final Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Sample size precision is determined by:
    a. the sampling method
    b. its size
    c. the both must be taken into consideration
    d. none of the above
A

it’s size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. If the target population is homogenous, you choose as a sampling method
    a. simple random sampling
    b. sampling of clusters
    c. multipurpose clustering
    d. no answer is correct
A

simple random sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. if the target population for which you want to conduct research is heterogenous, you will decide on?
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. simple systematic sampling
    d. none of the answers
A

none of the answers are correct (cluster hetero) I think stratified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. If the sampling unit is group of animals you choose as a sampling method
    a. simple random sampling
    b. sampling of clusters
    c. stratified randomly selection
    d. no answer is correct
A

sample of clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The target population usually is the
    a. population of animals for which we want to obtain data
    b. population from which sample is taken
    c. a portion of the population from which we take the data
    d. all mention above is correct
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Stratum are groups defined by using
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. systematic random sampling
A

stratified sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. For sampling size calculation is not necessary to know
    a. absolute error
    b. confidence interval
    c. expected prevalence
    d. no answer is correct
A

absolute error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Long term appearance of the disease is a characteristic of
    a. endemic
    b. epidemic
    c. sporadic occurrence
    d. no answer is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Ordinary data are the
    a. quantitative data
    b. qualitative data
    c. nominal data
    d. no answer is correct
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Rectal temperature of cows is measured at the
    a. nominal scale
    b. ordinary scale
    c. interval scale
    d. nominal or ordinary scale
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. If you calculate the confidence limit, according to the formula x+- Z o where x is an arithmetic mean and o denotes a standard error, 95% of the confidence limits z will be
    a. 1.96
    b. 2.58
    c. 1.64
    d. no answer is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. If you want to know how many cows have mastitis on October 29th, you calculate
    a. prevalence
    b. incidence rate
    c. cumulative incidence
    d. prevalence and incidence
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The potential effect of the risk factor or the measure of the absolute risk are
    a. relative risk and attributive risk
    b. relative risk and odds ratio
    c. odds ratio and the attributive fraction
    d. the attributive risk and the attributive fraction
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. If the relative risk is greater than 1, it means that
    a. there is a connection between the risk factor and the disease
    b. there is no connection between the risk factor and the disease
    c. a risk factor may have a protective role in the occurrence of the diseas
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. In the cohort study, for sample size calculation, it is necessary to
    a. expected incidence and presumed relative risk
    b. the proportion of exposed animals and assumed odds ratio
    c. all listed
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. He described the connection between the presence of the causative agent and the occurrence of the disease in the epidemiological context:
    a. Koch
    b. Evans
    c. both
    d. neither one nor the other
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. When you want to establish deviations of the sample values in relation to the real values in the population, you must calculate:
    a. confidence limits
    b. standard deviation
    c. coefficient of variability
    d. mean value
A

b
You need mean for standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The long-term presence of the disease in one area is characteristic for:
    a. endemic
    b. epidemic
    c. pandemic
    d. no answer is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. The shape of the epidemic curve has been determined by:
    a. the number of susceptible individuals in the population
    b. the Ro number
    c. the number of other specie
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The basic reproduction ratio or basic reproduction rate Ro is
    a. the minimum density of susceptible individuals that allow the spread of disease in the population
    b. the maximum number of susceptible individuals that allow the spread of the disease in the population
    c. is the average number of secondary cases per infectious case in a population
    d. none of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Discrete or discontinuous data are
    a. quantitative
    b. qualitative
    c. nominal
    d. no answer is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Body mass is measured at
    a. nominal scale
    b. ordinary scale
    c. nominal or ordinary scale
    d. interval scale
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. To calculate the confidence interval (confidence limit) according to the formula x ± z σ where x is the notation for the arithmetic mean and σ is the standard error of the mean, to calculate the 99% confidence limits the value of z will be
    a. 1,96
    b. 2,58
    c. 1,64
    d. none of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. For the assessment of mastitis in dairy cows in the area of Slavonia from October 29 to November 29, you will count
    a. prevalence
    b. cumulative incidence
    c. prevalence and incidence
    d. mortality rate
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What study is retrospective?
    a. cohort
    b. case-control
    c. cross-sectional
    d. clinical randomized trial
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. If the target population for which you want to do research is heterogeneous you will opt for
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. simple systematic sampling
    d. no answer is correct
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. The specificity of the test represents
    a. ability of the test to detect negative animals
    b. ability of the test to detect positive animals
    c. all of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Sampling in which the selection of the sample is not random but depends on availability is called
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. convenient sampling
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. To determine the sample size you must know:
    a. the precision with which we want to get the result
    b. reliability limits
    c. expected prevalence
    d. all of the above
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Your task is to test the effect of a particular factor on two groups, or two population. After research and statistical analysis, you got the result p = 0.0257 (significance level). Your conclusion about the action of factors is:
    a. the factor conditioned the disease
    b. the factor is not the cause of the disease
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. In cohort research, measure
    a. the likelihood of developing the disease
    b. probability of exposure
    c. prevalence
    d. all of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Relative risk measures:
    a. risk in exposed/risk in non-exposed
    b. excess risk
    c. attributive fraction
    d. odds
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. If the odds ratio is equal to 1 it means that
    a. There is a link between risk factor and disease
    b. There is no association between risk factor and disease
    c. A risk factor may play a protective role in the onset of the disease
    d. None of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. To determine the sample size in the case / control of the study with the desired level of significance and strength of the test still needs to be defined
    a. expected incidence and assumed relative risk
    b. the proportion of the exposed and the assumed probability ratio
    c. all of the above
    d. none of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. The accuracy of the diagnostic test is determined
    a. values that indicate the true clinical condition of the individual
    b. consistent values when repeating the test on the same sample
    c. includes all of the above
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. A highly sensitive test will give
    a. high positive predictive values
    b. low negative predictive values
    c. high negative predictive values
    d. none of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. If we determine the cut-off value so that we have a higher sensitivity then we will also have
    a. increased specificity
    b. less false positives
    c. less false negatives
    d. none of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Positive predictive values of test can be affected by
    a. specificity and sensitivity of the diagnostic test
    b. accuracy and precision of the diagnostic test
    c. prevalence in population
    d. none of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Parallel interpretation of tests
    a. increases positive predictive values
    b. increases negative predictive values
    c. reduces negative predictive values
    d. increases specificity
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. ratio scale measures:
    a. qualitative data
    b. quantitative data
    c. ordinary data
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. the number of mosquitoes counted on a bait represents:
    a. quantitative continuous data
    b. qualitative nominal data
    c. quantitative discontinuous (discrete) data
    d. qualitative ordinary data
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. when you want to establish whether your values defined in the population are the right values, you must calculate:
    a. confidence limits
    b. standard deviation
    c. coefficient of variability
    d. mean value
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. short-term remission of the disease is characterized by:
    a. endemic
    b. epidemic (point epidemic)
    c. pandemic
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. the shape of the epidemic curve is determined by:
    a. by the number of sensitive individuals in the population ! (Susceptible)
    b. the number of dead individuals
    c. by the number of isolated individuals from the population
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. basic reproduction ratio or basic reproduction rate R0 is a measure of:
    a. the minimum density of susceptible individuals that enable the spread of the disease in the population
    b. the maximum number of susceptible individuals that enable the spread of the disease in the population
    c. minimum density of dead individuals
    d. none of the above
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. discrete or discontinuous data are:
    a. quantitative
    b. qualitative
    c. nominal
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. body mass is measured at:
    a. nominal scale
    b. ordinary scale
    c. nominal or ordinary scale
    d. interval scale
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. where x is the mark for the arithmetic mean, and q is the standard error of the mean value, for the calculation of the 99% confidence limits, the value of z will be:
    a. 1.96
    b. 2.58
    c. 1.64
    d. none of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. for the assessment of mastitis in dairy cows in the area of Slavonia on October 29 we will calculate
    a. prevalence
    b. cumulative incidence
    c. prevalence and incidence
    d. mortality rate
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. domestic animals that share the same environment represent:/ term that described the greatest epidemiological connection between animals is:
    a. herd
    b. livestock
    c. breeders
    d. none of the above
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. If the target population for which you want to conduct research is homogeneous, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. multilevel clustering
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. if the basic sampling unit is a set, then the sampling method is:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. stratified random
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. the researched population is:
    a. animal population for which we want to get data
    b. the population from which we take the sample
    c. part of the population from which we directly take the researched data
    d. all of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. sampling according to which the sample units are selected according to a specific rule established before sampling is called:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. systematic random sampling
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. strata are defined by:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. systematic random sampling
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. to select the sample size, it is not necessary to know:
    a. the precision with which we want to get the result
    b. confidence limits
    c. expected prevalence
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. to test differences between samples (populations), tests for testing differences are used, or they are called tests for testing hypotheses (assumptions) or tests of significance. Which of the above tests would you use for the tested variances?
    a. student t-test
    b. x2 (chi) test
    c. F-test
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. you have been assigned to test some new drug that is assumed to work just as well as an already known drug (null hypothesis). After the experiment of testing a new drug, you have to check the results by testing the significance, in order to establish whether the new drug (the group you are testing) has a better effect than the already known drug (the control group). For the significance test, you chose the t-test, which gave you the result P = 0.04467. As the leader of the experiment, you have to give a conclusion about the effect of that medicine. Based on the obtained results, you will
    a. accept the null hypothesis
    b. reject the null hypothesis
A

b
if P less than 0.05 it means reject null hypothesis
ii. If P more than 0.05 it means accept null hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. for prevalence research (cross-section), you will choose a sample:
    a. by simple random sampling
    b. by selecting the sick and the healthy
    c. by selecting exposed and unexposed ones
    d. by any sampling method
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. a highly specific test will have:
    a. large positive predictive values
    b. small positive predictive values
    c. Large negative predictive values
    d. All wrong
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. you can calculate the true prevalence in the population if you know (enter the sober answer):
A

Prevalence
b. Sensitivity
c. Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. serial interpretation of tests:
    a. increases positive predictive values
    b. increases negative predictive values
    c. reduces positive predictive values
    d. increases sensitivity
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Parallel testing:
    a. used to prove animal is sick
    b. increases negative predictive values
    c. increases specificity
    d. increases positive predictive values
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. in epidemiology, the development of the disease is explained as: (epidemiological triad!)
    a. the interaction of the environment and the causative agent
    b. interaction between the causative agent and the host
    c. mutual action of host, causative agent and environment
    d. interaction between host and environment
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. in epidemiology, determinants that determine the causative agent include:
    a. genetic constitution and pathogenicity
    b. pathogenicity and virulence
    c. virulence and genetic constitution
    d. genetic constitution and hormonal status
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. the null hypothesis is:
    a. main research hypothesis
    b. the hypothesis that there is no difference between the sample and the population!!
    c. alternative hypothesis
    d. none of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. the prevalence of the disease depends on:
    a. sensitivity, specificity, and predictive values
    b. sensitivity, specificity
    c. Positive predictive values
    d. negative predictive values
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. to test differences between samples (populations), tests for testing differences are used, or they are called tests for testing hypotheses (assumptions) or tests of significance. which ofthe following tests would you use to test qualitative variables or data?
    a. student t-test
    b. X2 test
    c. f-test
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. for prevalence research (cross-section), you will choose a sample:
    a. by simple random sampling
    b. by any sampling method
    c. by selecting the sick and the healthy
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. the potential effect of the risk factor is determined by:
    a. relative risk and attributive risk
    b. attributive risk and attributive fraction
    c. probability ratio and attributive fraction
    d. relative risk and probability ratio
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. if the relative risk is less than 1, it means that:
    a. there is a connection between the risk factor and the disease
    b. there is no connection between the risk factor and the disease
    c. the risk factor can have a protective role in the occurrence of the disease
    d. none of the above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. in order to determine the sample size in cohort research with the desired level of significance and the power of the test, it is also necessary to define:
    a. the proportion of those exposed and the assumed probability ratio
    b. expected incidence and assumed relative risk
    c. all of the above
    d. none of the above
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. the precision of the diagnostic test is determined by:
    a. values that indicate the right clinical status of the individual
    b. consistent values when repeating the test on the same sample
    c. includes the above
    d. none of the above
A

b

74
Q
  1. if the research was conducted at one point in time, then we are talking about:
    a. cross-sectional (Cross) research
    b. retrospective research
    c. cohort research
    d. couple research
A

a

75
Q
  1. The accuracy of the diagnostic test is determined by:
    a. values that indicate the true clinical condition of the individual
    b. consistent values when repeating the test on the same sample
    c. includes all of the above
    d. none of the above
A

a
B is only for precision

76
Q
  1. To determine the sample size in case/control research with the desired significance level and test power, it’s also necessary to define:
    a. the expected incidence and the assumed relative risk
    b. the proportion of the exposed and the assumed probability ratio
    c. all of the above
    d. none of the above
A

b

77
Q
  1. Prevalence in the population affects:
    a. specificity and sensitivity of the diagnostic test
    b. precision and accuracy of the diagnostic test
    c. predictive values of the diagnostic test
    d. none of the above
A

c

78
Q
  1. Describing diseases in the population is the task of:
    a. descriptive epidemiology
    b. analytical epidemiology
    c. experimental epidemiology
    d. quantitative epidemiology
A

a

79
Q
  1. Observational research is part of:
    a. descriptive epidemiology
    b. theoretical epidemiology
    c. experimental epidemiology
    d. analytical epidemiology
A

d

80
Q
  1. The precision of the results in the sample is defined by:
    a. standard deviation
    b. standard error
    c. mean value
    d. none of the above
A

b

81
Q
  1. self regulation mechanism of the epidemic is caused by:
    a. increase in number of sick individuals in the population
    b. increase in number of susceptible individuals in the population
    c. increase in the number of resistant individuals in the population
    d. due to the death of resistant individuals
A

c

82
Q
  1. the threshold value implies:
    a. minimum density of susceptible individuals that enable the spread of the disease in the population
    b. maximum number of susceptible individuals that enable the spread of the disease in the population
    c. minimum density of diseased individuals
    d. maximum number of diseased individuals
A

a

83
Q
  1. if relative risk is greater than 1, it means that:
    a. there is a connection between the risk factor and the disease
    b. there is no connection between the risk factor and the disease
    c. the risk factor can have a protective role in the occurrence of the disease (<1)
    d. none of the above
A

a

84
Q
  1. In a retrospective study, the following are measured:
    a. incidence rate and/or prevalence
    b. incidence rate and/or cumulative incidence
    c. cumulative incidence and/or prevalence
    d. prevalence
A

d

85
Q
  1. the representativeness of the sample is determined by:
    a. method of sampling
    b. its size
    c. and one of the other
    d. neither one nor the other
A

a

86
Q
  1. sample represents
    a. the population of animals for which we want to obtain data
    b. the population from which we take the sample
    c. part of the population on which we conduct the research
    d. all of the above
A

c

87
Q
  1. we calculate the RR in
    a. only in retrospective research
    b. only in prospective research
    c. in both prospective and retrospective research
    d. always when we have contingency tables
A

c
Only in prospective
Retrospective is odd ratio and attributable fraction

88
Q
  1. determining the number of animals according to the ration of the number of animals in individual groups is with:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. proportional stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. simple stratified sampling
A

b

89
Q
  1. to determine the sample size, it’s important to know:
    a. the precision with which we want to obtain the result
    b. reliability limits
    c. expected prevalence
    d. all of the above
A

d

90
Q
  1. if the disease has spread to larger areas, we are talking about:
    a. epidemic
    b. endemic
    c. pandemic
    d. sporadic occurrence
A

c

91
Q
  1. nominal data are:
    a. quantitative
    b. ordinary
    c. qualitative
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

c

92
Q
  1. determination of gender in statistics represents
    a. quantitative continuous data
    b. qualitative nominal data
    c. quantitative discontinuous (discrete) data
    d. qualitative ordinary data
A

b

93
Q
  1. prevalence is calculated as the ratio of:
    a. new cases of disease and the total number of animals at risk
    b. all cases of disease and the total number of animals at risk
    c. new cases of disease and the time of research
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

94
Q
  1. Epizootioloigcal unit according to the veterinary act is the area:
    a. municipality
    b. county
    c. province
    d. none of the above
A

a

95
Q
  1. operational research
    a. describe the temporal and spatial distribution of the disease in a given population
    b. provide the facts necessary to understand the spread of the disease and help to identify the risk as soon as possible
    c. organize and implement the actions of the disease control program aimed at the prevention of the disease
    d. evaluate the collected data about the disease which serve in the design of prevention programs
A

c

96
Q
  1. 95% confidence limits (assuming a normal distribution) show that:
    a. 5% of the values obtained by the sample will lie within the true values expected for the population
    b. 5% of the values obtained by the sample will lie outside the true values expected for the population
    c. 95% of the values obtained by the sample lie outside the true values expected for the population
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

97
Q
  1. continuous data are:
    a. qualitative
    b. quantitative
    c. nominal
    d. ordinary
A

b

98
Q
  1. If in the first week 2 animals in a herd of 10 animals fell ill, and in the second week 2 more animals, the cumulative incidence for those two weeks is:
    a. 2%
    b. 40%
    c. 20%
    d. 4%
A

b

99
Q
  1. The number of animals in the herd represents:
    a. quantitative continuous data
    b. qualitative nominal data
    c. quantitative discontinuous (discrete) data
    d. qualitative ordinary data
A

c

100
Q
  1. Mortality rate or lethality is the ratio of:
    a. animals that died from a disease in relation to all deaths
    b. animals that died from a disease in relation to the population at risk
    c. animals that died from a disease in relation to the number of sick animals from that disease
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

b

101
Q
  1. If the target population, for which we want to conduct research, contains different breeds of cattle that give unequal production, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. stratified sampling
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

c

102
Q
  1. What type of epidemiology will you use to implement quarantine measures:
    a. descriptive
    b. analytical
    c. operational
    d. evaluation
A

c

103
Q
  1. When the research was done on a sample, and as in epidemiology it is important to show the real situation in the population, you must present the results by calculating:
    a. standard error
    b. confidence interval
    c. mean value
    d. standard deviation
A

b

104
Q
  1. To calculate confidence limits, it is necessary to know the values of:
    a. any mean values and standard errors
    b. arithmetic mean values of the sample and standard errors
    c. arithmetic mean values of the sample and standard deviation
    d. any mean values and standard errors
A

b

105
Q
  1. In which sampling is it first necessary to calculate the variance between groups?
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. cluster sampling
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

c

106
Q
  1. A test used to diagnose a disease whose prevalence in the population is 1% has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 95%. What do you have to calculate from the obtained values to know how many animals are really healthy in the population?
    a. positive predictive values
    b. apparent prevalence
    negative predictive values
    true prevalence
A

c

107
Q
  1. Research in which data is collected and changes are observed during the research is:
    a. prevalence research
    b. cohort research
    c. case/control research
    d. retrospective research
A

b

108
Q
  1. In case/control research, you will divide the animals into:
    a. cohorts
    b. into a group of sick and healthy
    c. groups of healthy animals differently exposed to a risk factor
    d. groups of sick animals differently exposed to a risk factor
A

b

109
Q
  1. Test validity includes:
    a. specificity
    b. sensitivity
    c. specificity and sensitivity
    d. precision and accuracy
A

c

110
Q
  1. When calculating the probability ratio, , in a cohort study, the following are calculated:
    a. probability of disease occurrence
    b. probability of exposure
    c. probability of prevalence
    d. none of the above
A

a

111
Q
  1. The specificity of the test is the ability of the test to detect:
    a. sick animals in the population
    b. healthy animals in the population
    c. the influence of some factor in the population
    d. none of the above
A

b

112
Q
  1. Specificity and sensitivity depend on:
    a. prevalence
    b. cut-off values
    c. incidence
    prevalence and cut-off values
A

b

113
Q
  1. If the Kappa value of the test is 0.29, it means that:
    a. the tests have a high degree of agreement or matching
    b. the tests have a medium degree of agreement or matching
    c. the tests have a low degree of agreement or matching
    d. the tests do not match
A

c

114
Q
  1. Tests with better sensitivity give better:
    a. negative predictive values
    b. positive predictive values
    c. no effect on predictive values
    d. none of the above
A

a

115
Q
  1. In the serial interpretation of tests, a positive animal is considered an animal in which:
    a. at least one test is positive
    b. both tests can be positive
    c. both tests must be positive
    d. none of the above
A

c

116
Q
  1. After a positive screening test, the individual must undergo another more sophisticated and expensive test that:
    a. confirms that the individual is sick
    b. confirms that the individual is healthy
    c. excludes healthy
    d. none of the above
A

a

117
Q
  1. The proportional mortality rate is the ratio of:
    a. the number of animals that died from a disease and the total number of animals that died
    b. the number of animals that died from a disease and the total number of sick animals
    c. the number of sick animals from a disease and the total number of animals in the population
    d. none of the above
A

b

118
Q
  1. The probability ratio is calculated in:
A

prospective and retrospective research

119
Q
  1. You can calculate the true prevalence in the population if you know: -
A

a. Apparent prevalence, specificity and sensitivity

120
Q
  1. When calculating the probability ratio,  , in a cohort study, the following are calculated:
    a. probability of disease occurrence
    b. probability of exposure
    c. probability of prevalence
    d. none of the above
A

a

121
Q
  1. If the usual prevalence of mastitis in a certain area was 5%, and new research found an increase of 10%, what kind of disease model is it in that area?
    a. epidemic
    b. endemic
    c. pandemic
    d. sporadic occurrence
A

a

122
Q
  1. According to the Reed-Frost model, there is none in the population?
    a. died
    b. infected
    c. sensitive
    d. resistant
A

a

123
Q
  1. Stratum?
A

a. a set of basic units grouped according to some common features

124
Q
  1. Proportion
A

a. relation of two groups which are in direct relation

125
Q
  1. Modelling belongs to:
    a. descriptive epidemiology
    b. analytical epidemiology
    c. experimental epidemiology
    d. theoretical epidemiology
A

b

126
Q
  1. Measures of potential effect are:
    a. relative risk and attributive fraction
    b. attributive risk and relative risk
    c. probability ratio and risk
    d. none of the above
A

d

127
Q
  1. Selection of sample units according to a certain interval:
A

systematic sampling

128
Q
  1. Cohort prospective study:
A

a. two healthy groups exposed to the factor

129
Q
  1. Prevalence:
A

a. all cases of the disease are considered
b. presents or absence of diseases in various host cohorts, like age groups and immunity status
c. Prevalence  calc : all sick animals (old and new ) / by total population
d. Incidence is all new cases divided by total pop

130
Q
  1. When we are in the field, we collect data so that we can write:
A

a. prevalence of diseases, preservation of health for life and health

131
Q
  1. In prevalence research, we estimate:
A

prevalence probability

132
Q
  1. The shape of the curve is not determined by:
A

a. genetic constitution (something like that?)
b. [Shape is determined by: incubation period; infectivity; number (proportion) of susceptible animals; potential contact (distance between animals)]

133
Q
  1. Targeted or researched population
A

a. target (the total population of animals for which we want to obtain data on a certain disease),
2. - researched/study (the population from which we take a sample)

134
Q
  1. Accuracy and precision of the sample
A

a. accuracy (determined by the method of sampling)
b. precision (determined by the size of the sample)

135
Q
  1. Disease of non-communicable type
A

a. epidemiology of chronic disease, endemic and epidemic
b. cardiovascular diseases (such as heart attacks and stroke), cancers, chronic respiratory diseases (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma) and diabetes.

136
Q
  1. Quantifying or numerically describing a disease in the population is dealt with by:
    a. descriptive epidemiology
    b. analytical epidemiology
    c. experimental epidemiology
    d. theoretical epidemiology
A

b

137
Q
  1. The ratio scale measures:
    a. qualitative data
    b. quantitative data
    c. ordinary data
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

138
Q
  1. Prevalence is a rate that includes:
    a. new sick individuals
    b. all sick individuals
    c. none of the above
    d. does not include sick individuals at all
A

b

139
Q
  1. When you want to determine from a sample the values that could be expected in the population, you must calculate:
    a. confidence limits
    b. standard deviation
    c. coefficient of variability
    d. mean value
A

a

140
Q
  1. If the target population for which you want to conduct research is not homogeneous because it contains different breeding breeds, and in order to reduce the variance caused by factors other than the one we are researching, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. simple systematic sampling
    c. stratified sampling
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

c

141
Q
  1. The death rate from a disease shows the proportion of those who died from that disease in relation to:
    a. the total number of individuals in the population
    b. the number of sick individuals from that disease in the population
    c. the healthy population
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

b

142
Q

MORBIDITY

A

= number of sick / total pop

143
Q

MORTALITY

A

= number of death / total pop

144
Q

CASE FATALITY

A

= number of death / number of diseased

145
Q

SURVIVAL RATE

A

= (number of case – number of death) / number of case

146
Q
  1. When you want to determine the deviations of sample values from the true values in the population, you must calculate:
    a. confidence limits
    b. standard deviation
    c. coefficient of variability
    d. mean value
A

a

147
Q
  1. In epidemiology, the determinants that determine the host include:
    a. genetic constitution and pathogenicity
    b. pathogenicity and virulence
    c. virulence and genetic constitution
    d. genetic constitution and hormonal status
A

d

148
Q
  1. Sampling in which the selection of the sample is not random and the representativeness of the sample is determined by the researcher is in:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. stratified sampling
    c. clustering
    d. targeted selection
A

d

149
Q
  1. The target population is the population:
    a. for which we want to obtain data from the research
    b. selected animals
    c. population of animals from which we take samples
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

a

150
Q
  1. If you want to take a sample from a non-homogeneous (heterogeneous) population, and in order to reduce the variance, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. simple systematic sampling
    d. none of the answers is correct (correctly it should be stratified random because reduces variance)
A

d

151
Q
  1. The precision of the sample is calculated according to:
    a. the standard deviation of the sample
    b. the standard error
    c. the mean value of the sample
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

152
Q
  1. When you want to establish from a sample the values related to the occurrence of the investigated event in the population, you must calculate:
    a. standard deviation
    b. coefficient of variability
    c. mean value
    d. confidence limits
A

d

153
Q
  1. The age of the animal is counted among:
    a. internal (intrinsic) determinants
    b. external (extrinsic ) determinants
    c. determinant that depends on the causative factor
    d. none of the above
A

a

154
Q
  1. The basic reproduction ratio is a mathematical measure used to measure:
    a. limit value (treshold value)
    b. limit tolerance
    c. limit density
    d. none of the above
A

a

155
Q
  1. The Reed-Frost model does not include:
    a. infected
    b. susceptible
    c. resistant
    d. sold
A

d

156
Q
  1. Qualitative data can be:
    a. continuous and discrete
    b. continuous and nominal
    c. discrete and ordinary
    d. nominal and ordinary
A

d

157
Q
  1. The severity of injuries marked as very severe, severe, medium severe, light is described by:
    a. quantitative continuous data
    b. qualitative nominal data
    c. quantitative discrete data
    d. qualitative ordinary data
A

d

158
Q
  1. The rate that describes the number of patients with a disease in relation to the total number of patients is called:
    a. morbidity rate
    b. mortality rate
    c. proportional morbidity rate
    d. incidence rate
A

c

159
Q
  1. All animals belonging to one owner represent:
    a. herd
    b. livestock
    c. farm
    d. none of the above
A

b

160
Q
  1. The absolute precision of a sample of 2% means the value of:
    a. standard deviations
    b. standard errors
    c. mean values
    d. none of the above
A

b

161
Q
  1. When you want to establish the values in the population (if you did research on a sample), you must calculate:
    a. standard deviation
    b. coefficient of variability
    c. confidence limits
    d. mean value
A

c

162
Q
  1. If the target population for which we want to conduct research has two different breeds of animals that give different production, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. stratified sampling
    d. none of the answers are correct
A

c

163
Q
  1. Stratums cannot be:
    a. cattle that are grouped according to their differences
    b. cattle that we classified according to common characteristics
    c. a certain breed of cattle
    d. cattle in a certain area
A

a

164
Q
  1. Modelling is a part that is included in:
    a. quantitative epidemiology
    b. qualitative epidemiology
    c. a special branch of epidemiology
    d. none of the above
A

a

165
Q
  1. Microepidemiology is concerned with the research of diseases:
    a. in small farms
    b. at the level of the whole country
    c. in one herd
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

a

166
Q
  1. The course of the epidemic or the appearance of the epidemic curve is not directly affected by:
    a. incubation time
    b. climate factor
    c. number of susceptible animals in the population
    d. distance between animals
A

b

167
Q
  1. Prevalence is a rate that includes:
    a. only new cases of the disease
    b. only old cases of the disease
    c. all cases of the disease
    d. none of the above
A

c

168
Q
  1. During field research, what will the collected epidemiological data be used for?
    a. to determine the causative agent of the disease
    b. to diagnose the disease
    c. to determine the stage of the disease
    d. to organize and implement disease control and prevention in the country
A

d

169
Q
  1. What type of epidemiology will you use to evaluate the effect of disease prevention measures and activities?
    a. descriptive
    b. analytical
    c. operational
    d. evaluative (therapeutical?)
A

d

170
Q
  1. If you want to investigate milk yield in the area of Slavonia where three dairy breeds of cattle are grown, you will decide on:
    a. simple random sampling
    b. cluster sampling
    c. stratified sampling
    d. none of the above
A

c

171
Q
  1. List at least 3 disadvantages of cohort research.
A

a. Long duration  which increases potential for confounding effect
b. Expensive
c. Large groups are necessary in case of rare disease
d. Animals must be observed all the time during study
e. Difficult follow up

172
Q
  1. List at least 3 advantages of retrospective research.
A

a. Fast / can be performed immediately
b. Cheap
c. Recorded data can be used
d. Can be used for study of low incidence diseases

173
Q
  1. Attributable or attributable risk is calculated as:
    a. the ratio of incidences and represents the relative risk
    b. the difference of incidences and represents the incidence of a disease that is attributed to a risk factor
    c. the sum of incidences and represents the incidence of a disease that is attributed to a risk factor
    d. none of the answers is correct
A

b

174
Q
  1. Your task is to test the effect of a certain factor on two groups, or two populations. After research and statistical analysis, you got the result P=0.0257. Your conclusion regarding the effect of the factor is:
    a. the factor caused the disease
    b. the factor is not the cause of the disease
    c. it cannot be known
    d. I have no information about this
A

c

175
Q
  1. Observational research is carried out with the aim of:
    a. detecting the disease
    b. assessing the risk factor
    c. connecting the risk factor with the occurrence of the disease
    d. nothing of the unknown
A

c

176
Q
  1. Prospective operational research is:
    a. longitudinal
    b. prevalence research
    c. research on the relationship between sick and healthy
    d. none of the above
A

a

177
Q
  1. List at least 3 advantages of cohort research.
A

a. Evaluation of incidence
b. Relative risk can be directly calculate
c. Monitoring over a lond period of time => can be used to investigate very rare exposure

178
Q
  1. List at least 3 disadvantages of retrospective research.
A

a. Incidence cannot be estimate
b. There is no control over the method of data collection
c. The selection of groups to be compared can be difficult
d. Possibility of potential error during dana collection
e. Difficult to ensure unbiased selection

179
Q
  1. Retrospective observational research is not:
    a. relationship between sick and healthy
    b. cohort (really)??
    c. relationship prevalence
    d. none of the above
A

b

180
Q
  1. What is monitoring?
A

a. Making of routine observations on health, productivity and environmental factors and the recording and transmission of these observations

181
Q
  1. If you want to investigate milk yield in the area of Slavonia where 3 dairy breeds of cattle are grown, will you decide on?
A

stratified sampling

182
Q
  1. Is research into diseases that are not infectious in nature?
A

a. Molecular epidemic, epidemic. Non-communicable diseases and environmental epidemics (since everything is correct)