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Nutrition Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

0
Q

What term best describes mixing and matching foods in proportions that allow you to get enough of the nutrients you need?
balance, variety, moderation, nutrient density

A

balance

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1
Q

Which of the following are energy-yielding substances?

carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, alcohol, fibre, minerals, lipids

A

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, alcohol

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2
Q

A food with 180 total calories and 7 grams of fat had _____% of calories from fat?

A

35

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3
Q

Choosing broccoli instead of french fries represent what dietary principle?

A

nutrient density

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4
Q

A food with 12g of fat,7g of protein, and 20g of carbohydrates contains ____ kcal

A

216

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5
Q

One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. “Variety” means?

A

to choose a variety of foods from within food groups as well as from among the food groups

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6
Q

When someone’s usual intake for a nutrient is equal to the EAR this means that the probability that they are meeting their requirement for that nutrient is what?

A

50%

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7
Q

Which reference value is set well above the needs of every healthy Canadian but will not cause toxicity symptoms?

A

UL

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8
Q

Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?

A

405

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9
Q

Canada’s Food Guide recommends how many servings of vegetables and fruits for a 24 year old woman?

A

7-8

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10
Q

2 cups of raw spinach (a leafy vegetable) is equal to how many Canada’s Food Guide servings?

A

2

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11
Q

The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?

A

97-98%

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12
Q

Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when

A

supplements are taken

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13
Q

What is the upper limit of fat, in grams, that should be consumed by a healthy person requiring 2,500 kcalories per day?

A

97

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14
Q

Which is NOT equivalent to a Grain Product serving?

3/4 a cup of cold cereals, 1 bagel, 1/2 a cup of cooked rice, 1 slice of bread

A

1 bagel

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15
Q

A 2,000 calorie diet in which carbohydrate provides 50% of the calories would provide how many grams of carbohydrate?

A

250

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16
Q

For a 20 year-old man, Canada’s Food Guide recommends ______ servings from the vegetables and fruit group each day.

A

8-10

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17
Q

A kiwi and a soda both contain 140 calories but the kiwi is considered to be a _______ food and the soda a _______ food:

A

nutrient dense, empty calorie

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18
Q

The acceptable range of carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ____ of the total energy required.

A

45-65%

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19
Q

A meal providing 630 kcalories contains 6g of saturated fats, 1g of monounsaturated fats, and 2g polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy is supplied by the lipids?

A

13

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20
Q

According to the DRI recommendations for macronutrient intake, a healthy person consuming a 2,000 kcal/day diet should aim for no more than how many grams of protein per day?

A

175

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21
Q

After water soluble nutrients are absorbed, they are carried to the ____ through the _____.

A

liver, hepatic portal vein

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22
Q

What is the role of essential fatty acids in the body?

A

they are regulators of inflammation and blood clotting

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23
Q

Amino acids, simple sugars, and water-soluble products are absorbed into capillaries that are part of what system?

A

hepatic portal circulation

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24
Q

Describe an association between dietary fat and cancer.

A

Increased risk of colon cancer is associated with the consumption of saturated fat from red meat

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25
Q

A meal providing 630 kcals contains 6g of saturated fats,1g of monounsaturated fats, and 2g polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy is supplied by the lipids?

A

13

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26
Q

Alpha-linolenic acid is an example of what type of fatty acid?

A

omega-3 fatty acid

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27
Q

What substance is released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of fat?

A

bile

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28
Q

The enzyme ______ promotes the uptake of fatty acids and glycerol by cell to be used as fuel or for storage.

A

lipoprotein lipase

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29
Q

What is needed for cells to take up low-density lipoproteins?

A

LDL receptors located on the surface of cells

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30
Q

The precursors for eicosaniod formation are

A

omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids

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31
Q

What is the name given to the small intestine protrusions that participate in the digestion and absorption of nutrients?

A

villi

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32
Q

In general, populations that have a high intake of total fat have a higher incidence of ______ than populations that have a lower intake.

A

obesity, heart disease, and certain types of cancer

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33
Q

Which health problems can increase a person’s risk of developing heart disease?

A

obesity, high blood pressure, and type 2 diabetes

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34
Q

A strong correlation exists for colon cancer and diets that are

A

high in animal fats

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35
Q

Current recommendations regarding fat intake suggest a healthy diet should

A

provide about 20-35% of total kcal from fat

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36
Q

An obese person will tend to have

A

higher levels of VLDLs in the blood compared to a lean person

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37
Q

Which fatty acid is found in high levels in flax seeds and walnuts?

A

18: 3n-3

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38
Q

Which accessory organs releases its secretion into the GI tract?

A

gallbladder, pancreas, and salivary glands

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39
Q

Of the following list of foods, which represents an insoluble fibre?
oatmeal, beans, rye bran, apples

A

rye bran

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40
Q

High fructose corn syrup in the diet leads to

A

the formation of fat

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of lactose intolerance?
cramps, constipation, diarrhea, bloating

A

constipation

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42
Q

Muscle glucose, stored as glycogen in the muscle

A

must be used only by muscle cells

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43
Q

Abnormally high concentrations of blood glucose resulting from Type 2 diabetes are caused by ______

A

body cells not responding appropriately to insulin, a condition called insulin resistance

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44
Q

The digestion of sucrose (table sugar) results in what 2 monosaccharides?

A

fructose and glucose

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45
Q

All the following are examples of soluble fibre EXCEPT:

pectin, guar gum, lignin, carageenin

A

lignin

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46
Q

Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2,700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?

A

405

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47
Q

The acceptable range of carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ______ of the total energy required.

A

45-65%

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48
Q

Oligosaccharides are

A

a carbohydrate containing 3-10 simple sugar units

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49
Q

What is a good source of complex carbohydrates?

A

cereal and grains

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50
Q

What part of a whole grain contains fat and vitamin E?

A

germ

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51
Q

Lactose intolerance is caused by

A

inadequate production of the enzyme lactase

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52
Q

A good source of resistance starch is

A

chilled, cooked potatoes

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53
Q

The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by

A

pancreatic hormones

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54
Q

The ______ reflects a ranking of how specific foods affect blood glucose compared to the response of a reference food.

A

glycemic index

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55
Q

Which type of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease?

A

Type 1

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56
Q

A well documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is

A

dental caries

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57
Q

A person who has been diagnosed with PKU (Phenylketonuria) should refrain from consuming which sugar alternative?

A

aspartame

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58
Q

What 3 ways can dietary fibre help reduce blood cholesterol levels?

A

binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract. blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract. and inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver

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59
Q

What group has the highest protein requirement (amount of protein required per unit of bodyweight)?

A

infants

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60
Q

Where does protein digestion begin?

A

stomach

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61
Q

What term described the continuous synthesis and breakdoqn of body proteins?

A

protein turnover

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62
Q

What process does NOT require amino acid deamination?

A

manufacturing enzymes

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63
Q

Describe the cause of sickle cell anemia

A

it is caused by a change in the amino acid sequence in hemoglobin

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64
Q

What term can be used to describe a protein?

A

polypeptide

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65
Q

Excessive intake of animal protein foods could cause

A

excessive bone mineralization (brittleness), a diet to be too low in energy, and increased waste production overworking the liver

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66
Q

The 3-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the

A

sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain

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67
Q

Protein denaturation can

A

alter the 3-dimensional shape of a protein

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68
Q

Food allergies can result when a protein in the diet

A

is absorbed without being completely digested

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69
Q

The enzyme trypsin and chymotrypsin

A

break large polypeptides into smaller peptides

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70
Q

A limiting amino acid

A

is present in short supply relative to the body’s need

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71
Q

Hemoglobin is an example of

A

a transport protein

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72
Q

What can result from a deficiency of protein and energy?

A

marasmus

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73
Q

Why is urea synthesized?

A

deamination produces ammonia, which is toxic and must be converted to urea in the liver

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74
Q

To estimate protein requirements, you must know a person’s

A

body weight

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75
Q

Complete protein sources can be found in which type of foods?

A

dairy products

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76
Q

One reason to get more of your protein from plants would be

A

to get more fibre, to get more poly and mono unsaturated fats, and lower blood cholesterol

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77
Q

Vegetarians have a lower risk of

A

diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and high blood pressure

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78
Q

Vegan vegetarians may not get enough of which nutrients?

A

iron, vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium

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79
Q

In the hierarchy of nutrient use..

A

first, carbohydrates are used to maintain blood glucose and build glycogen stores, and then the remaining carbohydrate is oxidized for energy

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80
Q

Body Mass Index is calculated by:

A

weight in kg/ (height in m)^2

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81
Q

At which rate of weight loss is most of what is lost fat and not lean tissue?

A

0.5-1 kg / week

82
Q

What is the total energy content of a serving of granola that contains 7g of fat, 40g of carbohydrate, and 4g of protain?

A

239 kcalories

83
Q

Overweight is defined as having a body mass index of _____ kg/^2

A

25-29.9

84
Q

The energy expended to digest and store nutrients is called

A

thermic effort of food (TEF)

85
Q

What does the set-point theory suggest about body weight?

A

body weight is genetically determined and that there are internal mechanisms to defend against weight change

86
Q

Primarily, energy is stored in the body as _______ and ________

A

glycogen, triglycerides

87
Q

What is a common outcome of “yo-yo” dieting, or a pattern of losing and gaining weight?

A

a decrease in the likelihood that future weight loss efforts will be successful

88
Q

If no food is eaten for more than a few hours, gluconeogenesis occurs forming glucose from

A

functioning body protein

89
Q

What results in an increase in an individual’s basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A

an increase in muscle mass, increase in body weight, and running a fever

90
Q

Indirect calorimetry measures ______ and ______ to estimate calorie expenditure in humans

A

oxygen consumed, carbon dioxide expired

91
Q

Skinfold thickness measures

A

subcutaneous fat

92
Q

What is the BMI of someone who weighs 145 pounds and is 5 foot 7 inches tall?

A

22.26

93
Q

The stimulus which prompts one to eat in response to internal physical cues is best described as

A

hunger

94
Q

What phrase describes the energy needed to maintain basic bodily functions such as the beating of your heart, as well as that needed to process food and fuel activity?

A

total energy expenditure

95
Q

The distribution of fat in the body can be an indicator of health risk. What is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes and breast cancer?

A

visceral fat deposited around the waist

96
Q

The hormone produced in the stomach that stimulates food intake is

A

ghrelin

97
Q

When a diet is very low in kcalories and carbohydrate for a long period of time, what is likely to develop?

A

ketosis

98
Q

Researchers study whether caffeine has any effect on short-term memory. In the first part of the study, two groups of subjects are given capsules that look identical. Group A receives caffeine and Group B receives a harmless neutral substance. Group B is being given a _______.

A

placebo

99
Q

The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is:

A

make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory

100
Q

How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined?

A

by contribution to total weight

101
Q

Continues acceptance of scientific theory depends on

A

the ability of other scientists to duplicate the original research and results

102
Q

Approximately 1,000 high school students were asked to keep a record of what supplemental vitamins they took and how many colds they had over the course of a year. The amount of vitamin C consumed was compared with the students’ incidences of colds. This type of study is called an

A

epidemiological study

103
Q

Nutrition Facts Table labels contain information about which minerals?

A

calcium and iron

104
Q

One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits, vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits, vegetables and diary foods. The 2 groups’ blood pressure readings are monitored and compared. This is an example of an

A

intervention study

105
Q

In a controlled study, if neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are receiving treatment, the study is called a

A

double blind study

106
Q

“A healthy diet rich in a variety of vegetables and fruit may help reduce the risk of some types of cancer” is an example of what kind of food label claim?

A

disease-risk reduction claim

107
Q

Daily Values are based on a ______ kcalorie diet.

A

2,000

108
Q

Nutrition Facts Table labels include information about which vitamins?

A

Vitamin A and Vitamin C

109
Q

The best reason for using a placebo as part of experimental design is:

A

all subjects are receiving some sort of treatment, which will minimize bias

110
Q

As the number of variables in research study increases, the number of subjects needed to prove an outcome generally _______.

A

increases

111
Q

Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of which type of study?

A

balance study

112
Q

When subjects do not know which treatment they are receiving in a clinical trial, but the researchers do, the study is called

A

single blind

113
Q

What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?

A

A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning

114
Q

In a controlled experiment, the group that is NOT subject to treatment is called

A

the control group

115
Q

What is folate needed for?

A

DNA synthesis and for cell division

116
Q

Why are infants at risk for iron deficiency?

A

by the time they are 7 and 12 months of age, the iron stores they were born with are deplated

117
Q

Colostrum

A

is the first fluid that is produced by the breast after delivery

118
Q

In humans, a full-term pregnancy is approximately

A

40 weeks

119
Q

An infant weighing 7 pounds at birth should weigh approximately ______ by 4 months of age

A

14 pounds

120
Q

In terms of weight gain recommendations during pregnancy, which women should gain the most weight during pregnancy?

A

women with a low pregnancy weight

121
Q

Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of

A

miscarriages

122
Q

What is the recommended weight gain for healthy, normal-weight women?

A

11.5-16 kg (25-30 lbs)

123
Q

The hormone responsible for the let-down reflex is

A

oxytocin

124
Q

Nursing bottle syndrome refers to

A

tooth decay in the upper teeth resulting from putting a child to bed with a bottle containing milk or other sweetened liquids

125
Q

What term describes periods when children will eat only certain foods and nothing else?

A

food jags

126
Q

According to the CCHS, children’s intake of ______ is of concern

A

calcium

127
Q

Which nutrients are not needed in increased amounts for pregnant women above those for non-pregnant women?

A

calcium and vitamin D

128
Q

According to the CCHS, children’s intake of _______ is very high and should be reduced

A

sodium

129
Q

Certain foods are not fortified with ______ in order to help reduce the incidence of neural tube defects in Canada.

A

folic acid

130
Q

The rate of growth (increase in weight/height per year)

A

is slower during childhood ( > age 1) compared to infancy ( < age 1)

131
Q

Young infants are at increased risk of developing allergies when compared to older children because

A

the lining of the intestine is more permeable to large molecules

132
Q

The hormonal reflex triggered by the infant’s suckling that causes milk to be released from the milk ducts is called _____ reflex.

A

let down

133
Q

What can help reduce the risk of developing a food allergy?

A

breast feeding

134
Q

Health Canada recommends exclusive breastfeeding for how long?

A

the first 6 months

135
Q

Compared to formula-fed babies, babies receiving breast milk

A

have fewer allergies, ear infections and respiratory illness

136
Q

The ______ is the site of most vitamin absorption into the body

A

small intestine

137
Q

What term refers to how well a nutrient can be absorbed and used by the body?

A

bioavailability

138
Q

What food is a good source of niacin?

A

chicken

139
Q

What food is a good source of folate?

A

oranges

140
Q

What combination of 3 vitamins is most important for proper homocysteine metabolism?

A

folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12

141
Q

Describe the relationship between bleeding gums and vitamin C

A

lack of vitamin C results in inadequate collagen synthesis which in turn causes bleeding gums

142
Q

A common adverse effect of niacin toxicity includes

A

flushing of the skin

143
Q

What fetal defect can occur when inadequate amounts of folate are consumed during the first 28 days after conception?

A

spina bifida

144
Q

What term is used to describe the process of adding nutrients to foods such as calcium to orange juice?

A

fortified

145
Q

Vitamins may be lost when food is processed. When these vitamins are added back to the processed food at the same or higher level, the food is said to be

A

enriched

146
Q

What are some good sources of thiamin?

A

sunflower seeds, whole grains, and pork

147
Q

How is niacin synthesized in the body?

A

from the amino acid, tryptophan

148
Q

Biotin is tightly bound by avidin, which prevents absorption of the vitamin. Avidin is commonly found in

A

egg whites

149
Q

An elevation in homocysteine has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. In clinical studies, which vitamins have been shown to decrease levels of homocysteine in the blood?

A

vitamin B6, folate, and vitamin B12

150
Q

For what group of people is taking B12 supplements the least beneficial?

A

people eating diets high in animal products

151
Q

B12 deficiency caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor results in

A

pernicious anemia

152
Q

Explain why fatigue is a symptom of beriberi

A

beriberi is caused by a deficiency of thiamin, which is involved in the production of ATP from glucose

153
Q

Vitamin C deficiency causes

A

bleeding gums, easy bruising, depression

154
Q

Many B vitamins are essential for the metabolism of energy yielding nutrients. They perform this function by binding to and promoting the activity of enzymes. When B vitamins perform in this way, they are _______.

A

coenzymes

155
Q

Is choline classified as a vitamin?

A

no

156
Q

Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to

A

light

157
Q

A vitamin B12 deficiency can cause a secondary deficiency of what vitamin?

A

folate

158
Q

The mineral, ________, is necessary for proper vitamin A transport and metabolism

A

zinc

159
Q

As the intake of polyunsaturated fats increases, the need for vitamin E

A

increases

160
Q

What transports vitamin A from liver stores to tissues?

A

retinol binding protein

161
Q

What are good dietary sources of vitamin E?

A

safflower oil, almonds

162
Q

Vitamin K is needed to produce prothrombin, a protein needed for

A

blood clotting

163
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins require _____ and _____ for absorption into the mucosal cell

A

bile and dietary fat

164
Q

Which form of vitamin A is involved in vision?

A

retinal

165
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins are transported from the intestine to the liver in ________.

A

chylomicrons

166
Q

What appears to be the best way to increase one’s consumption of antioxidants?

A

eating more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains is addition to eating a balanced diet

167
Q

Vitamin D regulates ______ and ______ balance in the body

A

calcium, phosphorus

168
Q

In the liver, vitamin E is incorporated into ______ and from there distributed to other lipoproteins and delivered to cells

A

VLDL

169
Q

What is the name of the visual pigment light strikes?

A

rhodopsin

170
Q

A deficiency of vitamin A can result in

A

xerophthalmia

171
Q

What fat-soluble vitamin can be synthesized by bacteria in the intestine?

A

vitamin K

172
Q

For a 2,000 kcalorie level, how many servings of fruits and vegetables does the DASH eating plan propse?

A

4-5

173
Q

The following minerals all compete with each other for absorption EXCEPT:
zinc, sodium, copper, calcium

A

sodium

174
Q

Sodium, chloride, and potassium in the body are examples of

A

electrolytes

175
Q

Describe the relationship of bone calcium to blood calcium

A

if dietary calcium is low, bone calcium is sacrificed to maintain blood calcium

176
Q

Diets high in sodium have been linked in some people to _______.

A

hypertension

177
Q

Hypertension is very common in Canada, affecting ______ of adults

A

1/5

178
Q

What food group provides the best sources of calcium and phosphorus?

A

dairy

179
Q

What food groups are most important to the DASH eating plan?

A

fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, whole grains

180
Q

Describe the loss of bone mass in adulthood

A

it begins for men and women in adulthood, typically around age 35

181
Q

What inceases calcium absorption?

A

pregnancy

182
Q

Whether an element is classified as a major mineral or a trace element is deterined by

A

the amounts needed daily by the body

183
Q

Which food group provides the largest variety of minerals?

A

meat and beans

184
Q

The most abundant mineral in the body is _______.

A

calcium

185
Q

What is the best indicator of iron stores in the body?

A

ferritin

186
Q

Most of the salt consumed by Canadians is

A

adde to food during processing and manufacturing

187
Q

During bone remodelling, what cells build bone?

A

osteoblasts

188
Q

Describe iron RDAs

A

the RDA for young women is higher than the RDA for young adult men

189
Q

Iron is transported in what protein?

A

blood transferrin

190
Q

What is beriberi deficiency disease related to?

A

thiamin

191
Q

Milk and cheese are good sources of

A

riboflavin, cobalamin

192
Q

What is not found in any grains, legumes, vegetables or fruits?

A

cobalamin

193
Q

Deficiency in ________ and ________ causes metabolastic anemia

A

folate, cobalamin

194
Q

Deficiency in ______ causes irreversible nerve damage

A

cobalamin

195
Q

Toxicity in ______ includes permanent numbness/tingling in fingers/toes

A

pyridoxine

196
Q

Pellagra deficiency disease is related to

A

niacin

197
Q

What’s the cofactor in reactions including amino acids?

A

pyridoxine

198
Q

What is osteomalacia deficiency disease related to?

A

cholecalciferol

199
Q

Seeds/nuts and plant oils are good sources of

A

alpha tocopherol

200
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D?

A

calcitriol

201
Q

What deficiency causes hemolytic anemia?

A

alpha tocopherol

202
Q

What deficiency causes night blindness?

A

retinol

203
Q

What toxicity involves skin rash, enlarged liver, and increased risk of bone fractures?

A

retinoic acid

Nutrition Final (1 decks)

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