FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a basic process of healing that leads to cessation of bleeding from a blood vessel?

A

Hemostasis

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2
Q

Which component of the blood is metabolized into bilirubin?

A

Heme portion of hemoglobin

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3
Q

Which of the following option is not related to oncogenes?

A

Involved in DNA repair

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4
Q

Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of a stroke affecting the cerebellum?

A

Ataxia

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5
Q

What leads to the chronic inflammation observed in COPD?

A

Chronic inhalation of irritants like cigarette smoke and air pollutants

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6
Q

Oxidative stress advanced glycation products, proinflammatory changes, directly promotes which of the following complications in type 2 diabetes:

A

Retinopathy

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7
Q

A 32-year-old woman presents for her routine gynecological examination. She reports no symptoms of vaginal discharge, bleeding, or pelvic pain. Her last Pap smear was three years ago and showed no abnormalities. A routine Papanicolaou smear is performed. The cytology report indicates the presence of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL), suggesting cervical dysplasia.

What is the definition of dysplasia?

A

Is a term used to describe abnormal cells in a tissue or organ. It’s a morphological term that means “malformation”. Dysplasia is not cancer, but it can sometimes become cancer.

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8
Q

Which is the key driver of tumor angiogenesis?

A

Hypoxia

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9
Q

Choose the most important risk factor for the development of painful diabetic neuropathy:

A

Glucose under 126mg/dL

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10
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin resistance in target tissues

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11
Q

Which of the following cells are primarily involved in the pathogenesis of MS through an autoimmune mechanism?

A

T lymphocytes

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of acute inflammation?

A

To eliminate the initial cause of cell injury and remove damaged tissue

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13
Q

A 45-year-old female patient presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On physical examination, she has dry skin, brittle hair, and a slow heart rate. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cholesterol and TSH levels with low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hypothyroidism

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14
Q

Which immune rejection can be avoided in transplantation using compatible MHC between donor and receptor whereas same blood type?

A

Hyper-acute

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15
Q

A patient with asthma is likely to show which of the following changes in pulmonary function tests?

A

Decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)/FVC ratio

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16
Q

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the pathophysiology of COPD according to the document?

A

High levels of physical activity

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17
Q

What is the primary function of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A

Removing excess cholesterol from body cells and blood

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18
Q

Which process of carcinogenesis is where chemicals or viruses damage DNA?

A

Initiation

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19
Q

34-year-old male with a recent malaria infection. Today he attends to the office with scleral jaundice and clinical manifestations of anemia. Where is the cause of jaundice?

A

Pre hepatic

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20
Q

A common cause of anemia characterized by an increase of the mean corpuscular volume:

A

Folic acid deficiency

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21
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, one of the following statements describes part of it’s pathophysiology:

A

Loss of immune-tolerance at mucosal sites

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22
Q

Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that primarily affects:

A

Coagulation factor activity

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23
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the ventricle contract, causing a rise in ventricular pressure and closure of the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid valves)?

A

Ventricular systole

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes the primarily function of surfactant in the lungs?

A

To decrease the surface tension within alveoli, making it easier for them to expand during inspiration

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25
Q

Which of the following is a common form of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves disease

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26
Q

The following are pathogenic feature of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT one:

A

Decrease of ammonia levels in blood

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27
Q

How does airway remodeling affect asthma?

A

Contributes to the chronicity and severity of asthma

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28
Q

A severe hemorrhage can lead to the following renal failure:

A

Pre renal failure

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29
Q

Following an ischemic stroke, a patient has difficulty speaking and understanding language. This condition is known as:

A

Aphasia

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30
Q

In the spinal cord, the cell bodies of the primary afferent neurons are located in the:

A

Dorsal root ganglia

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31
Q

Vasoconstriction of the afferent artery will decrease the pressure in the glomerulus:

A

False

32
Q

The mechanism of prehepatic jaundice:

A

Due to excess production of bilirubin

33
Q

Which is a primary lymph organ of the immune system?

A

Thymus

34
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis (OA)?

A

OA is the inability of the chondrocyte to maintain the balance of cartilage formation and destruction

35
Q

The next stage of the course of disease starts with the exposure and finish with the onset of symptoms, is characterized by pathologic changes:

A

Subclinical disease

36
Q

Which lipoprotein is associated with decreased risk of coronary artery disease due to its ability to prevent cholesterol accumulation in the blood?

A

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

37
Q

Which is the first and most important event, that triggers all the mechanisms implicated in the pathophysiology of brain stroke?

A

Reduced cerebral blood flow

38
Q

How can we pharmacologically treat a persona with gout disease?

A

Inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

39
Q

Allergic rhinitis is characterized by the following:

A

IgE mediated response

40
Q

Glucose is easily filtered in the kidneys

A

True

41
Q

How does the presence of Lewy bodies in various parts of the brain contribute to the range of symptoms experienced by Parkinson’s disease patients?

A

By contributing to the loss of neurons across different brain regions, affecting both motor and non-motor functions

42
Q

Which of the following best describes Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)?

A

A pain that occurs in muscles after several hours or days of exercise

43
Q

Barrett’s esophagus is the replacement of a mature, differentiated cell type by another mature, differentiated cell type that does not typically occur in the tissue in which it is found, it is an example of:

A

Metaplasia

44
Q

Which of the following is true about chimeric antigen receptors (CAR) therapy?

A

CAR therapy uses genetically modified T cells to target cancer cells

45
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant tumors?

A

Often penetrate surrounding tissue

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism in the pathophysiology of ascites?

A

Increase of albumin synthesis

47
Q

If a patient has blood creatinine of 5.5mg/dL, it means that:

A

The kidney cannot excrete the creatinine

48
Q

In diabetic neuropathy, autonomic dysfunction can lead to which of the following?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

49
Q

A 58-year-old male patient with a long-standing history of hypertension presents with left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following pathophysiological processes is primarily responsible for this cardiac change?

A

Increased afterload

50
Q

What is the primary mechanism leading to an ischemic stroke?

A

Occlusion of a cerebral artery by a thrombus or embolus

51
Q

What role do environmental allergens play in asthma?

A

Triggering asthma exacerbations

52
Q

Which of the following best describes the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and its primary function?

A

A dynamic interface composed of endothelial cells, astrocytes, and pericytes that selectively restrict the passage of substances from the bloodstream into the brain

53
Q

In a pre-hepatic cause of jaundice we can expect an excessive production of unconjugated bilirubin: why?

A

Hepatocytes cannot conjugate and excrete bilirubin as rapidly as it is formed

54
Q

A 65-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and hypertension presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Which of the following is the most likely type of stroke the patient is experiencing?

A

Ischemic stroke due to embolism

55
Q

The following autoimmune disease is reflected by the generation of anti-citrullinated protein antibodies:

A

Rheumathoid arthritis

56
Q

Which mechanism produces oliguria in post renal failure?

A

Bilateral obstruction to urine flow

57
Q

The pathophysiology of gout is characterized by:

A

Monosodium urate crystals detected by innate cells

58
Q

The corticospinal tract is involved in voluntary motor control. Its fibers primarily decussate at the:

A

Medullary pyramids

59
Q

Trigger factor of inflammations can be divided into external and internal, choose an example of internal factor:

A

DAMPs

60
Q

A 54-year-old male with a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents numbness and tingling in his feet, which worsens at night. His medical history Is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Physical examination reveals a decreased vibratory sensation un both feet. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

A

Axonal degeneration secondary to chronic hyperglycemia

61
Q

The humoral response in mediated mainly by:

A

B cells

62
Q

During prolonged fasting, which hormone acts to counteract the effects of insulin by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis?

A

Glucagon

63
Q

Anemia in CKD is mainly due to:

A

Decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys

64
Q

Systemic blood pressure has a minimal effect in the glomerular filtration rate

A

False

65
Q

The edema in a patient with deep vein thrombosis is characterized by.

A

Increase in hydrostatic pressure

66
Q

A patient with diabetic neuropathy would most likely exhibit which of the following on physical examination?

A

Loss of ankle reflexes

67
Q

Which cytokines are involved in epithelial damage and repair in asthma?

A

IL-4, IL-9 and IL-13

68
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key sign of inflammation?

A

Ischemia

69
Q

Which of the following anemias would you expect after a traumatism with an hemorrhage of 1.5 liters?

A

Normocytic anemia

70
Q

Which of the following diseases could produce post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Bile duct cancer

71
Q

What primarily regulates erythropoiesis in response to hypoxia?

A

The kidney releases erythropoietin

72
Q

Which cells are predominantly found in the inflammatory infiltrate of asthma?

A

Eosinophils, mast cells, basophils, neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages

73
Q

How can cancer cells avoid the immune response?

A

Inhibition of T cells activation

74
Q

Which is a secondary etiology for hypertensive heart disease?

A
  • Adrenal medullary tumo
75
Q

A patient arrives in the emergency department with acute headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. The patient’s blood pressure is 220/120 mmHg. Which type of stroke is most likely?

A

Hemorrhagic stroke due to hypertension