Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Interventions II > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

Week 1-15

1
Q

Dull sound in lungs means ____ in lungs

A

Fluid is in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperresonance in sound lungs mean _____ in lungs

A

Extra air in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What body parts to assess for a comprehensive respiratory assessment

A
  • nose
  • mouth
  • throat
  • lower resp: thoracic inspection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Order of skills will doing a respiratory assessment

A

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fluid in the lungs

A

Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Air in the lungs

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pulmonary Function test
(PFT)

A
  • assess resp function
  • determine the extent of dysfunction
  • response to therapy
  • screening test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arterial Blood gases

A
  • aid in assessing the ability of the lungs to provide adequate oxygen and remove carbon dioxide, reflects ventilation
  • oxygen concentration in lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

End Tidal carbon dioxide
(partial pressure)

A

noninvasive method of monitoring partial pressure of carbon dioxide at the end of exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aspiration of fluid or air from the pleural space

A

Thoracentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

X-ray images to be generated via camera to video screen

A

fluoroscopic study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • exercise for the lungs
  • helps reduce atelectasis
  • inspire through tube and hold breath at the end, then exhale
A

Incentive spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chest tube dressing is what kind of dressing

A

occlusive dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Closed air system are used to re-expand the involved lung and to remove excess air, fluid, or blood

A

Chest tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Placement of chest tube restores _______ pressure

A

negative intrathoracic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You should provide extra oral care for a person with oxygen and tracheostomy T or F

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristics of healthy community

A
  • access to recreation and open space
  • access to healthy food
  • access to medical services
  • access to affordable housing
  • safe neighborhoods and public spaces
  • tobacco free living, injury/violent free living
  • reproductive and sexual health resources
  • good environmental quality
  • Access to economic opportunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methods of community health assessment

A
    • survey
  • descriptive epidemiologic studies
  • community forums/ town hall meetings (larger groups and questions preselected)
  • focus groups(5-15 people)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What oxygen mask is the most reliable for a COPD patient

A

Venturi Mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pulmonary edema

A

extra fluid/ swelling in the pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

pulmonary embolism

A

Blood clot in the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T or F, a nurse should not reposition a patient to facilitate drainage

A

FALSE, you want to repo patient!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can you teach a patient to do while eating to reduce aspiration risk

A

tuck chin and swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Types of community health assessment

A
  • familiarization assessment
  • problem-orientated assessment
  • community subsystem assessment
  • comprehensive assessment
  • assets(strength) assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Familiarization assessments

A
  • windshield survey
  • studying data already available in the community
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

problem-orientated assessment

A
  • focuses on a single problem and looks at the community in terms of that problem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

community subsystem assessment

A
  • focuses on a single dimension of community life
  • church, schools, college campuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Comprehensive assessments

A
  • complicated and often time-consuming, used to discover all relevant community health information
  • LONG TERM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Asset assessment

A
  • focuses on strengths of a community as opposed to its deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What pts are most at risk for atelectasis

A

post op patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do nurses have to look for before pulling out breathing tube?

A
  • make sure gag reflex and swallow reflex is back!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does upstream thinking need to start to create change?

A

The Lawmakers!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is atelectasis

A
  • The alveoli’s collapse
  • most commonly occurs post op
  • intervention: IS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

interventions for pneumonia

A
  • no Tylenol/ antibiotics BEFORE culture comes back!
  • fluids, oxygen, antitussives, decongestants
  • positional changes
  • appropriate antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Another name for pneumothorax

A

collapsed lung
- air!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Interventions for Pleural effusion

A
  • treat underlying cause
  • thoracentesis
  • chest tube
  • support oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Transudate fluid is

A

clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Exudate fluid is

A

pus/ infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Asthma interventions/ management

A
  • medications: SABA LABA> inhalers
  • corticosteroids
  • positioning/ breathing
  • know triggers
  • Have an action plan ready
  • resp support
    Peak flow meter> blow hard as fast as you can x2, helps manage asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Environmental hazards

A
  • built environment
  • land use
  • toxic exposure> pollution/ contamination
  • toxic waste
  • radiation> ionizing(radon gas) & nonionizing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a built environment

A

all aspects not naturally occurring
- roads, buildings, ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Common s/s of asthma

A

bilateral wheezes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What position is a colonoscopy

A

Position pt on the left side we knees crunched toward body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A reversible syndrome that results in decreased glomerular filtration rate and oliguria

A

AKI, acute kidney injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pre/ intra/ post renal damage sites

A

pre: hypoperfusion
intra: actual damage to kidney
post: obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Types of dialysis

A
  • peritoneal dialysis
  • hemodialysis
  • CRRT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Peritoneal dialysis

A
  • one has to be relatively healthy
  • 12-18hrs
  • removes toxic substances and metabolic wastes and to reestablish normal fluid and electrolyte balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hemodialysis

A
  • used when pt is acutely ill until kidneys resume function and for long-term replacement therapy for chronic kidney disease and end stage kidney disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CRRT

A
  • ICU setting
  • used for pts who are hemodynamically unstable
    takes smaller amount of blood and it is continuous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the cause of kidney stones

A
  • unknown
  • depends on location and presence of obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are common symptoms of kidney stones

A
  • severe back, flank pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Common AKI symptoms

A
  • low urine output
  • wt gain, fluid overload
  • anemia
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Management/ interventions for AKI

A
  • run water to assist let down reflex
  • sodium polytene sulfonate(meds)
  • dialysis> feel thrill, hear bruit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a good meal option for a low residue diet

A

broiled chicken and low-fiber pasta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T or F, elimination directly impacts what we eat and drink

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

With food poisoning what sample is needed to send to the confirm it is from food

A
  • a stool sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Prevention from foodborne illness

A
  • wash food
  • cook properly and all the way
  • refrigerate !
  • only consume pasteurized diary products
  • pasteurized juices
  • don’t eat unbaked (raw) dough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

High protein diets are beneficial for ______ pts

A
  • low body mass
  • burn victims
  • wounds
  • infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Low residue diets are for _____

A
  • pts with temp GI/ elimination problems> lower GI issues
  • Crohn’s and UC
60
Q

Stroke pts are often on what diet?

A

mechanical soft

61
Q

ERCP is under what type of sedation?

A

Moderate sedation

62
Q

Lab tests for evaluating GI tract function

A

CBC: infection/ inflammation
BMP: how the body is breaking down food
Lipase: breaking down lipids/ fats

63
Q

What assessment should you do frequently with a pt with an feeding tube

A
  • frequent lung auscultation
  • aspiration risks
64
Q

Meds go into _____ tube and feedings go into _____ tube

A

Meds: G- tube( stomach)
Feedings: J- tube (jejunum)

65
Q

PUD s/s and nursing role

A
  • dull pain or buring in stomach
  • heartburn and vomiting may occur
    Nurse:
  • assess pain and methods to treat pain
  • diagnostic tests: upper endoscopy, cbc, stool sample (occult blood)
  • treat with H2 receptors, PPIs, antibiotics(H. pylori)
  • question use of NSAIDs
66
Q

Constipation interventions

A
  • increase fluid and fiber intake
  • encourage activity
  • patient education
  • proper use of laxative
  • schedule toiletings
67
Q

Diarrhea interventions

A
  • avoid irritating foods> diet changes
  • Imodium
  • hydration
  • rest
  • probiotics; protect microbiome
  • perianal skin care> protect skin
68
Q

Celiac s/s and role as nurse

A
  • Steatorrhea, abdominal pain, wt loss, fatigue, flatulence, malabsorption
    Nurse:
  • education on gluten elimination
  • work with dietician
69
Q

UC s/s and nurses role

A

-inflammation and ulcers from rectum and colon
- bloody diarrhea, anemia, wt loss, colicky pain, PSEUDOPOLYPS
Nurse:
- medications, emotional support, lifestyle change education, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants

70
Q

Crohns s/s and nursing role

A
  • skip lesions, cobble stoning, anywhere along GI tract
  • fistulas, abdominal mass, patches of inflammation, abdominal pain, NONbloody diarrhea
    Nurse:
  • medication, emotional support, ostomy, corticosteroids, know triggers(health hx), watch for electrolyte imbalance and cardiac dysrhythmias
71
Q

A complication for PUD

A
  • perforation of the bowel
72
Q

Lab to test renal dysfunction

A

BUN, serum creat

73
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia can lead to

A

Jaundice

74
Q

T or F crohns has bloody stool were UC doesn’t

A

FALSE;
UC has bloody stools and Crohns doesn’t

75
Q

What diet would benefit a pt who just underwent a cholystectomy

A
  • low fat diet
76
Q

What is parental nutrition

A
  • IV route nutrtion
  • always hang lipids with it!
77
Q

restriction of energy intake to requirements leading to significantly low body weight in context of age, sex, development

A

Anorexia

78
Q

Recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to avoid weight gain such as purging, fasting, or exercising

A

Bulimia

79
Q

S/S of Anorexia

A
  • excessive wt loss
  • intense fear of gaining wt
  • perfectionism
    restricting foods/ fluids
80
Q

s/s of bulimia

A
  • poor dentation/ teeth enamal erosin
  • bad breath, yellow erosin
  • social butterflies
  • typically normal weight
81
Q

Complications of eating disorders

A
  • loss of muscle mass
  • hypothyroidism
  • dry, cracking skin
  • bradycardia, hypotension
  • bloating, constipation
  • electrolyte abnormalities
  • dental erosion/ decay
82
Q

Self concept is assessed through…..

A

eliciting patient’s thoughts about themselves, their ability to navigate in the world, and their nonverbal behavior

83
Q

Liver enzyme labs

A
  • AST
  • ALT
  • GGT
84
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy can be combated with ……

A

Lactulose

85
Q

High prothrombin time indicates

A
  • longer time to clot blood
  • inability to use vit K to clot
86
Q

Most common cause of pancreatitis is____

A

from excess alcohol consumption

87
Q

chronic disease characterized by replacement of normal liver tissue with diffuse fibrosis that disrupts the structure and function of the liver

A

Hepatic cirrhosis

88
Q

Who is more prone to cirrhosis

A
  • men who have a long-term alcohol and drug use
89
Q

Most common cause a acute liver failure

A
  • drug induced hepatitis
  • acetaminophen is #1 offender
  • onset is usually abrupt
90
Q

Cholelithiasis common in pts who are _____

A
  • fat
  • female
  • forty
91
Q

S/S of cholelithiasis

A
  • RUQ pain
  • pain may radiate to back or shoulders
  • restless
    gallbladder contractions/ pain
92
Q

Chronic vs acute pancreatitis

A
  • one episode vs multiple episodes
  • opioids can work for acute episode but not for chronic
  • scute attacks can lead to chronic
93
Q

Primary goal of acute pancreatitis

A

pain management

94
Q

Inflammation of the liver is

A

hepatitis

95
Q

What can induce hepatitis

A

excess alcohol use, excess NSAID use, toxins, viruses

96
Q

Self concept is

A

the way a person thinks and sees themselves

97
Q

Self concept is assessed by

A

eliciting patients thoughts about themselves, their ability in the navigate in the world, and their nonverbal behaviors

98
Q

A lifelong pattern of dysfunctional behaviors develops in relating and interacting with others

A

personality disorders

99
Q

Criteria in order to be diagnosed for a personality disorder

A
  • have to be 18 to diagnose
  • CANNOT be traced to physiological source
  • behaviors deviate from the normal pattern of interactions
  • splitting
  • impulsivity
100
Q

What is a priority intervention for an antisocial P.D.

A
  • express anger in an adaptive, nonviolent manner
101
Q

Most common trait for a pt with borderline personality

A

impulsivity

102
Q

Goal for personality disorders

A

positive behavioral change

103
Q

Interventions for personality disorder

A

SSRIs
benzos
antipshychotics

104
Q

Cluster B personality disorder is known as the

A

Dramatic- erratic and attention seeking

105
Q

Histrionic pts are very

A
  • attention seeking
  • dramatic
106
Q

Interventions for Cluster B P.D.

A
  • limit setting/ boundaries
  • de-escalation
  • therapeutic> gain trust
  • medications
  • pt is not having self injuriuos thoughts
107
Q

The most common chronic disease in the US for adults

A

Hypertension

108
Q

In a hypertensive crisis how much do you want to reduce BP by in the first hour

A

25%

109
Q

Best diet for a pt with hypertension

A

broiled chicken and baked potato
- less red meat
- more veggies/ fruit

110
Q

Beta blockers

A

‘LOL’
- block synthetic nervous system
- slowers HR

111
Q

Ace inhibitors

A

‘PRIL’
- inhibits angiotension 1 conversion to angiotension 2

112
Q

What medications work best for hypertension

A
  • Betas
  • Ace
  • Diuretics
113
Q

What to measure with alpha/ betas and vasodilations

A

measure K+

114
Q

T or F use nitro for agnina and a hypertensive emergency

A

TRUE, nitro is a vasodilator

115
Q

What position to put a pt in with pulmonary edema

A

high fowlers

116
Q

While taking atorvastatin what needs to be checked

A

liver enzymes

117
Q

Coronary atherosclerosis is

A

blockages and narrowing of coronary vessels reduce blood flow

118
Q

Medications for hypercholesterolemia

A
  • statins
  • reduce LDLs and atherosclerosis
119
Q

Elevated troponin levels indicate

A

new heart ischemia
- indicates new MI

120
Q

Obstructive lesions are predominantly confined to segments of the arterial system extending from the aorta below renal arteries

A

PAD
- relieved with rest
- no edema
- weak pulses
- ischemia> gangrene
- DANGLE LEGS

121
Q

Reduction in venous blood flow, which results in statis of blood

A

PVD
- lots of edema
- warm legs
- brown/ yellow skin color
- irregular sore
- ELEVATE LEGS

122
Q

3 types of crisis

A
  • developmental
  • situational
  • traumatic
123
Q

Developmental crisis ex.

A
  • leaving home for first time
  • completing school
  • potty training
  • accepting responsibility
124
Q

Situational crisis ex.

A
  • loss of spouse or job
  • break up with gf/ bf
  • job promotion
  • terminal illness diagnosis
125
Q

Traumatic ex.

A
  • natural/ enviromental
  • wars
  • violent crimes
  • assaults
126
Q

PTSD diagnosis

A
  1. intrusive symptoms> avoiding/ numbing
  2. negative mood or thoughts
  3. hyperarousal
  4. sleep deprivation> dreams, can’t sleep
127
Q

PTSD medication used for off label use

A

Prazoin (alphal)

128
Q

Emotional injury caused by an overwhelming stressful event that threatens one’s survival and sense of security

A

Trauma
- trauma looks different for everyone

129
Q

Symptoms of PTSD/ trauma disorders

A
  • bedwetting and progress declines in children
  • disruptive, disrespectful, destructive behaviors
  • avoidance and numbing
  • intrusive thoughts
  • nightmare/ terrors/ reliving the memory
130
Q

Role of CPH nurse during the four phases of disaster

A
  1. prevent disaster from happening
  2. prepare for disaster
    - disaster planning
    - communication on how disaster will be broadcasted
  3. respond to disaster
    - rescue and triage
  4. supported recovery
131
Q

Triage order

A
  1. red: immediate, life threatening
  2. yellow: significant injuries, requires medical care
  3. green: minimal injuries
  4. Black: extensive, DNR/DNI
132
Q

Stages of EPDM

A
  1. prevention-migration
    - preventing further injuries
  2. preparedness
    - know what emergencies are possible, prepared for emergency
  3. response
    - emergency happens
  4. recovery
    - rebuilding process
133
Q

Cardiac Labs

A
  • Troponin
  • myoglobin
  • cardiac enzymes (CK-MB)
  • CRP
  • BNP(heart failure)
134
Q

provides a tool to quanitfy health loss from hunfreds of disease, injuries, and risk factors, so that health systems can be improved and disparities can be elimated

A

Global burden of disease

135
Q

Population disability minus DALY =

A

Global Burden of Disease (GBD)

136
Q

Global health nursing frameworks

A
  • patterns of care> repeated activities
  • demographic transitions> population increase and decrease
  • epidemiologic transitions> ERAs
137
Q

Radiation

A
  • curative, control, or palliative
  • external/ internal
  • radiation reaction
  • avoid soap, tight clothing, exposing area to sunlight/ cold
  • apply zinc, vit A and D to area
  • only use lukewarm water
138
Q

Chemotherapy

A
  • will kill rapidly growing cells even when they aren’t cancer
  • used ina ttempt to destroy cancer cells by interfeing with cellular function and replication
  • many side effects
  • assess fluids, cognitive state, prevent n/v, manage fatigue, PPE
139
Q

Surgery: Cancer

A
  • diagnostic cancer
  • prophylactic surgery
  • palliative surgery
  • reconstructive surgery
140
Q

CAM therapies

A
  • immunotherapy
  • stem cell transplant
  • targeted therapy
141
Q

Palliative care

A
  • hospital, long term care facility, outpatient, and home
  • can pursue curative care
  • death not expected for 6 months or less
142
Q

Hospice care

A
  • in homes, outpatient
  • MUST forgo curative care
  • diagnosis of death in 6 months or less
  • come to term of illness
  • holistic approach
143
Q

What to communicate with terminally ill pt and families

A
  • education
  • support
  • assist with life review
  • end of life goals
  • comfort
144
Q

Culturally and spiritually sensitive care to terminally ill pts

A
  • address spiritual care
  • FICA assessment
  • maintaining hope
  • give strength to family and pt
145
Q

physiologic responses to terminal illness

A
  • pain
  • dyspnea
  • Nausea/ anorexia
  • delirium/ anxiety

Interventions II (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions