Final Flashcards

1
Q

The ____ _____ _____ ____ regulates the underground disposal of wastes in deep wells.

A

The Safe Drinking Water Act regulates the underground disposal of wastes in deep wells.

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2
Q

Powder or tablets of ____ ____ are usually used to disinfect gravel packing.

A

Powder or tablets of calcium hypochlorite are usually used to disinfect gravel packing.

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3
Q

A chlorine concentration of ___ mg/L is typically used to disinfect a well prior to bringing it online.

A

A chlorine concentration of 50 mg/L is typically used to disinfect a well prior to bringing it online.

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4
Q

In general, every __ units of EC represents 6 to 7 mg/L of dissolved solids.

A

In general, every 10 units of EC represents 6 to 7 mg/L of dissolved solids.

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5
Q

____ ____ getting plugged is the most common operational problem of wells.

A

Well screens getting plugged is the most common operational problem of wells.

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6
Q

Testing the well’s capacity is the ____ step in well construction.

A

Testing the well’s capacity is the last step in well construction.

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7
Q

For a well drilled into an unconfined aquifer, the capacity test normally runs for ____ hours.

A

For a well drilled into an unconfined aquifer, the capacity test normally runs for 72 hours.

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8
Q

Reducing the demand on the water supply will help to ensure it is ____.

A

Reducing the demand on the water supply will help to ensure it is sustainable.

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9
Q

Water ____ increasing will make tastes and odors more noticeable to the customers.

A

Water temperature increasing will make tastes and odors more noticeable to the customers.

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10
Q

25 to 30% is the conservation goal in a Stage ____ drought or emergency.

A

25 to 30% is the conservation goal in a Stage III drought or emergency.

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11
Q

A Stage IV drought or emergency goal for water conservation is more than ____%

A

A Stage IV drought or emergency goal for water conservation is more than 50%

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12
Q

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates the ____, ____, ____, and ____ of hazardous wastes.

A

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates the storage, transportation, treatment, and disposal of hazardous wastes.

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13
Q

The normal pH range of ground water is ___ to ___.

A

The normal pH range of ground water is 6.0 to 8.5.

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14
Q

The normal pH range of surface water is ___ to ___.

A

The normal pH range of surface water is 6.5 to 8.5.

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15
Q

____ is when water moves from leaves, grasses, and other plants to the atmosphere.

A

Transpiration is when water moves from leaves, grasses, and other plants to the atmosphere.

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16
Q

____ is the term used to describe cloud formation.

A

Condensation is the term used to describe cloud formation.

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17
Q

____ is a radioactive gas.

A

Radon is a radioactive gas.

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18
Q

Blue-green algae is the most ____ form of algae.

A

Blue-green algae is the most toxic form of algae.

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19
Q

The water table is at the top of the ____ zone.

A

The water table is at the top of the saturation zone.

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20
Q

A ____ well is most commonly used near the shore of lakes and rivers.

A

A Radial well is most commonly used near the shore of lakes and rivers.

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21
Q

Groundwater ____ of surface water will keep a stream flowing without any surface runoff.

A

Groundwater augmentation of surface water will keep a stream flowing without any surface runoff.

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22
Q

Water channels from flowing water are more likely to form in ____ than sand or gravel.

A

Water channels from flowing water are more likely to form in limestone than sand or gravel.

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23
Q

Agricultural activities are most likely to contaminate a water source with ____, ____, and ____.

A

Agricultural activities are most likely to contaminate a water source with pesticides, herbicides, and nitrates.

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24
Q

Reservoir ____ has the largest impact on the effectiveness of copper sulfate.

A

Reservoir Alkalinity has the largest impact on the effectiveness of copper sulfate.

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25
Q

< __ mg/L is the optimum alkalinity range for copper sulfate control of algae.

A

< 50 mg/L is the optimum alkalinity range for copper sulfate control of algae.

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26
Q

____ is where the water which has evaporated moves through the air.

A

Advection is where the water which has evaporated moves through the air.

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27
Q

The ____ will be the first zone of a reservoir to become anaerobic.

A

The Hypolimnion will be the first zone of a reservoir to become anaerobic.

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28
Q

____ streams flow only occasionally.

A

Ephemeral streams flow only occasionally.

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29
Q

Radium is the most common ____ in water.

A

Radium is the most common radionuclide in water.

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30
Q

The ____ of an aquifer material determines how much water it can hold.

A

The porosity of an aquifer material determines how much water it can hold.

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31
Q

____ ____ and ____ ____ are most likely to contaminate a water source with nitrates, sulfates, organic compounds (solvents), sodium, and microbiological contaminants.

A

Septic tanks and leach fields are most likely to contaminate a water source with nitrates, sulfates, organic compounds (solvents), sodium, and microbiological contaminants.

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32
Q

A bored well can range in depth between ___ and ___ feet under acceptable ground conditions.

A

A bored well can range in depth between 25 and 60 feet under acceptable ground conditions.

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33
Q

The ____ ____ should be held constant while performing a pumping test of a new water supply well.

A

The pumping rate should be held constant while performing a pumping test of a new water supply well.

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34
Q

Destratifying a reservoir will help control ____.

A

Destratifying a reservoir will help control algae.

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35
Q

The ____ mussel attaches to boats which spreads them around.

A

The Zebra mussel attaches to boats which spreads them around.

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36
Q

Sand and Gravel are considered ____. Limestone and Fractured rock are ____ materials.

A

Sand and Gravel are considered unconsolidated. Limestone and Fractured rock are consolidated materials.

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37
Q

____ radiation consists of flying electrons.

A

Beta radiation consists of flying electrons.

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38
Q

____ radiation is considered a ray that is made up of photons.

A

Gamma radiation is considered a ray that is made up of photons.

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39
Q

____ is a gas that is released from the water supply as a vapor. It can then enter the lungs and cause lung cancer.

A

Radon is a gas that is released from the water supply as a vapor. It can then enter the lungs and cause lung cancer.

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40
Q

The most common solution feeder used for liquid coagulants and coagulant aids is the _______ pump.

A

The most common solution feeder used for liquid coagulants and coagulant aids is the metering pump.

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41
Q

Chemical metering pumps are positive displacement pumps. Common types include: ________, ________, and _____.

A

Chemical metering pumps are positive displacement pumps. Common types include: peristaltic, diaphragm, and piston.

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42
Q

Alum works best in a pH range of __ to ___

A

Alum works best in a pH range of 5.8 to 8.5

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43
Q

______ ______ is often used with lime softening.

A

Ferric sulfate is often used with lime softening.

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44
Q

The major advantage for using activated silica is that it will ________ the floc.

A

The major advantage for using activated silica is that it will strengthen the floc.

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45
Q

Sodium aluminate _______ coagulation when used with alum.

A

Sodium aluminate improves coagulation when used with alum.

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46
Q

Settleable solids will settle unaided to the bottom of a sedimentation basin within __ hours.

A

Settleable solids will settle unaided to the bottom of a sedimentation basin within 4 hours.

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47
Q

The _____ ________ measures the number of excess electrons found on the surface of all particulate matter in a water solution.

A

The zeta potential measures the number of excess electrons found on the surface of all particulate matter in a water solution.

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48
Q

A disadvantage of ________ pumps is that they require periodic flexible tubing replacement.

A

A disadvantage of peristaltic pumps is that they require periodic flexible tubing replacement.

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49
Q

Currently, the most frequently diagnosed waterborne diseases in the United States are ____________ and ___________.

A

Currently, the most frequently diagnosed waterborne diseases in the United States are Cryptosporidiosis and Giardiasis.

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50
Q

The Giardia disease is most likely to be transmitted by ______-__-______ contact.

A

The Giardia disease is most likely to be transmitted by person-to-person contact.

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51
Q

All suspended matter in water is called ______.

A

All suspended matter in water is called Turbidity.

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52
Q

When using copper sulfate to control algae, ___ mg/L is the safe dosage for most species of fish.

A

When using copper sulfate to control algae, 0.5 mg/L is the safe dosage for most species of fish.

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53
Q

Addition of ____, ______ ____, or _______ __________ may be required to aid the coagulation and flocculation of waters low in Alkalinity.

A

Addition of lime, caustic soda, or sodium bicarbonate may be required to aid the coagulation and flocculation of waters low in Alkalinity.

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54
Q

Zeta potential is the natural electrical force which keeps _______ particles apart in water treatment.

A

Zeta potential is the natural electrical force which keeps colloidal particles apart in water treatment.

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55
Q

There are 4 zones in all conventional sedimentation basins. 1 _______ zone; 2 _______ zone; 3 _______ zone; and 4 ______ zone.

A

There are 4 zones in all conventional sedimentation basins. 1 Influent zone; 2 Settling zone; 3 Effluent zone; and 4 Sludge zone.

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56
Q

Mechanical sludge removal equipment in sedimentation basins should be drained and inspected ____ a year.

A

Mechanical sludge removal equipment in sedimentation basins should be drained and inspected once a year.

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57
Q

The turbidity of settled water before it is applied to the filters (post sedimentation process) be kept below _ to _ ntu.

A

The turbidity of settled water before it is applied to the filters (post sedimentation process) be kept below 1 to 2 ntu.

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58
Q

The _________ _____ is particularly affected by the other zones in a sedimentation basin.

A

The settling zone is particularly affected by the other zones in a sedimentation basin.

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59
Q

The material that accumulates on the surface of a dissolved air flotation unit is called _____.

A

The material that accumulates on the surface of a dissolved air flotation unit is called float.

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60
Q

The solids concentration in solid-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters should be determined at least _____ per day.

A

The solids concentration in solid-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters should be determined at least twice per day.

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61
Q

The ______ ______ collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin.

A

The effluent launder collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin.

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62
Q

The typical filter run time for a high-rate filter system is between __ and __ hours. 24 hours is an average high-rate filter run time.

A

The typical filter run time for a high-rate filter system is between 12 and 36 hours. 24 hours is an average high-rate filter run time.

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63
Q

The action of straining suspended particles plays a ______ role during filtration. Filtration depends on a combination of physical and chemical mechanisms, ________ being the most important.

A

The action of straining suspended particles plays a minor role during filtration. Filtration depends on a combination of physical and chemical mechanisms, adsorption being the most important.

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64
Q

A diatomaceous earth filter uses _________ for filtration.

A

A diatomaceous earth filter uses pressure for filtration.

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65
Q

Coating the sides of uncovered sedimentation basins with ______ ______ and _____ can eliminate slime growths.

A

Coating the sides of uncovered sedimentation basins with copper sulfate and lime can eliminate slime growths.

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66
Q

Operators that run a _________ ____ _________ process have as their objective the production of pinfloc for easier floatation and removal.

A

Operators that run a dissolved air floatation process have as their objective the production of pinfloc for easier floatation and removal.

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67
Q

The filtration media in a slow sand filter is _________.

A

The filtration media in a slow sand filter is unstratified.

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68
Q

_ to _% of the water produced by a conventional rapid sand filter is used for backwashing.

A

2 to 4% of the water produced by a conventional rapid sand filter is used for backwashing.

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69
Q

______ plates are usually inclined 45 degrees.

A

Lamella plates are usually inclined 45 degrees.

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70
Q

The ___________ process is eliminated by direct filtration.

A

The sedimentation process is eliminated by direct filtration.

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71
Q

A backwash rate that is too ____ can cause gravel displacement which can lead to a ____ ____.

A

A backwash rate that is too high can cause gravel displacement which can lead to a sand boil.

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72
Q

When treating low turbidity water and operating a filter for one week between backwashes, _____ __________ may still occur even though the water quality is high.

A

When treating low turbidity water and operating a filter for one week between backwashes, floc breakthrough may still occur even though the water quality is high.

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73
Q

High-rate filters operate in the range of __ to __ gpm/ft2

A

High-rate filters operate in the range of 3.0 to 8.0 gpm/ft2

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74
Q

A difference in _______ between anthracite and sand causes the anthracite to remain on top of the sand following a backwash. Sand has a higher _______ than anthracite.

A

A difference in density between anthracite and sand causes the anthracite to remain on top of the sand following a backwash. Sand has a higher density than anthracite.

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75
Q

_________ tube settlers are inclined about 5 degrees

A

Horizontal tube settlers are inclined about 5 degrees

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76
Q

Biological methods of treating drinking water may introduce _________ _________ and other _______ by-products into the finished water if not designed and operated properly.

A

Biological methods of treating drinking water may introduce pathogenic organisms and other harmful by-products into the finished water if not designed and operated properly.

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77
Q

Direct filtration is used to treat raw water that has average turbidities ≤ __ ntu

A

Direct filtration is used to treat raw water that has average turbidities ≤ 25 ntu

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78
Q

Diatomaceous earth filters are used only for water with ____ turbidity levels.

A

Diatomaceous earth filters are used only for water with low turbidity levels.

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79
Q

The _______ ________ adsorptive effect of granular activated carbon (GAC) is limited when used above a layer of sand in a high rate filter because the water being filtered has limited contact time with the GAC.

A

The organic compound adsorptive effect of granular activated carbon (GAC) is limited when used above a layer of sand in a high rate filter because the water being filtered has limited contact time with the GAC.

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80
Q

An advantage of controlling a filter based on a “_______ _______-_____” is that it doesn’t require a rate-of-flow controller.

A

An advantage of controlling a filter based on a “variable declining-rate” is that it doesn’t require a rate-of-flow controller.

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81
Q

Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units are fitted with a ___-___-_____ alarm that alerts the wearer to leave the contaminated site.

A

Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units are fitted with a low-air-pressure alarm that alerts the wearer to leave the contaminated site.

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82
Q

The purpose of the ______ _____ valve in the line going to the chlorine injector is to shut off chlorine gas flow in case of a leak.

A

The purpose of the vacuum relief valve in the line going to the chlorine injector is to shut off chlorine gas flow in case of a leak.

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83
Q

The _______ creates the vacuum that is required to operate the chlorinator.

A

The Injector creates the vacuum that is required to operate the chlorinator.

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84
Q

The maximum chlorine gas withdrawal rate from a one-ton container at 70°F is ____ lb/d.

A

The maximum chlorine gas withdrawal rate from a one-ton container at 70°F is 400 lb/d.

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85
Q

To permit maximum withdrawal rate when opening a chlorine cylinder valve, open only ____ ____.

A

To permit maximum withdrawal rate when opening a chlorine cylinder valve, open only one turn.

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86
Q

________ _______ are the organisms used to indicate the likelihood that pathogenic bacteria may be present.

A

Coliform bacteria are the organisms used to indicate the likelihood that pathogenic bacteria may be present.

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87
Q

_________ ___________ should be fed as early as possible in the treatment process to allow for complete reaction before it enters the distribution system.

A

Potassium permanganate should be fed as early as possible in the treatment process to allow for complete reaction before it enters the distribution system.Potassium permanganate should be fed as early as possible in the treatment process to allow for comp

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88
Q

The two most important factors impacting the effectiveness of chlorination are ___________ of chlorine and _______ _____.

A

The two most important factors impacting the effectiveness of chlorination are concentration of chlorine and contact time.

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89
Q

The flexible copper tubing that connects a 150-lb chlorine cylinder to a manifold should be rated at ___ psi.

A

The flexible copper tubing that connects a 150-lb chlorine cylinder to a manifold should be rated at 500 psi.

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90
Q

The most common water quality complaint for most utilities is _____ and _____.

A

The most common water quality complaint for most utilities is taste and odors.

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91
Q

_________ ___________ could cause pink water problems.

A

Potassium permanganate could cause pink water problems.

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92
Q

Infectious hepatitis is caused by a type of _____.

A

Infectious hepatitis is caused by a type of virus.

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93
Q

Chlorine supply lines be replaced ______ _____.

A

Chlorine supply lines be replaced every year.

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94
Q

Potassium permanganate should be fed ______ chlorine.

A

Potassium permanganate should be fed before chlorine.

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95
Q

Ozone generally lasts a few ______ to a few ______ when it is dissolved in water for disinfection purposes.

A

Ozone generally lasts a few seconds to a few minutes when it is dissolved in water for disinfection purposes.

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96
Q

One-ton chlorine containers are equipped with two valves, one for _____ and one for ___.

A

One-ton chlorine containers are equipped with two valves, one for liquid and one for gas.

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97
Q

Chlorine cylinders stored outside should be stored on ______ ____ to help prevent corrosion.

A

Chlorine cylinders stored outside should be stored on elevated racks to help prevent corrosion.

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98
Q

______ _______ (__) is applied to the electrodes used for cathodic protection of a water storage tank.

A

Direct current (DC) is applied to the electrodes used for cathodic protection of a water storage tank.

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99
Q

Following maintenance on a water storage tank, the tank must be disinfected and a ________ test must be performed. The bacteriological test must be negative before the tank is placed in service.

A

Following maintenance on a water storage tank, the tank must be disinfected and a Coliform test must be performed. The bacteriological test must be negative before the tank is placed in service.

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100
Q

Water age in the distribution system is the lowest in the ____ _______.

A

Water age in the distribution system is the lowest in the late evening.

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101
Q

The pressure at the bottom of a tank is solely due to the height of the water level above the bottom of the tank. Tank diameter does not impact the _______ at the bottom of the tank.

A

The pressure at the bottom of a tank is solely due to the height of the water level above the bottom of the tank. Tank diameter does not impact the pressure at the bottom of the tank.

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102
Q

Stored water age in the distribution system is the highest during ____ _______.

A

Stored water age in the distribution system is the highest during early morning.

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103
Q

______ _____ pipe is durable, strong, has high flexural strength, is corrosion resistant, and is easily tapped.

A

Ductile iron pipe is durable, strong, has high flexural strength, is corrosion resistant, and is easily tapped.

104
Q

Frequent starting of distribution system pumps is an indication of __________ system ______.

A

Frequent starting of distribution system pumps is an indication of inadequate system storage.

105
Q

_________ water storage tanks may contain non-potable water.

A

Emergency water storage tanks may contain non-potable water.

106
Q

A sight glass attached to a water tank indicates the water level in the tank due to the _________ surface in the sight glass.

A

A sight glass attached to a water tank indicates the water level in the tank due to the Piezometric surface in the sight glass.

107
Q

Steel pipe can be connected using one of the following: ________ sleeve coupling, _______ gasket joints, ______ joints, ______ joints, and ________ joints.

A

Steel pipe can be connected using one of the following: mechanical sleeve coupling, rubber gasket joints, welded joints, flanged joints, and expansion joints.

108
Q

_______ or __________ joints connecting ductile iron pipe are used: where flexibility is required

A

Push-on or mechanical joints connecting ductile iron pipe are used: where flexibility is required

109
Q

________ _______ pipe has the lowest maximum working pressure rating (200 psi) of all piping commonly used for public water systems.

A

Polyvinyl chloride pipe has the lowest maximum working pressure rating (200 psi) of all piping commonly used for public water systems.

110
Q

________ ________ provides the highest degree of external corrosion protection for steel pipe.

A

Cathodic protection provides the highest degree of external corrosion protection for steel pipe.

111
Q

_________ concrete pipe comes in diameters as large as 168 inches (14 ft).

A

Reinforced concrete pipe comes in diameters as large as 168 inches (14 ft).

112
Q

__________ concrete pipe comes in diameters as large as 144 inches (12 ft).

A

Prestressed concrete pipe comes in diameters as large as 144 inches (12 ft).

113
Q

________ cement pipe can no longer be used for public water supplies.

A

Asbestos cement pipe can no longer be used for public water supplies.

114
Q

The pressure rating of distribution system piping should be ___ to ___ times the normal operating pressure.

A

The pressure rating of distribution system piping should be 2.5 to 4.0 times the normal operating pressure.

115
Q

A movable follower ring is used with a _________ pipe joint.

A

A movable follower ring is used with a mechanical pipe joint.

116
Q

_______ ______ piping using solvent weld joints is only appropriate for small diameter pipe installations.

A

Polyvinyl chloride piping using solvent weld joints is only appropriate for small diameter pipe installations.

117
Q

_______ ____ joints are used to connect ductile iron pipe in very rugged terrain or for river crossings.

A

Flexible ball joints are used to connect ductile iron pipe in very rugged terrain or for river crossings.

118
Q

Concrete pipe is joined by a _________ _____ _____ or a ____-____-____ type of joint with elastomeric gaskets.

A

Concrete pipe is joined by a galvanized steel ring or a bell-and-spigot type of joint with elastomeric gaskets.

119
Q

______ ______ is the resistance of a material to longitudinal pulling forces before it breaks.

A

Tensile strength is the resistance of a material to longitudinal pulling forces before it breaks.

120
Q

Pipe strength is expressed as _______ strength (bend strength) and _______ strength (resistance to longitudinal pulling forces).

A

Pipe strength is expressed as flexural strength (bend strength) and tensile strength (resistance to longitudinal pulling forces).

121
Q

Ductile iron pipe can be joined using the following joints: _______ joint, __________ joint, ______ joint, ______ ball joint, _______ joint.

A

Ductile iron pipe can be joined using the following joints: push-on joint, mechanical joint, flanged joint, flexible ball joint, restrained joint.

122
Q

High-density polyethylene (HDPE) pipe is connected using a _______ ____-_____ joining method that melts/welds the two pipes together.

A

High-density polyethylene (HDPE) pipe is connected using a thermal butt-fusion joining method that melts/welds the two pipes together.

123
Q

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) pipe can be joined by ____-____-_____ type of joints or ______ ____ joints for small diameter pipe.

A

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) pipe can be joined by bell-and-spigot type of joints or solvent weld joints for small diameter pipe.

124
Q

A ______ joint consists of two machined surfaces that are bolted together with a gasket between them to make the seal.

A

A flanged joint consists of two machined surfaces that are bolted together with a gasket between them to make the seal.

125
Q

____-____-_____ joints allow for up to 15 degrees of deflection and come in bolted and boltless designs.

A

Ball-and-socket joints allow for up to 15 degrees of deflection and come in bolted and boltless designs.

126
Q

_______ joints allow for flexible pipe alignment, are inexpensive to manufacture, and are easy to assemble.

A

Push-on joints allow for flexible pipe alignment, are inexpensive to manufacture, and are easy to assemble.

127
Q

A _________ joint is a bolted clamp joint with a rubber gasket that joins two pieces of pipe with machined ends together.

A

A shouldered joint is a bolted clamp joint with a rubber gasket that joins two pieces of pipe with machined ends together.

128
Q

______ ____ pipe has the highest normal maximum working pressure of the pipe commonly used.

A

Ductile iron pipe has the highest normal maximum working pressure of the pipe commonly used.

129
Q

_______ piping using bell and spigot type joints is appropriate for installation in all locations.

A

Concrete piping using bell and spigot type joints is appropriate for installation in all locations.

130
Q

The most common cause of a leaking pipe joint following installation is due to failing to ___________ _______ the joint surfaces prior to making the connection.

A

The most common cause of a leaking pipe joint following installation is due to failing to completely clean the joint surfaces prior to making the connection.

131
Q

Average soils require an angle of repose of ___ to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

A

Average soils require an angle of repose of 1:1 to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

132
Q

Compacted sharp sand requires an angle of repose of ____ to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

A

Compacted sharp sand requires an angle of repose of 1½ :1 to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

133
Q

Well rounded loose sand requires an angle of repose of ____ to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

A

Well rounded loose sand requires an angle of repose of 2:1 to prevent a trench cave-in (horizontal distance : vertical distance)

134
Q

PVC pipe should not be stacked more than ___ feet high when stacked loosely.

A

PVC pipe should not be stacked more than 3 feet high when stacked loosely.

135
Q

When laying bell and spigot connecting (push-on joint) pipe on a hill with a slope greater than ____, it is easier to install when the bells are on the uphill side.

A

When laying bell and spigot connecting (push-on joint) pipe on a hill with a slope greater than 6%, it is easier to install when the bells are on the uphill side.

136
Q

The hydraulic force called ______ caused by a water surge almost always acts _____________ to the inside surface that it pushes against.

A

The hydraulic force called thrust caused by a water surge almost always acts perpendicular to the inside surface that it pushes against.

137
Q

Restraining fittings are _______ _______ devices used in locations where there are a lot of existing utilities or structures.

A

Restraining fittings are thrust control devices used in locations where there are a lot of existing utilities or structures.

138
Q

Backfill material for a pipe installation should contain enough ________ to allow for thorough __________.

A

Backfill material for a pipe installation should contain enough moisture to allow for thorough compaction.

139
Q

Casing pipe used to enclose a large diameter water main under a railroad crossing should have a diameter that is ___ to ___ inches larger than the outside diameter of the water main bells.

A

Casing pipe used to enclose a large diameter water main under a railroad crossing should have a diameter that is 2 to 8 inches larger than the outside diameter of the water main bells.

140
Q

A _____ valve is useful for throttling flow of corrosive liquids.

A

A pinch valve is useful for throttling flow of corrosive liquids.

141
Q

Fire hydrants should not be installed on a water main that is less than _ inches in diameter.

A

Fire hydrants should not be installed on a water main that is less than 6 inches in diameter.

142
Q

A __________ ______ is used for connecting a service line to the water main.

A

A corporation stop is used for connecting a service line to the water main.

143
Q

A _______ valve should be installed at dead-end water mains to allow for flushing.

A

A blowoff valve should be installed at dead-end water mains to allow for flushing.

144
Q

Most water systems use hydrants that have two nozzles with diameters of ___ inches and one nozzle with a diameter of ___ inches.

A

Most water systems use hydrants that have two nozzles with diameters of 2.5 inches and one nozzle with a diameter of 4.5 inches.

145
Q

The residual pressure in a large main should be greater than __ psi during a fire flow event.

A

The residual pressure in a large main should be greater than 20 psi during a fire flow event.

146
Q

A ______ valve is commonly used on hydraulic lines connected to valve actuators.

A

A needle valve is commonly used on hydraulic lines connected to valve actuators.

147
Q

An ___-____-_____ _____ valve will break a vacuum to prevent pipe collapse as well as vent air from high points in the system.

A

An air-and-vacuum relief valve will break a vacuum to prevent pipe collapse as well as vent air from high points in the system.

148
Q

Siphoned water can be lifted ____ ft at sea level.

A

Siphoned water can be lifted 33.9 ft at sea level.

149
Q

The correct protective methods for backflow-prevention devices in order of most effective to least effective is: ____ ____, ____, DCVA, VB.

A

The correct protective methods for backflow-prevention devices in order of most effective to least effective is: air gap, RPZ, DCVA, VB.

150
Q

If backsiphonage occurs with a reduced-pressure device and the pressure drops below 2 psi, the relief valve will open and create an ____ ____ between the check valves causing them to close.

A

If backsiphonage occurs with a reduced-pressure device and the pressure drops below 2 psi, the relief valve will open and create an air gap between the check valves causing them to close.

151
Q

____ is measured in feet.

A

Head is measured in feet.

152
Q

It is best to use a ______ type of impeller for pumping water with a low volume of solids.

A

It is best to use a closed type of impeller for pumping water with a low volume of solids.

153
Q

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to __ feet of water head (14.7 psi ÷ 0.433 ft/psi = 33.9 ft).

A

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to 34 feet of water head (14.7 psi ÷ 0.433 ft/psi = 33.9 ft).

154
Q

The study of fluids in motion is called _________.

A

The study of fluids in motion is called hydraulics.

155
Q

________ (flow rate with units of gpm) is plotted on the horizontal axis of a pump curve.

A

Capacity (flow rate with units of gpm) is plotted on the horizontal axis of a pump curve.

156
Q

_____ (with units of feet) is plotted on the vertical axis of a pump curve.

A

Head (with units of feet) is plotted on the vertical axis of a pump curve.

157
Q

The resistance of a material to the flow of electrical current is measured in _____.

A

The resistance of a material to the flow of electrical current is measured in Ohms.

158
Q

The speed of a variable speed pump should be monitored to prevent _________ from occurring.

A

The speed of a variable speed pump should be monitored to prevent cavitation from occurring.

159
Q

The _____ ___________ must be determined first when designing a pump station.

A

The head requirements must be determined first when designing a pump station.

160
Q

Centrifugal pumps with ______ _____ impellers are the type most commonly used by water systems

A

Centrifugal pumps with radial flow impellers are the type most commonly used by water systems

161
Q

_______ ______ is the amount of energy in feet required to overcome resistance to flow in a pipe.

A

Friction head is the amount of energy in feet required to overcome resistance to flow in a pipe.

162
Q

An ____ ________ pump has the ability to rotate its discharge 360°.

A

An end suction pump has the ability to rotate its discharge 360°.

163
Q

The temperature of centrifugal pump motor ________ should be checked with a thermometer once a _____.

A

The temperature of centrifugal pump motor bearings should be checked with a thermometer once a month.

164
Q

The _______ _____ houses the packing and lantern ring in a centrifugal pump.

A

The stuffing box houses the packing and lantern ring in a centrifugal pump.

165
Q

The _______ _____ is at the top of the stuffing box and can be tightened or loosened to control packing leakage.

A

The packing gland is at the top of the stuffing box and can be tightened or loosened to control packing leakage.

166
Q

A _______ _____ is used to prevent air leakage along the pump shaft when it is operating under suction lift conditions.

A

A lantern ring is used to prevent air leakage along the pump shaft when it is operating under suction lift conditions.

167
Q

A ________ _____ is used in place of packing when the pump suction pressure is ≥ 60 psi.

A

A mechanical seal is used in place of packing when the pump suction pressure is ≥ 60 psi.

168
Q

The heart of a pump is called the _______.

A

The heart of a pump is called the impeller.

169
Q

The first oil change on a newly installed pump should be performed after __ month of operation.

A

The first oil change on a newly installed pump should be performed after 1 month of operation.

170
Q

Large water meters are usually tested at __% to __% of their operating range.

A

Large water meters are usually tested at 5% to 10% of their operating range.

171
Q

The two main functions of the meter yoke are to ensure proper _________ of the meter and to provide _______ for the meter.

A

The two main functions of the meter yoke are to ensure proper alignment of the meter and to provide support for the meter.

172
Q

Water meter pits are usually installed in _____ climates to allow for meter installation below the frost line.

A

Water meter pits are usually installed in cold climates to allow for meter installation below the frost line.

173
Q

The meter riser pipe should be __ to __ inches from all walls of the meter box in areas where frost is expected to avoid freezing.

A

The meter riser pipe should be 1 to 2 inches from all walls of the meter box in areas where frost is expected to avoid freezing.

174
Q

The _______ plate and _______ meters are two types of meters that use differential pressure to measure flow rate.

A

The orifice plate and venturi meters are two types of meters that use differential pressure to measure flow rate.

175
Q

Very small chlorine leaks are usually found by an operator seeing ___________ and ________ at the leak point.

A

Very small chlorine leaks are usually found by an operator seeing discoloration and moisture at the leak point.

176
Q

The __________ __________ is responsible for summoning rescuers if a problem occurs during a permit-required confined space entry.

A

The Authorized Attendant is responsible for summoning rescuers if a problem occurs during a permit-required confined space entry.

177
Q

The _____ _________ is responsible for terminating permit-required confined space entries.

A

The Entry Supervisor is responsible for terminating permit-required confined space entries.

178
Q

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) kills a person by _________ the __________ system.

A

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) kills a person by paralyzing the respiratory system.

179
Q

The IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) value for chlorine, set by the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, is ___ ppm.

A

The IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) value for chlorine, set by the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, is 10 ppm.

180
Q

____ and/or _________ in a water supply can discolor laundry, cause a bad taste in the water, and cause taste problems in beverages such as coffee and tea.

A

Iron and/or Manganese in a water supply can discolor laundry, cause a bad taste in the water, and cause taste problems in beverages such as coffee and tea.

181
Q

Water systems that collect less than __ coliform samples each month can have 1 positive sample and remain in compliance.

A

Water systems that collect less than 40 coliform samples each month can have 1 positive sample and remain in compliance.

182
Q

The maximum contaminant level for bromate is _____ mg/L.

A

The maximum contaminant level for bromate is 0.010 mg/L.

183
Q

____ _______ is the best available technology for removing radium-226 and radium-228 from a water supply.

A

Lime softening is the best available technology for removing radium-226 and radium-228 from a water supply.

184
Q

Water systems must provide at least _____ removal or inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.

A

Water systems must provide at least 3-log removal or inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.

185
Q

Water systems must provide at least ____ removal or inactivation of viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.

A

Water systems must provide at least 4-log removal or inactivation of viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.

186
Q

Color gives the water an unappealing appearance and indicates that _______ _______ may be present.

A

Color gives the water an unappealing appearance and indicates that dissolved organics may be present.

187
Q

For water systems using conventional treatment or direct filtration, the turbidity level of representative samples of a system’s filtered water must be less than or equal to ___ NTU in at least 95% of the samples collected each month.

A

For water systems using conventional treatment or direct filtration, the turbidity level of representative samples of a system’s filtered water must be less than or equal to 0.3 NTU in at least 95% of the samples collected each month.

188
Q

A public water system that does not provide filtration must have a disinfection concentration in the distribution system, measured as total chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide, which cannot be undetectable in more than _% of the samples each

A

A public water system that does not provide filtration must have a disinfection concentration in the distribution system, measured as total chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide, which cannot be undetectable in more than 5% of the samples each

189
Q

Systems using diatomaceous earth filtration are required to have turbidity levels ___ ntu in __% of the measurements collected each month.

A

Systems using diatomaceous earth filtration are required to have turbidity levels ≤1.0 ntu in 95% of the measurements collected each month.

190
Q

Lab analysis of pH, turbidity, temperature, and residual disinfectant concentrations must be performed by a person approved by the ____.

A

Lab analysis of pH, turbidity, temperature, and residual disinfectant concentrations must be performed by a person approved by the state.

191
Q

Either the _____ or a _____ _______ certifies water treatment plant laboratories for the measurement of total coliforms, fecal coliforms, and heterotrophic plate counts.

A

Either the USEPA or a state agency certifies water treatment plant laboratories for the measurement of total coliforms, fecal coliforms, and heterotrophic plate counts.

192
Q

The time from sample collection to initiation of the fecal coliform analysis may not exceed _ hours.

A

The time from sample collection to initiation of the fecal coliform analysis may not exceed 8 hours.

193
Q

Samples to be analyzed for total coliforms by the total coliform Fermentation Technique, must be kept below __ degrees Celsius during transit.

A

Samples to be analyzed for total coliforms by the total coliform Fermentation Technique, must be kept below 10 degrees Celsius during transit.

194
Q

Utilities collecting samples more frequently than annually for inorganic contaminants determine MCL compliance by calculating a ______ ______ _______ at each compliance sample point.

A

Utilities collecting samples more frequently than annually for inorganic contaminants determine MCL compliance by calculating a running annual average at each compliance sample point.

195
Q

A Tier _ violation poses immediate risk to public health and requires a clear notification to the public within __ ______ of learning of the violation.

A

A Tier I violation poses immediate risk to public health and requires a clear notification to the public within 24 hours of learning of the violation.

196
Q

A Tier _ violation requires the water system to notify its customers as soon as possible, but within 30 days of learning of the violation and continue ________ notifications as long as the violation persists.

A

A Tier II violation requires the water system to notify its customers as soon as possible, but within 30 days of learning of the violation and continue quarterly notifications as long as the violation persists.

197
Q

A Tier _ violation requires the public water system to notify its customers within 12 months of learning of the violation. This may be accomplished by including the violation in the ________ _________ Report

A

A Tier III violation requires the public water system to notify its customers within 12 months of learning of the violation. This may be accomplished by including the violation in the Consumer Confidence Report

198
Q

Water systems avoiding filtration of source water must show that the turbidity of the source water immediately before the initial point of disinfection has not exceeded __ NTU in __% of the samples analyzed in the previous 6 months.

A

Water systems avoiding filtration of source water must show that the turbidity of the source water immediately before the initial point of disinfection has not exceeded 5.0 NTU in 90% of the samples analyzed in the previous 6 months.

199
Q

Solder or flux is considered lead free if it does not contain more than ___% lead.

A

Solder or flux is considered lead free if it does not contain more than 0.02% lead.

200
Q

Repeat samples for a positive coliform sample are required to be collected within __ hours.

A

Repeat samples for a positive coliform sample are required to be collected within 24 hours.

201
Q

A water system is considered public if it has at least __ service connections or serves __ or more persons __ or more days each year.

A

A water system is considered public if it has at least 15 service connections or serves 25 or more persons 60 or more days each year.

202
Q

Total _______ samples must be collected at sites which are representative of water quality throughout the distribution system according to a written ______ _____ _____ subject to state review and revision.

A

Total coliform samples must be collected at sites which are representative of water quality throughout the distribution system according to a written sample siting plan subject to state review and revision.

203
Q

The turbidity leaving a slow sand filter must be ____ ntu in 95% of the measurements collected each month.

A

The turbidity leaving a slow sand filter must be ≤1.0 ntu in 95% of the measurements collected each month.

204
Q

_ _______ of total coliform samples can be positive, for systems that collect 40 or more samples each month, and the system will remain in compliance.

A

5 percent of total coliform samples can be positive, for systems that collect 40 or more samples each month, and the system will remain in compliance.

205
Q

Systems that collect fewer than 40 total coliform samples each month are allowed _ positive sample without violating the total coliform rule.

A

Systems that collect fewer than 40 total coliform samples each month are allowed 1 positive sample without violating the total coliform rule.

206
Q

The maximum residual disinfection level goal for chlorine is _ ____.

A

The maximum residual disinfection level goal for chlorine is 4 mg/L.

207
Q

Which emergency kit is for chlorine tank trucks?

A

Kit C is used for rail cars and tank trucks.

208
Q

What is the best mechanical compacting equipment for deep narrow trenches so workers don’t have to enter the trench?

A

Boom-mounted
plate tampers

209
Q

From the list of coagulant aids below, choose the one that requires extremely small dosages?

A

Activated silca

210
Q

What type of valve usually serves as the pump suction isolation valve?

A

Gate valve

211
Q

Pure liquid chlorine is _____ times more dense than water?

A

1.5

212
Q

What angle must the plates or tubes be placed at in order to be self-cleaning?

A

Self-cleaning tube or plate settlers are installed at a 50 to 60 degree angle to allow the sludge to slide down and settle to the bottom of the basin.

213
Q

When installing new water main pipe, the trench excavation should extend:

A

the trench excavation should extend just ahead of the pipe laying.

214
Q

When water recirculates within a centrifugal pump casing around the impeller due to a blockage of the pump discharge, this circulation is called:

A

slip

215
Q

The speed of a variable speed pump should be monitored to prevent __________ from occurring.

A

cavitation

216
Q

What is the detention time requirement when disinfecting a storage tank with sodium hypochlorite by filling the tank with chlorinated water so that 10 mg/L of free chlorine remains following the required contact time?

A

24 hours

217
Q

_____ hours of approved training is required to qualify for a Class C Distribution, Groundwater, or Surface water license.

A

60

218
Q

Water systems may be allowed by their state to monitor annually, if the state has determined that the system is reliable and consistently below the maximum contaminant level for organic compounds. When must the water system collect these annual samples?

A

During the quarter which previously yielded the highest analytical result

219
Q

What is the required bolt torque for a mechanical-joint on a standard 48-inch ductile-iron water main?

A

Mechanical joints on ductile iron pipe with a diameter ranging from 42 inches to 48 inches must be torqued to 120 to 150 ft-lb.

220
Q

Which of the following type of chlorine is called HTH?

A

Calcium hypochlorite

221
Q

A __________ valve is a special kind of check valve.

A

foot

222
Q

From the list below, choose which valve will have the highest head loss when fully open?

A

Globe valve

223
Q

The flexible copper tubing that connects a 150-lb chlorine cylinder to a manifold should be rated at

A

500 psi

224
Q

What is the most likely cause of a high vacuum condition in a chlorinator?

A

An empty chlorine container

225
Q

What is the sludge collection ramp called in a dissolved air floatation unit?

A

beach

226
Q

From the list below, choose the most common mistake that operators make regarding flocculation unit operation?

A

excessive flocculation time

227
Q

Scale formation is a problem experienced when hypochlorinating. Where is the scale most likely to form?

A

suction and discharge hoses

228
Q

A thrust block would not be required on pipes that are __________ at the joints.

A

welded

229
Q

The correct protective methods for backflow-prevention devices in order of most effective to least effective is:

A

air gap, RPZ, DCVA, VB.

230
Q

Who should the water system contact to ensure proper disposition of groundwater from a pipe trenching project?

A

local regulatory agency

231
Q

What should the current rating of a fuse that is protecting an electrical circuit be?

A

equal to
or slightly larger than the
current rating

232
Q

A(n) __________ ________ tamper is used for compacting clays, tills, and silts.

A

Irregular drum

233
Q

tampers are used for sand with shallow lifts

A

Hand-controlled plate tampers

234
Q

tampers are used for clays or sand in deep narrow trenches.

A

Boom-mounted plate tampers

235
Q

Which type of coagulant flash mixing is not influenced by plant flow?

A

pump and conduit mixer or a mechanical mixer

236
Q

How long does it take for aluminum ions in alum to neutralize negatively charged particles in raw water?

A

1 to 2 seconds

237
Q

When can a water system that meets the lead and copper action levels for two consecutive six-month periods reduce the number of samples and reduce the sampling frequency so that it is only required to sample every 3 years?

A

90th percentile value for lead is ≤0.005 mg/L and the 90th percentile value for copper is ≤0.65 mg/L.

238
Q

From the valves listed below, choose which type of valve operates similar to a diaphragm valve.

A

globe valve

239
Q

The first layer of backfill, prior to compaction, should come up to:

A

the centerline of the pipe

240
Q

Packing is designed to:

A

wear out over time during normal use.

241
Q

Referring to the numbered points on the chlorine breakpoint curve, where does breakpoint occur?

A

point 4

242
Q

What is equation for Ohm’s Law?

A

Volts = (amps) x (ohms)

243
Q

___________ and __________ forces determine the behavior of electricity.

A

Electric and magnetic forces determine the behavior of electricity.

244
Q

Which chemical oxidant/oxidation process is most effective in reducing taste and odor compounds caused by the actinomycetes species of bacteria?

A

Peroxone

245
Q

What is the most common cause of pressure surges in a distribution system?

A

A pump shutting down due to power failure

246
Q

What determines whether or not colloidal solids will remain in suspension and not agglomerate and settle?

A

The magnitude of the charge on colloidal solids

247
Q

From the list below, choose which valve can go from fully open to fully closed with ¼ turn.

A

Ball valves and plug valves

248
Q

Insulators usually fail because of excessive ____________.

A

heat

249
Q

A _________ joint is primarily used in exposed locations.

A

flanged

250
Q

When using alum as the primary coagulant, the total solids concentration of the sludge produced ranges from _____% to _____%.

A

0.1% to 2.0%

251
Q

Chlorine storage rooms should:

A

have a window in the door to allow for visual inspection without entry.

252
Q

Trivalent coagulants are _____ to _____ times more effective than bivalent coagulants.

A

50 to 60

253
Q

_____ training credit hours may be substituted for 6 months of work experience.

A

20

254
Q

When the natural trench bedding can’t structurally support the pipe, it may be necessary to dig _____ to _____ inches deeper and fill-in with coarse granular material.

A

12 to 24

255
Q

From the list below, which oxidant has the potential to produce Cl03 by-products?

A

Chlorine dioxide