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Final Flashcards

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1
Q

What is iconic memory?

A

Brief sensory memory for visual stimuli

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2
Q

Describe iconic memory

A

A type of sensory memory where you try to recall visual images after seeing it for a few seconds

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3
Q

What is the duration of iconic memory (H: Short)

A

Less than 1 second

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4
Q

What is the capacity of iconic memory?

A

The capacity of iconic memory is 3-4 letters when asked to report all items on a screen when shown a matrix of 9 or 12 letters, people remember 100% of the 9-letter matrix and ~75% of the 12-letter matrix when presented with a cue (pitch), and the number of items dropped when presented with a delay

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5
Q

What is echoic memory?

A

Brief sensory memory for auditory stimuli

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6
Q

Describe echoic memory

A

A type of sensory memory where you try to register auditory information until it’s processed and comprehended

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7
Q

What is the duration of echoic memory? (H: Longer)

A

A few seconds

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8
Q

Explain the modality effect (H: E vs I)

A

Echoic memory is longer than iconic memory because auditory information usually requires integrating information over time

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9
Q

Describe Sterling’s Partial Report Experiment

A

Participants are shown a matrix of 9 or 12 letters

They were told to report only items in one row based on cue
- High Pitch: Top row
- Middle Pitch: Middle row
- Low Pitch: Bottom row

Results: Participants could remember 100% of the 9-letter matrix and ~75% of the 12-letter matrix

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10
Q

What is short-term memory?

A

The contents of our conscious awareness

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11
Q

Describe short-term memory

A

What are we thinking about right now

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12
Q

What is the duration of short-term memory?

A

15-30 seconds

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13
Q

What is the capacity of short-term memory?

A

Limited

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14
Q

What is chunking?

A

A strategy where small units are combined into larger meaningful units

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15
Q

Describe chunking

A

A collection of units can be strongly associated with one another but weakly associated with units in other chunks
Examples
- Numbers → Area Code
- Letters → Words

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16
Q

What is sensory memory?

A

The memory system that stores a record of the information received by sensory neurons

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17
Q

Describe sensory memory (H: 4 items)

A

Characterized by short duration (<1 second), long capacity, highly accurate and modality-specific

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18
Q

How are short-term memory and sensory memory connected? (H: 2 items)

A

Both are of short duration (less than 1 minute)
Attention controls the transfer of information from sensory memory to short-term memory

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19
Q

What is Baddeley’s model of working memory?

A

A model that uses different systems of information storage for greater cognitive utility

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20
Q

Describe Baddeley’s model of working memory

A

Contains three aspects with the phonological loop focused on verbal and auditory information, the central executive focused on controlling activity, and the visuospatial sketchpad focused on visual and spatial information

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21
Q

What are the components of Baddeley’s model of working memory? (H: 3 items)

A

Phonological Loop
Visuospatial Sketchpad
Central Executive

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22
Q

Describe the phonological loop (H: 2 items)

A

Holds a limited amount of verbal and auditory information
Rehearsal can keep items in the phonological store from decaying

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23
Q

Describe the visuospatial sketchpad (H: 3 items)

A

Holds and manipulates visual and spatial information
Visual Cache: Form and color
Inner Scribe: Space and motion

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24
Q

Describe the central executive (H: 3 items)

A

Coordinates activity of the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad
Pulls information for long-term memory
Cognitive Control

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25
Q

What is working memory?

A

The amount of information that can be held while performing a certain task

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26
Q

Describe working memory

A

Concerned with the maintenance and manipulation of information that occurs during complex cognition
Modular
- Phonological Loop
- Visuospatial Sketchpad
- Central Executive
- Episodic Buffer

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27
Q

How are short-term memory and working memory connected?

A

Both are limited-capacity systems

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28
Q

What is long-term memory?

A

“Archive” of information about past events and knowledge learned

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29
Q

What is the duration of long-term memory?

A

Years or decades

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30
Q

What is maintenance rehearsal?

A

Maintains information but doesn’t transfer it to long-term memory

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31
Q

What is elaborative rehearsal?

A

Transfers information to long-term memory

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32
Q

How are maintenance and elaborative rehearsal connected?

A

They both help in retaining information

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33
Q

How are short-term and long-term memory connected? (H: 2 items)

A

Both forms allow us to remember memories
Both use rehearsal to keep information

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34
Q

What is encoding?

A

Acquiring information and transforming it into memory

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35
Q

Describe encoding

A

Memory depends on how information is encoded

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36
Q

What are the different types of encoding processes? (H: 2 items)

A

Shallow Processing
Deep Processing

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37
Q

What is shallow processing?

A

Little attention to meaning → Poor memory

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38
Q

What is deep processing?

A

Close attention to meaning → Good memory

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39
Q

Describe an experiment with the levels of processing theory to a memory task

A

Conditions
- Physical Characteristics: Shallow processing
- Rhyming: Deeper processing
- Meaning: Deepest processing

Results: Participants performed best when meaning was involved

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40
Q

What is the self-reference effect

A

Memory for a word is improved by relating the word to the self

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41
Q

Describe a study that demonstrates the self-reference effect

A

Conditions
- Physical Characteristics
- Rhyming
- Meaning
- Self-Reference

Results: Participants showed the best memory for words that described them

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42
Q

What is the generation effect?

A

Memory for material is better when a person generates the material himself, rather than passively receiving it

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43
Q

Describe a study that demonstrates the generation effect

A

Conditions
- Read
- Generate

Results: Participants who generated the second word of each pair were able to reproduce more word pairs than participants in the read condition

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44
Q

How does organization enhance encoding?

A

Organization helps reduce the load on memory

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45
Q

Describe a study that demonstrates organization enhancement on memory

A

Presented participants with difficult-to-comprehend information
- E.G. 1: First saw a picture that helped explain the information
- E.G. 2: Saw the picture after reading the passage
- C.G.: Didn’t see the picture

Results: Group 1 outperformed the others
- Having a mental framework of comprehension aided memory encoding and retrieval

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46
Q

What is the testing effect?

A

Learning is better when retrieval is practiced

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47
Q

Describe a study that demonstrates the testing effect

A

Participants read a passage and then either
- Recall as much as they could
- Reread the passage
Test recall after a delay

Results: Learning is better after testing

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48
Q

What is retrieval?

A

Process of transferring information from long-term memory into working memory (consciousness)

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49
Q

Describe retrieval

A

Most of our failures of memory are failures to retrieve

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50
Q

What is encoding specificity?

A

We learn information together with its context

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51
Q

What’s an example of encoding specificity?

A

Divers studied either on land or underwater and then were either tested on land or underwater

Results: Best recall occurred when encoding and retrieval occurred in the same location

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52
Q

Describe retrieval-based learning

A

Retrieval-based learning helps improve recall

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53
Q

Describe an experiment that demonstrates retrieval-based learning

A

Conditions
- 4 study sessions
- 3 study sessions, 1 recall session
- 1 study session, 3 recall sessions

Results: Active rehearsal is better than just studying

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54
Q

What is consolidation?

A

Transforms new memories from a fragile state to a more permanent state

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55
Q

What is synaptic consolidation?

A

Occurs at synapses, and happens rapidly

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56
Q

Describe synaptic consolidation (H: 3 items)

A

Cells that fire together, wire together
Learning and memory are represented in the brain by physiological changes at the synapse
Neural record of experience

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57
Q

What is systems consolidation?

A

Involves a gradual reorganization of circuits in the brain

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58
Q

Describe systems consolidation (H: 4 items)

A

Retrieval depends on hippocampus during consolidation
Reactivation: Hippocampus replays neural activity associated with memory
Cortical neurons form new connections with each other
After consolidation, hippocampus is no longer needed

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59
Q

How are encoding and retrieval connected?

A

When occurred in the same location, they both help in improving recall

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60
Q

What regions of the brain support short-term memory? (H: 2 items)

A

Prefrontal Cortex
Hippocampus

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61
Q

What regions of the brain support long-term memory? (H: 4 items)

A

Hippocampus
Parahippocampus
Amygdala
Cortex

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62
Q

How are synaptic and systems consolidation in the brain connected?

A

They both transform new memories from a fragile state to a more permanent state

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63
Q

Describe patient H.M.

A

Had surgery to remove parts of the brain to relieve epileptic seizures
- Hippocampus
- Parahippocampus
- Amygdala

Post-Surgery Symptoms
- Severe anterograde amnesia
- Moderate retrograde amnesia

Functioning short-term memory but can’t form new long-term memory

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64
Q

Describe Clive Wearing

A

Contracted encephalitis
- Anterograde and retrograde amnesia
- Still has procedural memory

Functioning short-term memory but can’t form new long-term memory

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65
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

Loss of memory for events prior to the trauma

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66
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

Can’t form new memories

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67
Q

How are retrograde and anterograde amnesia connected?

A

Both affect the ability to recall information and experiences

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68
Q

What is declarative memory?

A

Conscious recollection of events experience and facts learned

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69
Q

Describe declarative memory (H: 3 items)

A

Episodic: Memory for personal events
Semantic: Facts and knowledge

Can be differentiated by the concept of mental time travel

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70
Q

What are examples of declarative memories? (H: 2 items)

A

Important life event
Capital of Texas

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71
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Memory for facts and knowledge

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72
Q

Describe semantic memory (H: 3 items)

A

Context-free memories
General knowledge
Familiarity

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73
Q

What are examples of semantic memories? (H: 2 items)

A

Capital of Cuba
Remembering your friend’s name

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74
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Memory for personal events

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75
Q

Describe episodic memory (H: 4 items)

A

Have context
Personal memories
Remembering
Mental time travel

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76
Q

What are examples of episodic memories? (H: 2 items)

A

10th birthday party
College graduation

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77
Q

How are semantic and episodic memory connected? (H: 2 items)

A

Autobiographical memories are specific experiences containing both semantic and episodic memories
Personal semantic memories are semantic memories that have personal significance

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78
Q

What is non-declarative memory?

A

Memory that unconsciously influences behavior

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79
Q

Describe non-declarative memory (H: 4 items)

A

Procedural Memory
Repetition Priming
Classical Conditioning
Non-Associative Learning

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80
Q

What are examples of non-declarative memories? (H: 2 items)

A

Riding a bike
Knowing how to use scissors

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81
Q

What is priming?

A

Previous experience changes response without conscious awareness

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82
Q

Describe priming

A

Improves processing of a stimulus when it’s repeated again

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83
Q

What are examples of priming? (H: 2 items)

A

Responding milk after saying silk 10 times after being asked what a cow drinks
Saying pepper after hearing salt

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84
Q

What is procedural memory?

A

Memory for actions (motor and cognitive skills)

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85
Q

Describe procedural memory (H: 2 items)

A

No memory of where or when learned
Perform procedures without being consciously aware of how to do them

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86
Q

What are examples of procedural memories? (H: 2 items)

A

Tying your shoe
Playing an instrument

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87
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Creating associations between stimuli which creates a naturally occurring response

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88
Q

Describe classical conditioning (H: 2 items)

A

You can condition an emotional response to a stimulus
You can condition a muscular response

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89
Q

How are declarative and non-declarative memory connected?

A

Both are memory systems that contribute to our cognitive functioning

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90
Q

What is the propaganda effect?

A

More likely to rate statements read or heard before as being true

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91
Q

Describe the propaganda effect (H: 2 items)

A

This occurs even when people are told the information is false
This occurs outside of people’s conscious awareness

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92
Q

What are examples of the propaganda effect? (H: 2 items)

A

Political campaigns
Advertisements

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93
Q

Describe Atkinson and Shiffrin’s Modal Model of Memory

A

They proposed that memory goes through a series of stages

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94
Q

Identify each state in the Modal Model of Memory (H: Image)

A

Input
Sensory Memory
Short-Term Memory
- Rehearsal
- Output
Long-Term Memory

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95
Q

Describe how information moves through these different states

A

Attention controls the transfer of information from sensory memory to short-term memory
Maintenance rehearsal keeps information in short-term memory
Elaborative rehearsal moves information from short-term memory to long-term memory

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96
Q

Describe interacting memory systems

A

Memory involves a collection of memory systems that interact to support cognition
- Medial temporal lobe (MTL) structures are involved in declarative tasks
- Caudate nucleus (part of striatum) is involved in non-declarative tasks

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97
Q

Describe habit learning (H: 3 items)

A

Focuses on the formation and expression of habits through repeated actions and reinforcement
- Early Learning: Medial Temporal Lobe
- Late Learning: Striatum
- Automaticity: Motor Cortex

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98
Q

What is the serial position curve?

A

A curve relating the percentage of words recalled by the number of words in the list

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99
Q

Describe the serial position curve

A

There’s greater accuracy of words from the beginning and end of the list than words from the middle of the list

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100
Q

What is the primacy effect?

A

Enhanced memory for words presented at the beginning of a list

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101
Q

Why does the primacy effect occur?

A

Thought to occur because these items are the most rehearsed in the list and these items move into long-term memory

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102
Q

What is the recency effect?

A

Enhanced memory for words presented at the end of a list

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103
Q

Why does the recency effect occur? (H: 2 items)

A

Thought to occur because these words are still in short-term memory
Can be eliminated by putting in a 30-second delay between presentation of the list and recall

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104
Q

Describe the constructive approach to memory

A

Memory is what actually happened plus knowledge, experiences, and expectations

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105
Q

What is autobiographical memory?

A

Memory for dated events in a person’s life

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106
Q

What are examples of autobiographical memories? (H: 2 items)

A

Birth of your child
Wedding day

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107
Q

What is the reminiscence bump?

A

People over the age of 40 have enhanced memory for events from adolescence and early adulthood

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108
Q

What are examples of the reminiscence bump? (H: 2 items)

A

College years
New career

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109
Q

Describe an experiment illustrating the reminiscence bump

A

Participants over the age of 40 were asked to recall events in their lives

Results: Memory is high for recent events and for events that occurred in adolescence and early adulthood (10-30 years of age)

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110
Q

What is a flashbulb memory?

A

Memory for circumstances surrounding shocking, highly charged events

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111
Q

What are examples of flashbulb memories? (H: 2 items)

A

9/11
JFK assassination

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112
Q

Describe an experiment testing flashbulb memories

A

Participants were asked to give an initial description (baseline) of 9/11 and then later asked to give a description again, which was compared to baseline

Results
- Memories can be inaccurate or lacking in detail
- Even though participants report that the memories seem very vivid and that they are very confident

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113
Q

What is source monitoring?

A

Process of determining the origins of our memories

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114
Q

Describe an experiment showing errors in source monitoring

A

Acquisition: Participants were asked to read non-famous names

Immediate Test: Read non-famous names plus new non-famous and new famous names and asked to identify which are famous
- Result: Most non-famous names were correctly identified as non-famous

Delayed Test (After 24 hrs): Same as intermediate test
- Result: Some non-famous names were misidentified as famous

Explanation: Some non-famous names were familiar, and the participants misattributed the source of the familiarity
- Failed to identify the source as the list that had been read the previous day

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115
Q

What is false memory?

A

Someone recalls something that didn’t happen or recalls it differently from how it happened

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116
Q

Describe false memory (H: 2 items)

A

It’s possible for memories of abuse to have been forgotten for a long time to be remembered
It’s possible to construct convincing psuedomemories for events that never occurred

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117
Q

Describe an experiment demonstrating how false memories can be
created

A

Participants’ parents gave descriptions of childhood experiences
Participant had conversation about experiences with experimenter; experimenter added new events

Results: When discussing it later, some participants “remembered” the new events as actually happening

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118
Q

What is a script?

A

Conception of sequence of actions that occur during a particular experience

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119
Q

What are examples of scripts? (H: 2 items)

A

Going to the restaurant
Going to the dentist

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120
Q

What is a schema?

A

Knowledge about what’s involved in a particular experience

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121
Q

What are examples of schemas? (H: 2 items)

A

Post office
Ball game

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122
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Reasoning that involves syllogisms in which a conclusion logically follows from premises

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123
Q

Describe deductive reasoning? (H: 2 items)

A

Conclusion is stated as definitely being true
Moves from general statements to specific instances

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124
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

Reasoning in which a conclusion follows from a consideration of evidence

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125
Q

Describe inductive reasoning (H: 2 items)

A

Conclusion is stated as probably being true
Moves from specific instances to general statements

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126
Q

How are deductive and inductive reasoning connected?

A

Both forms of reasoning make conclusions based on evidence

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127
Q

What is a categorical syllogism?

A

A syllogism in which the premises and conclusion describe the relationship between two categories by using statements that begin with all, no, or some

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128
Q

What is a conditional syllogism?

A

Syllogism with two premises and a conclusion, whose first premise is an “If…then…” statement

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129
Q

What is validity?

A

Quality of a syllogism whose conclusions follow logically from the premises

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130
Q

What are the different ways to identify if a syllogism is valid or invalid? (H: 4 items)

A

Affirming the Antecedent
Denying the Consequent
Affirming the Consequent
Denying the Antecedent

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131
Q

Describe affirming the antecedent

A

P1: If p, then q
P2: p
C: q
Valid

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132
Q

Describe denying the consequent

A

P1: If p, then q
P2: Not q
C: Not p
Valid

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133
Q

Describe affirming the consequent

A

P1: If p, then q
P2: q
C: p
Invalid

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134
Q

Describe denying the antecedent

A

P1: If p, then q
P2: Not p
C: Not q
Invalid

135
Q

What is the Wason Four Card Task? (H: 2 items)

A

Participants are provided with a rule and they have to indicate which cards need to be turned over
To test the rule, it’s necessary to look for situations that would falsify the rule

136
Q

Describe how performance differs when using abstract vs. concrete examples with the Wason Four Card task

A

Performance was much better on concrete, real-world version of the task than the abstract version

137
Q

What is a heuristic?

A

A rule of thumb that may lead to a solution reasonably quickly with relatively low computational costs

138
Q

Describe heuristics?

A

Fast and fugal

139
Q

What is a bias?

A

A tendency to make systematic errors based on cognitive factors instead of evidence

140
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

Basing judgments of the frequency of events on what events come to mind

141
Q

What are examples of the availability heuristic? (H: 2 items)

A

Asthma leads to more deaths than tornadoes
Appendicitis leads to more deaths than pregnancy

142
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic?

A

The probability than an event A comes from class B can be determined by how well A resembles the properties of class B

143
Q

What are examples of the representativeness heuristic? (H: 2 items)

A

Someone in a suit and tie carrying a briefcase is a lawyer
Someone tall is a basketball player

144
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

The tendency to selectively look for information that conforms to our hypothesis and to overlook information that argues against it

145
Q

What’s an example of confirmation bias?

A

Political agendas

146
Q

What is illusory correlations?

A

A correlation that appears to exist between two events, when in reality there is no correlation or it’s weaker than it’s assumed to be

147
Q

Describe illusory correlations

A

Stereotypes
- Selective attention to stereotypical behaviors makes the behaviors more available

148
Q

What’s an example of an illusory correlation?

A

Women are bad at math

149
Q

What is the endowment effect?

A

If you have something, you want to keep it

150
Q

Describe the endowment effect

A

If people have the item they’re less likely to give it away, given the choice of another item

151
Q

What’s an example of the endowment effect?

A

Very few people wanted to trade if they were given $2 dollars vs a lottery ticket

152
Q

What is base-rate?

A

The relative proportions of different classes in a population

153
Q

How does base-rate influence reasoning? (H: 3 items)

A

Failure to consider base rates often leads to errors in reasoning
People make better decisions when given only base rate information
Adding descriptive information reduces the use of base rate information

154
Q

What is anchoring and adjustment?

A

People start with an implicitly state reference point (”the anchor”) and make adjustments to reach their estimate

155
Q

What’s an example of anchoring and adjustment?

A

Car salesmen

156
Q

What is utility?

A

Outcomes that achieve a person’s goals

157
Q

What is delay discounting?

A

The tendency to consider later rewards as less valuable (or discount later rewards)

158
Q

Describe delay discounting

A

Often associated with impulsivity, delayed gratification, and self-control

159
Q

What factors influence delay discounting? (H: 3 items)

A

Socioeconomic Status
Peer Pressure
Power

160
Q

Describe an experiment demonstrating power in delay discounting

A

Participants assigned to manager (high-power) or worker (low-power)
- Manager assigned tasks to workers
- Workers had no say in the tasks assigned to them

Results: Managers showed less delay discounting than workers on monetary discounting task

161
Q

What is risky decision-making?

A

A decision where the outcome is uncertain

162
Q

What is risk?

A

Making a decision where the outcomes have a probability

163
Q

What is ambiguity

A

Making a decision where the probability of outcomes is unknown

164
Q

What do people tend to prefer when making decisions?

A

People tend to prefer risky choices to ambiguous choices

165
Q

What is risk aversion?

A

The tendency to avoid taking risks

166
Q

When are people more risk-averse?

A

when the problem is stated in terms of gains

167
Q

What is risk-seeking?

A

The tendency to take risks

168
Q

When are people more risk-seeking?

A

when the problem is stated in terms of losses

169
Q

What is system 1 processing?

A

A process where we make a fast, automatic, and unconscious decision

170
Q

Describe system 1 processing (H: 3 items)

A

High capacity
Evolutionary “old”
Independent of intelligence and working memory

171
Q

What’s an example of system 1 processing?

A

Bat and ball question

172
Q

What is system 2 processing?

A

A process where we make a slow, controlled, and conscious decision

173
Q

Describe system 2 processing (H: 3 items)

A

Low capacity
Evolutionary “new”
Linked to intelligence and working memory

174
Q

What’s an example of system 2 processing?

A

Multiplying large numbers

175
Q

How are system 1 and system 2 processing connected?

A

Both systems of processing help us make decisions, but they’re also susceptible to errors

176
Q

What is neuroeconomics?

A

An interdisciplinary field that examines how people make economic decisions using a variety of methods from economics, psychology, and neuroscience

177
Q

Describe neuroeconomics

A

Young field

178
Q

What brain regions are involved in representing subjective value? (H: 3 items)

A

Ventral Striatum (VS)
Medial Prefrontal Cortex (MPFC)
Posterior Cingulate Cortex (PCC)

179
Q

What is computational modeling?

A

A mapping or transformation between a set of stimulus inputs and a set of behavioral responses

180
Q

Describe computational modeling (H: 2 items)

A

Attempts to mathematically model cognitive tasks
The goal is to scientifically explain one or more of these basic processes or explain how these processes interact

181
Q

What fields use computational modeling? (H: 6 items)

A

Clinical Psychologists
Cognitive Neuroscientists
Aging Researchers
Human Factors Researchers
Decision Researchers
AI and Robotics Researchers

182
Q

What are the steps to make a cognitive model? (H: 5 items)

A

Step 1: Take conceptual theoretical framework and reformulate its assumptions into more rigorous mathematical or computer language
Step 2: Make additional detailed assumptions to complete the model
Step 3: Estimate parameters using data
Step 4: Compare the predictions of computing models with respect to their ability to explain empirical results
Step 5: Reformulate the theoretical framework and construct new models in light of the feedback from empirical results

183
Q

What is value function?

A

Estimate the reward associated with decision options

184
Q

Describe how value functions are used in cognitive models (H: 2 items)

A

Description: Make decisions based on information given to them
Experience: Make decisions based on previous experiences based on the choice

Decisions from a description and an experience can lead to dramatically different choice behaviors

185
Q

What is reinforcement learning?

A

The algorithm receives feedback and uses that feedback to adjust its predictions through trial and error

186
Q

Describe reinforcement learning (H: 2 items)

A

The goal is to maximize cumulative rewards
One way to maximize cumulative rewards is to calculate value functions

187
Q

What is exploitation?

A

When an agent takes advantage of prior knowledge by repeating actions that lead to an acceptable award

188
Q

What is exploration?

A

When an agent samples from a set of actions to learn what action lead to the best reward

189
Q

How are exploration and exploitation connected?

A

Both are looking to get the best reward and maximize value

190
Q

What is greedy?

A

The simplest action selection rule is to pick the action with the highest estimated value

191
Q

What is e-greedy?

A

Attempts to balance between exploration and exploitation by choosing randomly between these two policies

192
Q

Describe e-greedy

A

Refers to the probability of choosing to explore, with exploitation occurring most of the time

193
Q

What is softmax?

A

The greedy action selection is given the highest selection probability, but all the others are ranked and weight according to their value estimates

194
Q

What are the steps for model comparison? (H: 2 items)

A

Step 1: Find the best-fitting model parameters for each model under consideration
Step 2: Compare the accuracy of the predictions of each model using optimal parameters

Consider model complexity - simpler models are preferred

195
Q

What is model-based fMRI?

A

Estimates of latent variables such as value or RPE are used as predictors of BOLD signals

196
Q

What are the steps of model-based fMRI? (H: 4 items)

A

Step 1: Fit model to behavior
Step 2: Generate SV time series
Step 3: Convolve time series with HRF
Step 4: Regress against fMRI data

197
Q

How can computational models be used to examine individual differences? (H: 2 items)

A

Best-Fitting Model
Best-Fitting Parameters

198
Q

What is the best-fitting model?

A

Tell us how individuals differ in their cognitive strategies

199
Q

What is the best-fitting parameter?

A

Tell us how individuals differ in their ability to implement a strategy

200
Q

What is consciousness?

A

State of awareness of sensations or ideas

201
Q

Describe consciousness

A

Awareness of external events, internal sensations, yourself as a unique being having sensations, and your thoughts about those experiences
Components
- Wakefulness: Level of arousal or alertness
- Awareness: Clarity or specificity of content in consciousness

202
Q

What is attention?

A

Process of concentrating on specific features of the environment or on certain thoughts or activities

203
Q

Describe attention (H: 3 items)

A

Selective
Limited
Both top-down and bottom-up

204
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Ability to focus on one message and ignore all others

205
Q

Describe selective attention (H: 2 items)

A

We don’t attend to a large fraction of the information in the environment
Filtering out some information and promoting other information for further processing

206
Q

What are the models of attention? (H: 5 items)

A

Metaphor Models
- Spotlight Model
- Zoom-Lens Model
Filter Models
- Early Selection Model
- Intermediate Selection Model
- Late Selection Model

207
Q

Describe the spotlight model (H: 3 items)

A

The center of attention has high resolution
Events on the periphery are blurry
Events outside the margin are unattended

208
Q

Describe the zoom-lens model (H: 2 items)

A

Similar to spotlight model
Ability to change size

209
Q

Describe the early selection model (H: 5 items)

A

Filters message before incoming information is analyzed for meaning
- Sensory Memory: Holds all information for a fraction of a second
- Filter: Identifies attended message based on physical characteristics
- Detector: Processes all information to determine higher-level characteristics of the message
- Short-Term Memory: Receives output of detector

210
Q

Describe the intermediate selection model (H: 2 items)

A

Attended message can be separated from unattended message early in the information-processing system
Selection can also occur later

211
Q

Describe the late selection model

A

Selection of stimuli for final processing doesn’t occur until after information has been analyzed for meaning

212
Q

Describe the Simon effect

A

The difference between congruent and incongruent reaction times
- Circle and location match

213
Q

Describe the Stroop effect

A

The difference between congruent and incongruent reaction times
- Word and color match

214
Q

Describe Cherry’s dichotic listening experiment

A

One message is presented to the left ear and another to the right ear
Participant “shadows” one message to ensure their attending to that message

Results
- Participants couldn’t report the content of the message in unattended ear
– Knew that there was a message
– Knew the gender of the speaker
- However unattended ear is being processed at the same level
– Change in gender is noticed
– Change in tone is noticed
– Cocktail Party Effect

215
Q

What is the cocktail party effect?

A

The ability to follow one conversation in the presence of many other conversations

216
Q

What is automatic processing?

A

Occurs without intention and only uses some of a person’s cognitive resources

217
Q

What’s an example of automatic processing?

A

Riding a bike

218
Q

What is controlled processing?

A

Occurs with intention and requires us to think about situations, evaluate and make decisions

219
Q

What’s an example of controlled processing?

A

Driving to a new place

220
Q

What is inattentional blindness?

A

A stimulus that’s not attended to isn’t perceived, even though a person might be looking directly at it

221
Q

What’s an example of inattentional blindness?

A

Not noticing a bike while driving

222
Q

What is change blindness?

A

If shown two versions of a picture, differences between them aren’t immediately apparent

223
Q

What’s an example of change blindness?

A

Traffic light changing after blinking

224
Q

What is covert attention?

A

The ability to focus on a subject mentally without corresponding eye movements

225
Q

What’s an example of covert attention?

A

Listening to a conversation without looking at the speakers

226
Q

What is overt attention?

A

Occurs when the eyes move towards the subject of attention

227
Q

What’s an example of overt attention?

A

Turning your head to listen to a conversation

228
Q

What is mental imagery?

A

Experiencing a sensory impression in the absence of sensory input

229
Q

Describe mental imagery? (H: 3 items)

A

Visual Imagery: “Seeing” in the absence of a visual stimulus
Auditory Imagery: “Hearing” in the absence of an auditory stimulus
Imagery is often used to improve performance
- Athletes and musicians use imagery to rehearse

230
Q

What is Pavio’s Dual Coding Hypothesis?

A

Cognition is divided into visual and verbal processing systems

231
Q

Describe Pavio’s Dual Coding Hypothesis (H: 3 items)

A

Concrete Words: Encoded both verbally and visually
Abstract Words: Encoded only verbally
Memory for words that evoke mental images is better than those that don’t

232
Q

What is the conceptual-peg hypothesis?

A

Concrete nouns create images that other words can hang onto, enhancing memory for these words

233
Q

How does the conceptual-peg hypothesis apply?

A

Tree and Desk vs Truth and Justice

234
Q

What is spatial representation?

A

A phenomenon that accompanies a mechanism but isn’t actually part of the mechanism

235
Q

Describe spatial representation (H: 2 items)

A

Related to the phenomenon under study but aren’t directly involved in the causal chain
Pictures

236
Q

What is propositional representation?

A

A mental representation in which relationships are portrayed by symbols

237
Q

Describe propositional representation

A

Symbols and language

238
Q

How are spatial and propositional representation connected?

A

They both allow us to create mental simulations

239
Q

Describe Kosslyn’s mental scanning experiments

A

Participants memorized and island with 7 locations and were told to make 21 trips between the different locations

Results: It took longer to scan between greater distances

240
Q

Describe Shepard and Metzler’s mental rotation experiment

A

Participants mentally rotated one object to see if it matched another object

Results: The time to respond strongly correlated with the angle of rotation

241
Q

Describe perception

A

Automatic and stable

242
Q

Describe imagery (H: 2 items)

A

Takes effort and is fragile
Has less detail

243
Q

How are imagery and perception connected? (H: 3 items)

A

Both imagery and and perception are spatial
Brain activity in the visual area plays a role in both
Unilateral neglect occurs in both

244
Q

Describe evidence from fMRI about perception and imagery (H: 3 items)

A

Studies are correlational
These results don’t prove that the brain activity causes imagery
Brain activation could be epiphenomenon

245
Q

Describe evidence from TMS about perception and imagery

A

TMS to the visual area of the brain during perception and imagery task → Slower response time for both

246
Q

Describe evidence from neurophysiological studies about perception and imagery (H: 2 items)

A

Patient M.G.S.
- Patient had surgery to remove part of the visual cortex
- Estimate changed on mental walk task with surgery suggesting visual cortex is necessary for imagery

Unilateral Neglect: Patient ignores objects in one half of the visual field
- Appears to occur in both perception and imagery

247
Q

What is the hedonic prinicple?

A

All people are motivated to experience pleasure and avoid pain

248
Q

Describe the hedonic principle (H: 3 items)

A

Emotion as a “fitness-meter”
- It guides us towards good things
- It guides us away from bad things
- It also creates unjust biases

249
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard Theory?

A

Events cause both arousal and emotion at the same time

250
Q

What are the stages of the Cannon-Bard Theory? (H: 2 items)

A

Event → Arousal and Emotion

251
Q

What is the James-Lange Theory?

A

Events cause physiological arousal, and emotion is the interpretation of this arousal

252
Q

What are the stages of the James-Lange Theory? (H: 4 items)

A

Event → Arousal → Interpretation → Emotion

253
Q

What is the Two-Factor Theory?

A

Emotion is determined by both physiological state and cognitive appraisal of the situation

254
Q

What are the stages of the Two-Factor Theory? (H: 4 items)

A

Event → Arousal → Cognitive Appraisal → Emotion

255
Q

How does emotion interact with cognition? (H: 3 items)

A

It guides us towards good things
- Attractive mates
It guides us away from bad things
- Moldy food and poisonous insects
It creates unjust biases
- Stereotypes

256
Q

What are the six universal emotions?

A

Anger
Fear
Disgust
Surprise
Happiness
Sadness

257
Q

What is motivation?

A

The orienting and invigorating impact of prospective reward on behavior

258
Q

Describe motivation (H: 2 items)

A

Extrinsic rewards are tangible, external rewards
Intrinsic rewards are intangible, internal rewards

259
Q

How does motivation interact with cognition?

A

More motivation can lead to an increase in selective attention, memory and creativity

260
Q

What is the Papez Circuit?

A

Emotional responses involve a circuit of brain regions; hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus and hippocampus

261
Q

Describe the Papez Circuit (H: 2 items)

A

Stream of Feeling: Stimulus → Thalamus → Hypothalamus → Body Reaction
Stream of Thought: Stimulus → Thalamus → Cortex

262
Q

What is the MacLean’s Triune Brain?

A

Added additional regions to the Papez circuit; amygdala, OFC and basal ganglia

263
Q

Describe the MacLean’s Triune Brain (H: 3 items)

A

Lizard Brain: “Primitive” emotions like fear
“Old” Mammalian Brain: Augments lizard brain responses and includes much of the Papez circuit + amygdala PFC, hippocampus
“New” Mammalian Brain: Interfaces with cognition, exerts top-down control, made up of the neocortex

264
Q

Describe the dopamine system

A

In the reward pathway, the production of dopamine takes place in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and from there it’s released into the nucleus accumbens and prefrontal cortex

265
Q

How is dopamine linked to reward anticipation and reward receipt? (H: 2 items)

A

Dopamine neurons encode rewards and reward prediction error
Nucleus accumbens is strongly innervated by dopamine neurons from the VTA and it shows response to receiving a reward and during the anticipation of receiving a reward

266
Q

Where is the nucleus accumbens located?

A

Subcortical brain structure located within the ventral striatum

267
Q

What is the function of the nucleus accumbens? (H: 3 items)

A

Plays a major role in reward
- Strongly innervated by dopamine neurons from the VTA
- Shows response to receiving a reward and during the anticipation of receiving a reward

268
Q

Where is the amygdala located?

A

Almond-shaped cluster of nuclei located in the temporal lobe

269
Q

What is the function of the amygdala? (H: 4 items)

A

Involved in memory, learning, decision making and emotion

270
Q

Where is the insula located?

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex located within the lateral sulcus

271
Q

What is the function of the insula? (H: 5 items)

A

Linked to consciousness, emotion, homeostasis, empathy and perception of taste

272
Q

How is the amygdala linked to fear conditioning?

A

Damage to the amygdala impairs fear conditioning

273
Q

How is the amygdala linked to emotional memory?

A

The amygdala modulates the strength of declarative memories

274
Q

Describe Kluver-Bucy syndrome (H: 3 items)

A

Caused by bilateral lesions of the amygdala
Results in psychic blindness and dampening of emotional expression, in particular fear
“Discovered” in 1930s when Kluver and Bucy removed the temporal lobes of a rhesus monkey and noted unusual emotional responses

275
Q

How is the insula linked to disgust? (H: 3 items)

A

Insula activations were correlated with subjective feelings of disgust
Patient N.K. was unable to categorize disgust after having shown a loss of anterior insula
Feeling of disgust and recognition is disgust in anterior insula

276
Q

What is self-referential processing?

A

Relating information from the external world to our self

277
Q

Describe self-referential processing

A

Self-Reference Effect: Memory for a word is improved by relating the word to the self

278
Q

What brain regions are associated with self-referential processing? (H: 2 items)

A

Medial Prefrontal Cortex (mPFC)
Posterior Cingulate Cortex (PCC)

279
Q

What is Theory of Mind?

A

The ability to attribute separate mental states to oneself and to others

280
Q

Describe Theory of Mind (H: 2 items)

A

Mental States: Beliefs, intents, desires, knowledge
Mindblindness: The inability to develop an awareness of what is in the mind of others

281
Q

What brain regions are associated with Theory of Mind? (H: 3 items)

A

PCC
mPFC
TPJ

282
Q

What is the default mode network?

A

Active when people are not focused on the outside world - daydreaming and mind wandering - “at rest”

283
Q

Describe the default mode network

A

Decreases activity when given an attention-demanding task

284
Q

What brain regions are associated with the default mode network? (H: 3 items)

A

mPFC
PCC
Angular Gyrus

285
Q

What is empathy?

A

The ability to understand share the feelings of others

286
Q

Describe empathy (H: 4 items)

A

An interaction between mentalizing, experience sharing and prosocial concern
Emotional Contagion: One person’s emotional state influencing those around them
Sympathetic Concern: Experiencing someone else’s distress or concern for someone else’s well-being
Perspective Talking: Understanding someone’s point of view

287
Q

What is social decision making?

A

Decisions that are made in the context of social interactions

288
Q

Describe social decision making

A

Include concepts like trust, reciprocity, fairness, revenge, etc.

289
Q

What is moral decision making?

A

How we produce a reasonable and defensible answer to an ethical dilemma

290
Q

Describe moral decision making

A

Often studied using classical hypothetical dilemmas and dishonesty

291
Q

What is individualism?

A

Views individuals as stable entities who are autonomous from others

292
Q

Describe individualism (H: 2 items)

A

More prevalent in western cultures
More likely to use context-independent/analytical processing

293
Q

What is collectivism?

A

Views individuals as dynamic entities who are continually defined by their social context and relationships

294
Q

Describe collectivism (H: 2 items)

A

More prevalent in eastern cultures
More likely to use context-dependent/holistic processing

295
Q

How are individualism and collectivism connected?

A

They both focus on the relationship of the individual to the society and are influenced by cultural norms

296
Q

How does culture interact with cognition? (H: 3 items)

A

Culture has an impact on change blindness, categorization and decision making

297
Q

Describe an example of how culture interacts with cognition

A

Change Blindness
- Participants presented with two pictures and then a subsequent picture for each one (4 total)

Results
- Japan (eastern) more likely to identify changes in background
- USA (western) more likely to identify changes in focal object information

298
Q

Information remains in sensory memory for

A

seconds or a fraction of a second

299
Q

Research suggests that the capacity of short-term memory is

A

somewhat small, holding only about seven items at once

300
Q

Working memory differs from short-term memory in that

A

working memory is engaged in processing information

301
Q

Rehearsal is important for transferring information from

A

short-term memory to long-term memory

302
Q

Acquiring information and transforming it into long-term memory is

A

encoding

303
Q

The process of pulling information out of long-term memory is

A

retrieval

304
Q

_____ transforms new memories from a fragile state, in which they can be disrupted, to a more permanent state, in which they are resistant to disruption

A

Consolidation

305
Q

Believing that a particular statement is true simply because you have seen the statement in previous instances is known as the _____ effect

A

propaganda

306
Q

For most adults over age 40, the reminiscence bump describes enhanced memory for

A

adolescence and young adulthood

307
Q

The misinformation effect occurs when a person’s memory for an event is modified by misleading information presented

A

after the event

308
Q

Your text discusses how episodic and semantic memories are interconnected. This discussion revealed that when we experience events,

A

the knowledge that makes up semantic memories is initially attained through a personal experience based in episodic memory

309
Q

Of the following real-world phenomena, the confirmation bias best explains the observation that people

A

can site several reasons for their position on a controversial issue but none for the opposing side

310
Q

Consider the following conditional syllogism:
Premise 1: If I don’t eat lunch today, I will be hungry tonight
Premise 2: I ate lunch today
Conclusion: Therefore, I wasn’t hungry tonight

This syllogism is

A

invalid

311
Q

Utility refers to

A

outcomes that achieve a person’s goals

312
Q

What is the difference between risk and ambiguity?

A

Under risk, probabilities are known; under ambiguity, probabilities are unknown

313
Q

_____ is an interdisciplinary field that examines how people make decisions using a variety of methods from economics, psychology, and neuroscience

A

Neuroeconomics

314
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of cognitive computational models?

A

Computational models can be applied to any type of data

315
Q

Which action selection algorithm periodically explores the environment, but takes into account that some alternative actions are better than others?

A

Softmax Algorithm

316
Q

How do we compare computational models?

A

Find the best-fitting model parameters for each model and compare the accuracy of each model using the optimal parameters

317
Q

What type of learning is reinforcement learning?

A

Supervised Learning

318
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way computational models have been used?

A

To estimate machine breakage

319
Q

Mental scanning experiments found

A

a direct relationship between scanning time and distance on the image

320
Q

Research on the use of cell phones while driving indicates that

A

the main effect of cell phone use on driving safety can be attributed to the fact that attention is used up by the cognitive task of talking on the phone

321
Q

The “filter model” proposes that the filter identifies the attended message based on

A

physical characteristics

322
Q

The Stroop effect demonstrates people’s inability to ignore the _____ of words

A

meaning

323
Q

A high threshold in Treisman’s model of attention implies that

A

it takes a strong signal to cause activation

324
Q

How is the Two-Factor Theory of emotion different from the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?

A

Emotion is determined by both physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal

325
Q

What is the order of events according to the James-Lange Theory of emotion?

A

Event → Arousal → Interpretation → Emotion

326
Q

_____ states that all people are motivated to experience pleasure and avoid pain

A

The Hedonic Principle

327
Q

Where did the idea of the limbic system as the single system of emotion come from?

A

James Papez first linked these regions of the brain to emotion

328
Q

Modern approaches to affective neuroscience suggest

A

multiple networks in the brain are responsible for emotion

329
Q

_____ decision making is how we produce a reasonable and defensible answer to an ethical dilemma

A

Moral

330
Q

Sanfey and coworkers’ “ultimatum game” experiment revealed that people tended to make the _____ decision of _____

A

irrational; accepting only high offers

331
Q

_____ is the ability to attribute separate mental states to oneself and to others

A

Theory of Mind

332
Q

Which regions of the brain are involved in processing self-referential judgments?

A

PCC
mPFC
TPJ

333
Q

Which regions of the brain are involved in representing theory of mind?

A

PCC
mPFC
TPJ

Cognitive Science (2 decks)

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