In the liver, vitamin E is incorporated into ______ and from there distributed to other lipoproteins and delivered to cells
VLDL
169
What is the name of the visual pigment light strikes?
rhodopsin
170
A deficiency of vitamin A can result in
xerophthalmia
171
What fat-soluble vitamin can be synthesized by bacteria in the intestine?
vitamin K
172
For a 2,000 kcalorie level, how many servings of fruits and vegetables does the DASH eating plan propse?
4-5
173
The following minerals all compete with each other for absorption EXCEPT:
zinc, sodium, copper, calcium
sodium
174
Sodium, chloride, and potassium in the body are examples of
electrolytes
175
Describe the relationship of bone calcium to blood calcium
if dietary calcium is low, bone calcium is sacrificed to maintain blood calcium
176
Diets high in sodium have been linked in some people to _______.
hypertension
177
Hypertension is very common in Canada, affecting ______ of adults
1/5
178
What food group provides the best sources of calcium and phosphorus?
dairy
179
What food groups are most important to the DASH eating plan?
fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, whole grains
180
Describe the loss of bone mass in adulthood
it begins for men and women in adulthood, typically around age 35
181
What inceases calcium absorption?
pregnancy
182
Whether an element is classified as a major mineral or a trace element is deterined by
the amounts needed daily by the body
183
Which food group provides the largest variety of minerals?
meat and beans
184
The most abundant mineral in the body is _______.
calcium
185
What is the best indicator of iron stores in the body?
ferritin
186
Most of the salt consumed by Canadians is
adde to food during processing and manufacturing
187
During bone remodelling, what cells build bone?
osteoblasts
188
Describe iron RDAs
the RDA for young women is higher than the RDA for young adult men
189
Iron is transported in what protein?
blood transferrin
190
What is beriberi deficiency disease related to?
thiamin
191
Milk and cheese are good sources of
riboflavin, cobalamin
192
What is not found in any grains, legumes, vegetables or fruits?
cobalamin
193
Deficiency in ________ and ________ causes metabolastic anemia
folate, cobalamin
194
Deficiency in ______ causes irreversible nerve damage
cobalamin
195
Toxicity in ______ includes permanent numbness/tingling in fingers/toes
pyridoxine
196
Pellagra deficiency disease is related to
niacin
197
What's the cofactor in reactions including amino acids?
pyridoxine
198
What is osteomalacia deficiency disease related to?
cholecalciferol
199
Seeds/nuts and plant oils are good sources of
alpha tocopherol
200
What is the active form of vitamin D?
calcitriol
201
What deficiency causes hemolytic anemia?
alpha tocopherol
202
What deficiency causes night blindness?
retinol
203
What toxicity involves skin rash, enlarged liver, and increased risk of bone fractures?
retinoic acid
