Final Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac Output

A

4-8 L/min
Amount of blood pumped from left ventricle in 1 minute
SV x HR

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2
Q

Cardiac Index

A
2.2 - 4
< 1.5 = grave prognosis
1.5 - 2.0 = cardiogenic shock
more accurate
cardiac output based on body surface area
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3
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

2-6 mm Hg
preload for right side of heart
fluid volume status
low CVP indicates the patient is hypovolemic
high CVP indicates the patient is hypervolemic

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4
Q

Pulmonary Artery Pressure (PAP)

A

15/5

25/15

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5
Q

Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)

A

4-12 mm Hg
indicates left ventricle preload
PAD pressure equivalent when no pulmonary disease is present

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6
Q

Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)

A

afterload for left ventricle

800 - 1400 dynes/sec

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7
Q

Pulmonary Vascular Resistance (PVR)

A

afterload for right ventricle

100 - 250 dynes/sec

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8
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

initial stage

A
Decreased cardiac output
S/S:
systolic BP <90
decreased LOC
pale, cool, moist skin
decreased urine output
chest pain (not absolute)
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9
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

compensatory phase

A
SNS initiated
S/S:
tachycardia
tachypnea
crackles (LV failure)
s3 and s4 (LV failure)
peripheral edema (RV failure)
JVD (RV failure)
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10
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

Progressive stage

A
Continued myocardial ischemia
-dysrrhythmias
-chest pain
respiratory distress
-metabolic and respiratory acidosis
-hypoxia
neurologic deterioration
-decreased LOC
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11
Q

Medical Management of Cardiogenic Shock

A
Medical management
treat underlying cause
pharmacologic agents
angioplasty
enhance effectiveness of pump
increase oxygen supply
decrease oxygen demand
improve tissue perfusion
IAPB
VAD
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12
Q

Intra-aortic balloon pump

use

A

improves coronary artery perfusion
inflated during diastole
decreases after load
used for heart failure, cardiomyopathy

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13
Q

When caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock your first nursing priority would be:

A

to administer IV fluids and (positive) inotropic agents

positive inotropic agents improve cardiac contractility. ex: digoxin, milritrone, and dobutamine

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14
Q

Adenosine (Adenocard)

A

antidysrhythmic to treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
slows conduction through AV node, interrupts dysrhythmia producing re-entry pathways and can restore NSR
cardiac monitoring and vital signs
S/E: hypotension, dysrhythmias, short period of asystole following injection
Push FAST!

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15
Q

Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin)

A

antidysrhythmic to treat supraventricular tachydysrhythmias (SVT)
calcium channel blocker (negative chronotropic and inotropic) also used to treat angina
monitor HR and BP
S/E:
headache, bradycardia and hypotension

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16
Q

Diltiazem (Cardizem, Dilacor XR)

A

antidysrhythmic to treate PSVT, A fib/flutter (with increased rate)
calcium channel blocker (negative chronotropic and inotropic agent) also used to treat angina
Monitor BP and HR
S/E:
myocardial depression, bradycardia and can increase digoxin levels

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17
Q

Lidocaine

A

Antidysrhytmic to treat ventricular dysrhythmias
a fast sodium channel blocker, class 1B
local anesthetic effect on heart; decreased myocardial inability
monitor cardiac and assess for s/s of toxicity (confusion, drowsiness, hearing impairment, conduction defects, myocardial depression, muscle
metabolized in the liver

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18
Q

P Wave

A

First wave in cardiac cycle
denotes depolarization of atria
measures: no more than 0.11 sec long and 0.2 - 0.3 v in height
upright = normal depolarization from atria
inverted = coming from AV node

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19
Q

During physical assessment of patient with the nurse would suspect A fib when palpation of the radial pulse reveals:

A

an irregular pulse rhythm
A fib = irregularly, irregular pulse
no regularity to rhythm

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20
Q

Stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected per heartbeat

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21
Q

A client who is hemorrhaging has decreased preload. What physiologic event will follow?

A

Decreased cardiac output

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22
Q

Normal ejection fraction

A

50-70

percentage of blood ejected with systole

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23
Q

Which of the following discharge instructions should the nurse stress to a patient with stable angina?

A

sit or lie down when taking sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG)
coronary vasodilator, also dilates vessels in brain, can cause dizziness, risk for falling
If on patch, patch on 12 and off 12
If pain not controlled after first dose, call 9-1-1 and take second dose

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24
Q

PR Interval (PRI)

A

P wave with adjoining straight, flat line
Denotes time from SA node to AV node
measures 0.12 - 0.20

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25
Q

QRS Complex

A

Depolarization of the ventricles

measures <0.10

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26
Q

ST segment

A

early phase of ventricular depolarization
measures 0.12 seconds or less
T wave is actual ventricular repolarization phase
T wave measures: 0.20 seconds or less

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27
Q

QT Interval

A

Ventricular depolarization through ventricular depolarization
Mesures: 0.36 - 0.44 seconds

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28
Q

EKG Time and Measurements

A

small squares = 0.04 seconds
large squares = 0.20 seconds
5 small squares = 1 large square

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29
Q

To calculate the rate with EKG

A
# of R to R intervals in 6 second strip and multiply by 10
# of large boxes between 2 QRS complexes and divide by 300
# small boxes between 2 QRS complexes and divide by 1500
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30
Q

Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC)

A

ectopic (irritable) foci in ventricular myocardium
initiates depolarization from cell to cell, not via a pathway
etiology: hypoxia, ischemia, electrolyte imbalance, acid - base imbalance

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31
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia

A

Etiology:
same as PVCs
allowed to repeatedly occur

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32
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

Etiology:
multiple foci independently causing separate sections of ventricular myocardium to contract in unorganized fashion
VT frequently proceeds to V fib

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33
Q

Asystole

A

lack of electrical activity
“flat line”
may masquerade as fine v-fib
verify in two separate leads

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34
Q

The best indicator of fluid balance is:

A

weight

2.2 lb = 1 kg = 1 L of fluid

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35
Q

Heart failure

A

inability of the heart to work effectively as a pump

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36
Q

On initial assessment of a patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse would most likely find:

A

hypertension
cardiac arrhythmias
sympathetic nervous system kicks in and causes HTN and tachycardia

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37
Q

Left Sided Heart Failure

A

AKA congestive heart failure
typically caused by: hypertensive, coronary arter, valvular disease
2 types: systolic and diastolic

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38
Q

Right-Sided Heart Failure

A

Causes: left ventricular failure, right ventricular MI, pulmonary hypertension
Right ventricle cannot empty completely
Increased volume and pressure in venous system and peripheral edema

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39
Q

When teaching a patient about complications of A fib, the nurse understands that the complications can be caused by:

A

statsis of blood in the atria

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40
Q

In planning care for a patient with acure myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse identifies the highest priority goal of care as:

A

relief of pain

pain indicates ischemia to the heart muscle

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41
Q

The nurse recognizes second-degree AV block, type II (Mobitz II) and intervenes appropriately when s/he:

A

prepares for temporary pacemaker insertion

Atropine can also be used for this patient while waiting on pacemaker

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42
Q

A common abnormality associated with the development of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is:

A

High serum lipids

atherosclerosis clogs your vessels

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43
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

thickening or hardening of arterial wall often associated with aging

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44
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Type of arteriosclerosis involving formation of palque within arterial wall

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45
Q

Atherosclerosis

Physical assessment/Clinical Manifestations

A

Monitor BP
Palpate pulses in all major sites of the body
assess for prolonged capillary refill
assess for bruit

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46
Q

Atherosclerosis

Lab assessment

A

lipid level, including cholesterol and triglycerides, elevated
HDL and LDL
High serum levels of homocysteine can allow cell walls to become vulnerable to plaque buildup

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47
Q

The client admitted with PVD (peripheral vascular disease) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:

A

Decreased blood flow

to muscle; O2 demand greater than O2 supply
This is called intermittant claudication

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48
Q

The nurse is assessing the lower extremeties of the client with PVD. The nurse would expect to find:

A

Mottled skin

d/t decreased blood flow
TX: vasodilators, plavix, eventually surgery

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49
Q

Atherosclerosis

Interventions

A
Evaluate total serum cholesterol levels and lifestyle changes
nutrition therapy
drug therapy
smoking cessation
exercise 
complementary and alternative therapies
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50
Q

Six P’s of arterial insufficiency

A
Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia
Paralysis
Poikilothermia (coolness)
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51
Q

Acute Peripheral Arterial Occlusion

A

Embolus - most common cause of occlusions, although local thrombus may be cause
May affect upper extremities but most common in lower extremities
Drug therapy
Surgical therapy
Nursing care

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52
Q

Aneurysms of the Peripheral Arteries

A

Femoral and popliteal aneurysms
S/S: limb ischemia, diminished or absent pulses, cool to cold skin, pain
TX: surgery
Post Op care: monitor for pain

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53
Q

The nurse should instruct a patient who has been diagnosed with Raynaud’s disease to:

A

wear gloves when handling ice or frozen foods

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54
Q

What is a positive result of using PEEP in the treatment of ARDS?

A

Alveoli remain open

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55
Q

A patient states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that tidal volume is the amount of air:

A

Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration

Amount of air you are breathing in and out

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56
Q

Patient with chest tube and nurse notes that the fluid in the water seal column is fluctuating with each breath that the client takes. What is the significance of this fluctuation?

A

The chest tube system is functioning properly (tidaling).

[The suction chamber should have continuous bubbling]

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57
Q

What condition can place a patient at increased risk for ARDS?

A

Septic Shock

also acute pancreatitis, pneumonia

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58
Q

ARDS is also known as:

A

ALI (acute lung injury)

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59
Q

Normal ABG levels:

A

pH 7.35 - 7.45
PaCO2 35 - 45
HCO3 21 - 28

Quick method draw arrow up or down for pH. up indicates alkalosis, down acidosis.
next look at resp (PCO), draw an arrow high or low. If arrows in opposite direction problem is respiratory in nature. Next look at HCO if arrow in same direction problem is metabolic in nature

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60
Q

Chest Tube Chambers:

A

Chamber 1: collects fluid draining from patient
Chamber 2: water seal prevents air from re-entering patient’t pleural space
Chamber 3: suction control of system

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61
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia

Microcytic

A

common type of anemia resulting from blood loss, poor intestinal absorption or inadequate diet

if mild - s/s of weakness and pallor

evaluate adult patients for abnormal bleeding, esp from GI tract

TX: increase oral inteake of iron from food sources, oral iron supplements or IM iron solutions

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62
Q

What process is initiated between oxygen and hemoglobin as body temperature increases?

A

Oxygen unloading is enhanced

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63
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

Macrocytic

A

lack of B12 causes improper DNA synthesis of RBCs

Causes: poor intake of foods containing B12, small bowel resection, tapeworm, overgrowth of intestinal bacteria

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64
Q

Pernicious Anemia

A

Anemia resulting from failure to absorb vitamin B12

Caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor

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65
Q

Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

A

Manifestation similar to those of vitamin B12 deficiency, but nervous system function remains normal

common causes - poor nutrition, malabsorption and drugs

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66
Q

Serum Electrolyte Levels

Sodium

A

135 - 145

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67
Q

Serum Electrolyte Levels

Potassium

A

3.5 - 5

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68
Q

Serum Electrolyte Levels

Calcium

A

8.5 - 10.2

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69
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

dificiency of circulating RBCs because of failure of bone marrow to produce these cells

pancytopenia common
TX: blood transfusions
immunosuppressant therapy
splenectomy

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70
Q

Pancytopenia

A

Deficiency of RBC, WBCs and platelets

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71
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP)

A

rare disorder; platelets clump together abnormally in capillaries, and too few platelets remain in circulation

inappropriate clotting, yet blood fails to clot properly when trauma occurs

TX: plasmapheresis, fresh frozen plasma, aspirin, alprostadil, plicamycin, and immunosupressive therapy

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72
Q

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

A

serious immune-medicated clotting disorder that features an explained platelet count after Heparin administration

increasing because of the increased use of Heparin

can occur in any patient that receives Heparin therapy:

  • unfractioned heparin
  • low molecule weight heparin
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73
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

forms thousands of small clots in the tiny capillaries of the liver, kidneys, brain, spleen and heart

reduces oxygenation and decreases o2 saturation causing hypoxemia and ischemia

the clots use clotting factors and fibrinogen faster than they can be produced

occurs with septic shock

with continued capillary leak, the bleeding causes hypovolemia and a drastic decrease in cardiac output, blood pressure and pulse pressures

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74
Q

When caring for a patient with CREST syndrome associated with scleroderma, the nurse teaches the patient to:

A

Encourage small frequent meals in upright position

difficulty swallowing with scleroderma due to esohphageal dysmotility and decreased peristalsis

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75
Q

During the emergent phase of burn management, what diagnostic test resutl should the nurse expect to find?

A
increased H&H
decreased serum albumin
increased serum potassium
increased BUN
decreased serum sodium
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76
Q

Parkland Formula

A

4 ml x patient wt in kg x % of body burned = total fluid replacement for 24 hours.

give 1/2 in first 8 hours and other 1/2 over the next 16 hours

if patient came to ER 1 hour ago, give first 1/2

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77
Q

Treatment of Psoriasis

A
Corticosteroids
Tar preparations
other topical therapies
ultraviolet light therapy
systemic therapy
emotional support
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78
Q

A patient with a major burn is receiving silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) to treat the burns. What nursing action should be implemented when using this medication?

A

Monitor WBC count daily

Silvadene causes transient leukopenia

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79
Q

For a patient with a major burn, which evaluation criteria indicate that fluid resuscitation is effective during the first 24 hours of care?

A

Urine output of 30 - 50 ml/h

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80
Q

What is the complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) that is most common and the leading cause of death?

A

Nephritis

over 50% of SLE pts develop renal disease

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81
Q

In assessing a female patient with moderate anemia, the nurse would expect to find which of the following?

A

Complaints of shortness of breath with exercise (or feeling tired all the time)

anemia is usually developed slowly over time

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82
Q

Management of Skin Cancer

A

surgical: cryosurgery, curettage and electrodesiccation, excision, Mohs’ surgery, wide excision

non surgical: drug therapy and radiation therapy

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83
Q

Lupus Erythematosus

A

chronic, progressive, inflammatory connective tissue disorder

can cause major body organs/systems to fail

spontaneous remissions and exacerbations
autoimmune process
some degree of kidney involvement

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84
Q

Lupus clincial manifestations

A
skin involvement: 
-butterfly rash
polyarthritis
osteonecrosis
muscle atrophy
fever and fatigue
Renal invovement
pleural effusions
Raynaud's phenonmenon
neurologic manifestations
serositis
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85
Q

Scleroderma

A
chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune connective tissue disease
not always progressive
hardening of the skin
classifications: 
-diffuse cutaneous
-limited cutaneous
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86
Q

CREST Syndrome

A
C = calcinosis
R = Raynaud's phenomenon
E = esophageal dysmotility
S = sclerodactyly (localized thickening and tightness of the skin of the fingers or toes)
T = telangiectasia (spidery, red appearance of capillaries)

**hands and forearm edema with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome usually first symptoms to occur

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87
Q

Scleroderma Clinical Manifestations

A

arthralgia
renal and cardiac system involvement
problems with GI tract
lung involvement

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88
Q

Scleroderma Interventions

A
drug therapy
identify early organ involvement
skin protective measures
comfort
GI management
mobility
89
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia. Which interventions should the nurse include in her plan of care during hospitalization?

A
  1. place pt in private room
  2. assist with oral hygiene after meals
  3. request soft, bland diet
90
Q

The nurse observes reddish-purple spots and areas of purple bruising on a newly admitted pt with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Which lab result will support this assessment finding:

A

Low platelets

91
Q

Normal Platelet

A

150,000 - 400,000

92
Q

The nurse is administering fresh frozen plasma to a pt with DIC and she understands that the intended effect of this treatment is to:

A

replace specific clotting factors

93
Q

Resucitation/Early Phase of Burn injury

A
continues for about 24 - 48 hours
Goals of management: 
-secure airway
-support circulation - fluid replacement
-prevent infection
-maintain body temperature
-provide emotional support
94
Q

Inujuries to the Respiratory System d/t burn

A
direct airway injury
carbon monoxide poisoning
thermal injury
smoke poisoning
pulmonary fluid overload
external factors
95
Q

Pulmonary Fluid Overload

A

occurs even when lung tissues have not been damaged directly

histamine, other inflammatory mediators cause capillaries to leak fluid into pulmonary tissue space

96
Q

What nursing diagnosis would be of highest priority for a pt hospitalized for a bone marrow transplant to treat a relapse of acute myelocytic leukemia?

A

ineffective protection (risk for infection)

97
Q

The nurse observes a slight facial tic in a patient. Which cranial nerve should the nurse assess?

A

VII

98
Q

Burn: Cardiovascular Assessment

A

hypovolemic shock common cause of death in early phase of pts with serious injuries

vital signs
cardiac status, esp in cases of electrical burns

99
Q

Burn: Skin Assessment

A

size and depth of injury
percentage of total body surface area affected
“Rule of Nines” using multiples of 9% of total BSA

100
Q

The nurse is caring for a pt in ICU with ICP monitoring system. While providing hygiene measures for the pt, the nurse observes that the ICP is reading 25 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take?

A

Cease stimulating the patient

we don’t want ICP higher than 20

make sure HOB elevated
head is in good alignment
and if those don’t bring ICP down mannitol may be given

101
Q

A pt with a craniotomy develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous membranes. What would be the nurse’s best intervention?

A

evaluate urine specific gravity

s/s of diabetes insipidus - urine will be very dilute and specific gravity will be low

Expect dr to order vasopressin or desmopressin

102
Q

What are the typical clinical manifestations of MS?

A

double vision
weakness in extremities
numbness and tingling

103
Q

While in the ER, a pt with C8 quadriplegia develops a BP of 80/44, pulse of 48 bpm, and rr of 18. The nurse suspects what condition?

A

Neurogenic shock

interruption in sympathetic nervous system and unopposed parasympathetic

104
Q

When the nurse stimulates Babinski’s sign in an adult, the big toe moves upward and the other toes fan out. This finding indicates:

A

Upper motor neuron disease

spasticity and hyperreflexity

105
Q

Lower motor neuron disease sign

A

pt will be flaccid

106
Q

What lab finding leads the nurse to suspect that the patient may have systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Elevated ANA and ESR

C reactive protein may be elevated as well

107
Q

A pt is newly diagnosed with psoriasis. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order for initial therapy?

A

Anthralin

(wear gloves, put on lesion, do not put on normal skin)

PUVA therapy another therapy used.

108
Q

Seizure v. Epilepsy

A

Seizure: generalized, partial, unclassified, secondary seizures

Epilepsy: primary or idopathic

109
Q

Seizure risks:

A
may result from: 
metabolic disorders
acute alcohol withdrawal
electrolyte disturbances
heart disease
stroke
substance abuse
110
Q

Seizure precautions

A
oxygen
suchtion equipment at bedside
airway
IV access
siderails up
no tongue blades
111
Q

Seizure management

A

observation and documentation
patient safety
side-laying position
no retraints

112
Q

Acute Seizure Management

A

Lorazepam (Ativan)
Diazepam (Valium)
Diastat
IV phenytoin (Dilantin) or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

113
Q

ALS (Lou Gehrig’s Disease)

Concerns

A

respiratory concerns
swallowing concerns
musculoskeletal concerns

114
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

A
demylination of peripheral nerves
result of immune-mediated pathologic processes
S/S:
-initial muscle weakness and pain
-ascending paralysis
-autonomic dysfunction
115
Q

GBS Plan of Care

A
diagnostic testing
priority nursing care:
-respiratory care
-pain management
-communication and emotional support
-nutritional 
involvement of family and other team members
education
116
Q

GBS interventions

A

Drug therapy
plasmapheresis (removal of blood plasma from body, separating it and tranferring it back into body)
monitoring respiratory status and managing airway
managing cardiac dysfunction
improving mobility and preventing complications of immobility
managing pain

117
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A
seventh cranial nerve
interventions:
-medical management
-prednisone, analgesics, acyclovir
-protection of eye
-nutrition
-massage, warm/moist heat, facial exercises
118
Q

Stroke (Brain Attack)

A

a change in the normal blood supply to the brain
ischemic - interruption in blood flow to the brain
hemorrhagic - bleeding w/in or around the brain
The brain is unable to store oxygen or glucose and must receive a constant flow of blood to function

119
Q

Types of strokes

A

ischemic
thrombolytic
embolitic
hemorrhagic - resulting from ruptured aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation

120
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

deficiency of one or more anterior pituitary hormones

results in metabolic problems, sexual dysfunction

Most life-threatening deficiencies ACTH and TSH

requires life-long replacement of deficient hormones

121
Q

Causes of Hyperpituitarism

A

hormone oversecretion occurs with pituitary tumors or hyperplasia
genetic considerations
pituitary adenoma

122
Q

Post op care for pituitary removal

A
monitor neurological response
assess for postnasal drip
elevate HOB
assess nasal drainage
avoid coughing soon after surgery
assess for meningitis
hormone replacement
avoid bending
avoid straining at stool
avoid toothbrushing (oral rinsing best)
numbness in area of the incision
decreased sense of smell
Vasopressin
123
Q

SIADH

A

Vasopressin secreted even when plasma osmolarity is low or normal
feedback mechanisms do not function properly
water is retained, results in hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium level)

124
Q

SIADH Assessment

A
Findings:
recent head trauma
cerebrovascular disease
TB or other pulmonary disease
cancer
all past and current drug use
decrease in serum sodium levels
125
Q

SIADH Interventions

A
fluid restriction
drug therapy (diuretics, hypertonic saline, demeclocycline)
monitor for fluid overload
safe environment
neurologic assessment
126
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

Primary
Secondary
-sudden cessation of long-term, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy

127
Q

Acute Adrenal Insufficiency/Addisonian Crisis

A

Life-threatening even; need for cortisol and aldosterone is greater than available supply
usually occurs in response to stressful event

128
Q

Adrenal Gland Hyperfunction

A

hypersecretion by adrenal cortex results in cushing’s syndrome/disease, hypercortisolism or excessive androgen production

129
Q

Hypercortisolism (Cushing’s Disease)

Assessment

A

clinical manifestations: skin changes, cardiac changes, musculoskeletal changes, glucose metabolism, immune changes

Lab tests - blood, salivary, urine cortisol levels

130
Q

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

A
esophageal assessment
evidence-based information
-noninvasive diagnostic procedures
-antacids, histamine antagonists
priority nursing interventions
131
Q

Complications of Acute Pancreatitis

A
hypovolemia
hemorrhage
acute kidney failure
paralytic ileus
hypovolemic or septic shock
Pleural effusion, respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia
mutlisystem organ failure
disseminated intravascular coagulation 
diabetes mellitus
132
Q

Chronic Pancreatitis

A

progressive destructive disease of pancreas characterized by remissions and exacerbations

133
Q

Non-Surgical Managment of Chronic Pancreatitis

A
drug therapy
analgesic administration
enzyme replacement
insulin therapy
nutrition therapy
134
Q

Side effect of Catopril

A

persistent, dry cough

135
Q

Neupogen action

A

increases WBC

136
Q

Nevinega action

A

increases platelets

137
Q

Atropine action and what used for

A

increases heartrate

treat pts with bradycardia

138
Q

Amiodarone used for

A

pt with v tach

139
Q

Procrit action

A

increases RBCs

140
Q

Lidocaine treats

A

PVCs

141
Q

This med won’t cure MS disease only treats and slows progress

A

Avonex

142
Q
Beta-Blockers: Action
metoprolol = Lopressor
atenolol = tenormin
propanolol = inderal
labetalol = normadyne
A

Inhibits SNS

Competes with epinephrine and norepinephrine for adrenergic receptor sites

143
Q

Beta-Blockers: Uses

A
Treats: 
HTN
ventricular dysrhythmias
reduce mortality in HF
reduce reinfarction post MI
144
Q

Beta-Blockers: Side Effects

A

bradycardia, hypotension
heart block
dizziness

145
Q

Beta-Blockers: Nursing Interventions

A

Monitor HR and BP - orthostatic BPs
if given with ACE inhibitor, administer at different times
Teach: pt not to discontinue abruptly

146
Q
Calcium Channel Blockers: Action
verapamil = calan, isoptin
diltiazem = cardizem
felodipine = renedil
amlodipine = norvasc
nifedipine = procardia
A

Blocks influx of calcium across cardiac and smooth muscle cells
relaxes and dilates coronary arteries
slows conduction SA - AV node
dilates peripheral arteries

147
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers: Uses

A

chronic stable angina
tachy dysrhythmias
unstable and vasospastic angina
HTN

148
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers: Side Effects

A

Bradycardia, hypotension
edema - can worsen HF
Headache
fatigue

149
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers: Nursing INterventions

A

monitor HR, BP, and s/s of CHF

150
Q
ACE Inhibitors: Action
catopril = capoten
enalapril = vasotec
lisinopril = zestril
ramipril = altace
quinapril = accupril
A

Blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (vasodilates)
Blocks release of aldosterone (decrease Na an H2O retention, increases serum K by blocking K excretion)

151
Q

ACE Inhibitors: USES

A

decrease symptoms of CHF
post MI decrease risk of CHF
treat HTN (vasodilates and diuresis)

152
Q

ACE Inhibitors: Side Effects

A

cough
decrease BP
increase K
decrease renal function

153
Q

ACE Inhibitors: Nursing Interventions

A
monitor BP (orthostatic BPs)
monitor K
Monitor kidney function (BUN and Creatinine)
154
Q

ARBs: Actions
losartan = Cozaar
valsartan = diovan

A

Blocks binding of angiotensin II to AT 1 receptors

blocks the vasoconstrictive and aldosterone secreting effects of angiotension II

155
Q

ARBs: Uses

A

treat HTN
diuresis
alternative to ACE inhibitors in pts with cough

156
Q

ARBs: Side Effects

A

decreased BP
increased K
decreased renal function

157
Q

ARBs: Nursing Interventions

A

monitor BP
monitor K
monitor kidney function (BUN and Creatinine)

158
Q

Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers: Action
prazosin = minipress
phentolamine = regitine
tamsulosin = flomax

A

Blocks aplha adrenergic receptors

dilates veins and arteries = vasodilator

159
Q

Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Uses

A

HTN
BPH
Extravasatoins of IV vasoconstrictors
pheochromocytoma

160
Q

Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Side Effects

A

hypotension, tachycardia
nasal congestion
GI upset
fluid and Na retention

161
Q

Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Nursing Interventions

A

monitor BP, electrolytes
avoid alcohol
give with food or milk

162
Q

Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Action
clonidine = catapress
methyldopa = aldomet

A

Central acting sympatholytics
decrease sympathetic activity
increase parasympathetic activity
prevents pain signal transmission in CNS

163
Q

Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Uses

A

HTN

severe pain

164
Q

Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Side Effect

A

decreased BP (orthostatic)
dizziness
dry mouth
sodium and water retention

165
Q

Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Nursing Interventions

A

monitor BP
monitor for edema
monitor for pain
teach patient not to discontinue suddenly

166
Q

Biological modifiers
Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factors (CSF)
Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine)

A

Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine)

Treat neutropenia

167
Q

Biological modifiers

Hormone

A

epoetin (EPO, Epogen, Procrit)

treat anemia

168
Q

Biological modifiers

CSF and Interleukin

A

oprelvekin (Neumega)

treats thrombocytopenia

169
Q

Cholinergics: Action
bethanechol (urecholine)
neostigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

A

prevents distruction of acetylcholine

increases transmission at impulses at myonerual junction

170
Q

Cholinergics: Uses

A

post op bladder distention and urinary retention
(increases bladder motility, urinary tract stimulant)
post op ileus
(increases GI motility)

171
Q

Cholinergics: Side Effects

A

N/V, diarrhea, bronchospasm, bradycardia, laryngospasm, hypotension and increase secretions

172
Q

Antidote for cholinergic crisis:

A

Atropine

173
Q

Anticholinergic: Action

atropine, glycopyrrolate, scopalamine, oxybutynin (Ditropan)

A

Inhibit (block) acetycholine at receptor sites

174
Q

Anticholinergic: Uses

A

decrease secretion before surgery

decrease GI, billiary and urinary motility

175
Q

Anticholinergic: Side Effects

A

dry mouth and constipation

176
Q

You should pre-medicate patient before applying this burn medication

A

Sulfamycin

177
Q

Patient has burns on face and stridor what should be done immediately?

A

ET tube

178
Q

pH 7.46, CO2 30 =

A

Respiratory alkalosis

179
Q

pH 7.33, CO2 52 =

A

Respiratory acidosis

180
Q

What does an A-Line measure

A

BP

181
Q

Important nursing intervention for patient on Nipride

A

use of A-Line for continuous BP monitoring

182
Q

What should nurse monitor frequently on patient with A-Line

A

circulation checks

183
Q

Patient in V Fib, nurse will prepare to

A

defibrillate

184
Q

Patient in V Fib or V Tach, what med should nurse anticipate

A

Amiodarone

185
Q

What is a late sign of ICP

A

widened pulse pressure

186
Q

What is a late sign of cardiac tamponade

A

JVD

187
Q

Best nursing intervention for patient with CVP disconnected, patient feels dizzy and weak

A

Sit patient in high fowlers and administer O2

188
Q

Patient in ICU restless and has a nursing diagnosis of sleep deprivation. What’s the best nursing intervention?

A

Cluster care

189
Q

Does unstable angina get better with rest?

A

no

190
Q

S/S of left-sided heart failure:

A

dyspnea and crackles

left = lungs

191
Q

What type of patient would NOT get statins

A

cirrhosis patient

192
Q

What does PEEP do?

A

Keeps alveoli open

193
Q

What position will patient be in for paracentesis

A

HOB elevated

194
Q

Patient with laryngectormy and radical neck needs:

A

humidified O2

195
Q

Patient with radical neck dissection, what should UAP report to nurse?

A

Bright red continuous blood from dressing

196
Q

Teaching community about lung cancer prevention

A

smoking cessation

197
Q

How do you know a chest tube is working?

A

Tidaling with respirations

198
Q

Patient with tension pneumothorax, list the manifestations:

A

deviation of trachea, decreased cardiac output

199
Q

Patient on HCTZ, What should nurse instruct patient to report to doctor immediately?

A

blurred vision

200
Q

Patient with polycythemia will have

A

splenomegaly and increased RBC

201
Q

If patient has SEVERE anemia, they will have

A

pallor and tachycardia

202
Q

When patient is taking iron, nurse should instruct patient to

A

keep taking iron 2-3 months after anemia corrects

203
Q

What patient gets ET tube immediately

A

stridor and facial burns

204
Q

Patient with vertigo and dizziness has issue with this cranial nerve

A

VIII

205
Q

Patient with lower motor neuron lesion will have

A

absent or hyporeflexes

206
Q

Why would the nurse tell a patient who had an MI not to strain for bowel movements

A

because straining stimulates vagal response

207
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia

A

numbness and tingling in fingers

208
Q

Your patient is having a fluid deprivation test what is the nurse observing

A

observe for fluid intake

209
Q

Patient with Addison’s what would you see

A

Muscle weakness

210
Q

Patient with Cushing’s what would you see

A

increased serum glucose

hyperglycemia too many steriods

211
Q

Patient with SIADH what would you monitor

A

watch for decreased serum sodium

212
Q

Patient with Bell’s Palsy, what are their signs and symptoms

A

sagging (drooping) of face

213
Q

Patient has MS and has urinary retention, what would you teach

A

self catherization

214
Q

Patient has sensory and motor impairment in leg. What would you include in plan of care?

A

injury prevention

215
Q

patient arrives with coffee ground emesis, what would the nurse prepare for?

A

NG tube and lavage

216
Q

Your patient has a peptic ulcer, what would be a sign it’s getting better with treatment?

A

no epigastric pain

217
Q

Your patient refuses to move, what should you encourage?

A

coughing and deep breathing

218
Q

What does Lidocaine treat?

A

PVC

219
Q

What is the position for lumbar punctures?

A

lean forward and fetal position