Final Flashcards
The foramen magnum transmits
A) The vertebral arteries
8) The hypogossal nerves
C) The abducent nerves
D) The pons
E) None of the above
A
The superior orbital fissure transmits
A) The optic nerve
B) The ophthalmic artery
C) The trochlear nerve
D) The maxillary nerve
E) None of the above
C
3) At the lower end of the pons, the following nerves are attached;
A) The trigeminal nerves
B) The glossopharyngeal nerves
C) The hypoglossal nerves
D) The abducent nerves
E) None of the above
D
The foramen ovale transmits
A) The maxillary nerve
8) The maxillary artery
C) The middle meningeal artery
D) The mandibular nerve
E) Both the maxillary nerve and the middle meningeal artery
E
The foramen rotundum transmits
A) The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
B) The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
C) The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
D) The trigeminal nerve
E) Has none of the above properties
C
The telencephalon and diencephalon develop
from;
A) The encephalon
B) The metencephalon
C) The rhombencephalon
D) The prosencephalon
E) The mesencephalon
D
The pons and cerebellum are also known collectively as,
A) The metencephalon
B) The prosencephalon
c) The mesencephalon
D) The rhombencephalon
E) The encephalon
D
Which of the following anatomic structures are made up the rhombencephalon, except that
A) The pons
B) The medulla oblongata
C) The cerebellum
D) The mesencephalon
E) Has none of the above properties
D
Which cranial nerve is involved in vision?
Olfactory nerve (1)
B) Optic nerve (11)
C) Oculomotor nerve (III)
D) Trochlear nerve (IV)
E) Abducens nerve (VI)
B
Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expressions?
A) Trigeminal nerve (V)
B) Facial nerve (VII)
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D) Vagus nerve (X)
E) Accessory nerve (XI)
B
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication (chewing)?
A) Facial nerve (VII)
B) Trigeminal nerve (V)
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D) Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
E) Abducens nerve (VI)
B
The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:
A) Motor coordination and balance
B) Language production
C) Emotional regulation
D) Visual processing
E) Memory consolidation
A
Which cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pons?
A) Trigeminal (V) and Facial (VII)
B) Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)
C) Oculomotor (III) and Trochlear (IV)
D) Hypoglossal (XII) and Accessory (XI)
E) Optic (Il) and Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
A
All of the following agents and molecules are known causes of cell injury EXCEPT:
A) Monoxyhemoglobin
B) Alcohol
C) Acetaminophen
D) АТР
E) igG
D
Which of the following ultrastructural features of cell injury are considered irreversible?
A) Myelin figures
B) Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
C) Mitochondrial densities
D) Cytoplasmic vacuoles
E) Pyknotic nuclei
E
KI-67 (MIB-1) index is increased in:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Metaplasia
C) Hyperplasia
D) Atrophy
E) Agenesi
C
Calcification is a prominent component of which of the following pathologic entities?
A) Psammoma bodies
B) Sarcoid granuloma
C) Corpora amylacea
D) Gamna Gandy bodies
E) Kimmeistiel-Wilson lesions
A
The earliest event in acute inflammation is:
A) Vasodilatation
B) Increased vascular permeability
C) Endothelial contraction
D) Leukocyte margination
E) Increased hydrostatic pressure
A
All of the followings are signs of reversible cell injury; except:
A) Loss of microvilli
B) Cell Swelling
C) Bleb formation
D) Dense Mitochondrial deposit
E) Mitochondrial swelling ‘
D
Find the false statement about metaplasia:
A) Reversible
B) No loss of polarity
C) Reprogramming of stem cells
D) Pleomorphism present
E) One differentiated cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another cell type
D
In respiratory tract, metaplasia occurs from
A) Squamous to columnar
B) Columnar to cuboidal
C) Columnar to squamous
D) Cuboidal to squamous
E) Columnar to cuboidal
C
Definition of hyperplasia is:
A) pleomorphism
B)Increase in size of cells
C) Change in type of cell
D) Increase in nuclear-cytoplasmic ray
E) Increase in number of cells
E
All are cellular adaptations except:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Necrosis
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
C
Earliest feature of ischemic cell injury is:
A) Cellular swelling
B) Decreased Alt
C) Clumping of chromatin
D) Decreased protein synthesis
E) Cytoplasmic blebs
A
Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are:
A) Myocardial cells
B) Neurons
C) Hepatocytes
D) Renal tubular epithelial cells
E) Fibroblasts
B
Which of the following types of necrosis is seen in immune complex deposition in blood vessels?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C ) Fibrinoid necrosis
D) Caseous necrosis
E) Fat necrosis
C
Which of the following is involved in apoptosis pathway?
A) Myc
B) p53 and caspases
C) APC
D) VHL
E) Lysosomal enzymes
B
Which of the following statements is false about apoptosis?
A) No inflammation
B) Plasma membrane intact
C) Organelle swelling
D) Affected by dedicated genes.
E) Cell shrinkage
C
Necrosis seen in chronic pancreatitis is?
A) Fatty
B) Coagulative
C) Liquefactive
D) Caseous
E) Fibrinoid
A
False about apoptosis?
A) Inflammation present
B) Genetically determined by a cell
C) Programmed cell death
D) Normal physiology
E) Cell shrinkages
A
Receptor associated kinases 1 (RIP1) and 3 (RIP3) are involved in
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Necroptosis
D) Pyroptosis
E) Netosis
C
Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is
A) Peroxisome
B) Lysosome
C) Golgi body
D) Ribosome
E) Mitochondria
A
Transmigration of WBC across the endothelium is called:
A) Margination
B) Rolling
C) Pavementing
D) Diapedesis
E) Adhesion
D
Which of the following is an Opsonin?
А) СЗа в) СЗЬ
C) CSa
D) LTC4
5) Pgl2
B
Which of the following is Membrane attack complex
A) C5-9
B) C3
C) C2
D) C1
E) C4a
A
The following is not a preformed chemical mediator of inflammation
A) Prostaglandins
B) Histamine
C) Serotonin
D) Lysosomal enzymes
E) Enzyme myeloperoxidase
A
Heart failure cells are
A) Foam cells
B) Lipid laden macrophages
C) Hemosiderin laden macrophages
D) Type 1 pneumocytes
E) Type 2 pneumocytes
C
Virchow’S triad
) platelet aggregation C
Deep vein thrombosis
Hyper linidemia
Embolism source
DVT
Each of the following, organisms considered a microbe EXCEPT
would be
A) yeast.
B) protozoan,
C) bacterium.
D) mushroom.
E) virus.
D
What factors contribute to the rising incidence of antibiotic resistance?
A)
overuse of the specific drugs misuse of the specific drugs
c)
random mutations in bacterial genomes random mutations, overuse and misuse of specific drugs
E)
overuse and misuse of specific drugs
E
A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
A) flagella.
B) nucleus
C) ribosomes.
D) a cell wall.
E) a cell membrane.
B
Recombinant DNA refers to the
A) study of bacterial ribosomes
B) study of the function of genes.
C) interaction between human and bacterial cells
D) synthesis of proteins from genes
E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism
E
Normal microbiota
A) indefinitely colonize the body.
B) prevent colonization of pathogens in sites such as colon and mouth.
C) almost always cause disease in the host.
D) are normally found in blood.
E) both indefinitely colonize the body and prevent colonization of pathogens in sites such as color and mouth.
E
Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial
function of microorganisms EXCEPT:
A) alternative fuel production.
B) bioremediation.
C) gene therapy
D) agriculture.
E) increased number of illnesses.
E
Which of the following cancers results from activation of an oncogene, micro chromosomes translocation
A)Retinoblastoma
B) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C) Breast cancer
D) Prostat cancer
E) Thyroid cancer
.
B
Fill in the blanks:
Mutations and tumor suppressor genes are ______ when both alleles are ______ cell growth is uncontrolled
A) Dominant - activated
B) Recessive - activate
C) Recessive - inactived
D) Dominant - inactivated
E) Dominant - gain of function
C
Which of the followings is a multipotent stem cell?
A) Neural stem cell
B) Zygote
C) Inner cell mass of blastocyst
D) 8 blastomere embryo
E) Hematopoietic stem cell
E
Zygote is a ……..stem cell?
A)Induced
B)totipotent
C)Pluripotent
D) Unipotent
E)Oligopotent
B
Which of the statements about the immune system is correct
A) Dendritic cells recognize antigens with class II MHC proteins
B) Phasocyte cels of the acquired ammune system are macrophages and dendritic cels
C) They are cytotoxic T cells that kill cells infected
with viruses.
D) B cells secrete various signaling proteins called cytokines.
E) “Constant regions” in the antibody structure are specialized to recognize the antigen.
D
Fill in the blanks;
The .••** immune system uses………as well as certain molecules such as complement component. The** immune system uses*» As well as antigen recognation molecule
Innate phagocytes- adaptive lymphocytes
A 22-year-old woman suffering from asthma was prescribed albuterol by inhalation. Albuterol is a bronchodilating drug with a low molecular weight and lipophylic.
Which of the following permeation processes most likely accounted for the transfer of the drug through the bronchial mucosa?
A) Paracellular transport
B) Passive diffusion
C) Facilitated diffusion
D) Endocytosis
E) Active transport
B
Magnesium hydroxyde is used as an antacide drug for reducing gastric acidity.
Which kind of mechanism has a role in its activity mechanism?
A) Activates some enzymes in gastric mucosa
B)Inhibits certain enzymes in gastric smooth muscle
C) Non-specific physical and chemical properties
D) Antimetabolite characteristic
E) Causes release some endogenous neurotransmitters
C
85 year old patient uses verapamil for treating his hypertension for five years. But he has to use rifampin, induces CYP enzymes, for the treatment of his newly emerged tuberculosis. There is a significant increase of arterial blood pressure after two weeks.
What is the reason of this result?
A) Increase of the metabolism and first pass effect of verapamil
B) Increase of renal elimination of verapamil
C) Direct hypertensive activity of rifampin
D) Reduced fat sequestration of verapamil
E) Decreases metabolism of rifampin
A
What is the mechanism of sodium bicarbonate when used for aspirin intoxication?
A) Prevent the intestinal absorption
B) Increase glomerular filtration
C) Reduce tubulary secretion
D) Reduce tubular reabsorption
E) Increase liver metabolism
C
A 22-year-old man suffering from adult autism and violent behavior started a treatment of buspirone, a drug with a large first-pass effect.
Which of the following administration methods is not appropriate for this drug to increase bioavailability?
A) Per oral
B) Sublingual
C) Inhalation
D) Intravenous
E) Intramuscular
A
Two new antihypertensive drugs were tested in nealtny volunteers. They were given singly or together on separate occasions. The results are given below:Drug A - Dose 50mg - reduction of systolic blood pressure 20. Drug B - Dose 10mg - reduction of systolic blood pressure 10. Drugs A and B together- Dose 50 A + 10 B reduction of blood pressure 40. Which of the following terms best defines the type of drug-drug interaction that has occurred?
A) Pharmaceutic interaction
B) Potentiation. C) Additive
D) Physiological interaction
E) Non-competitive antagonism
B
Which
drug is the most appropriate for the tratment of paracetamol toxicity?
A)
Sodium bicarbonate
B)
Ascorbic acid
c)
N-Acetyl cysteine
D)
Naloxone
E)
Flumazenil
C
A patient suffered from perthyroiditis complaints tachycardia and hypertension after using nose drops containing orphenadryne, which is a
sympathomimetic agent, for treating his cold.
Which kind of toxicity is this result?
A)
Simple toxic effect
B)
Special toxic effect
C)
Intolerance reaction
D)
Drug allergy
E)
Idiosyncratic reaction
A
A 2-year-old girl was rushed to the emergency department after ingesting several tablets of a medication containing iron.
An emergency
treatment
was
started
that included the
intravenous administration of deferoxamine. This drug is able to combine with iron in plasma to form an inactive complex and therefore to antagonize iron effects.
Which of the following terms best defines this antagonism?
A) Competitive
B) Noncompetitive
C) Pharmaceutic
D) Chemical
E) Physiologic
D
Which organ is the most protected one against to drug activity in the body?
A)
Stomach
B)
Brain
c)
Liver
D)
Kidney
E)
Intestine
B
In what order should the abdominal examination be performed ideally?
IN AU PE PA
Which is wrong for palpation?
Palpation
examination is always performed
before auscultation.
Which of the following is false?
A)In the tactile fremitus examination, the patient SWE is made to say certain words and the vibrations created by the chest wall are tried to be felt with the examiner’s palms or the ulnar side of their hands
B) Breast palpation is the evaluation of breast tissue with the examiner’s fingertips in vertical, radial and spiral directions.
C) Percussion is not used in the examination of the circulatory system
D) The accumulation of fluid between the leaves of the pleura can be detected by palpation and auscultation.
E) Bimanual examination is performed in the examination of the female internal genital organs.
C
The -
- is the type of examination that best
allows us to determine whether the tissues and organs we examine are filled with air, liquid or are solid.
A) Palation
B)
Auscultation
c)
Inspection
D)
Percussion
E)
Olfaction
A
Which of the following cannot be detected by percussion?
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Splenomegaly
C) Presence of ascites in the abdomen
D) Glob vesicale
E) Increase in bowel movements
E
Which of the following are not among the six core competencies for Family medicine?
A) Integration into tertiary care
B) Person-centred care
C) Specific problem solving skills
D) Community orientation
E) Holistic modelling
A
Which ones are used in examination of sensation de flots?
A) Auscultation-palpation
B) Direct percussion-inspection
C) Inspection-palpation
D) Auscultation-indirect percussion
E) Direct percussion-palpation
C
Which of the following statements about the Traube field is true?
A) The area of the traube is the area where the spleen is normally located.
B) Normally, sonor sound is received in this area.
C) Getting dullness in the percussion of the
D) Traube area may indicate splenomegaly. Getting dullness in the Traube field percussion
E) indicates that the stomach is filled with air. Traube field percussion is performed in the craniocaudal direction.
D
Which of the following examinations cannot be performed bilaterally?
A) Pretibial edema
B) Muscle atrophy
C) Liver cranio-caudal distance measurement
D) Joint movements
E) Light reflex
C
In which of the following it is not suitable to perform a bidigital examination?
A) Auricle examination
B) Scrotum examination
C) Oral mucosa examination
D) Thyroid examination
E) Nipple examination
A
Which of the following cannot be understood by percussion?
A) Whether an organ is empty or full
B) Whether the location of an organ has changed.
C) The stiffness of an organ
D) That a tumor developed in an organ
E) That an organ has enlarged or got smaller
D
What are the most commonly used examination methods in breast examination?
A)
Percussion-auscultation
B)
Palpation-inspection
C)
Percussion-palpation
D)
Palpation-auscultation
E)
Percussion-inspection
B
Who did and when first to emphasized the need for a specialty that provides comprehensive and personal health care and that patients are left unattended as a result of overspecialization in medicine?
1923 Francis peabody
