Final Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac Output

A

4-8 L/min
Amount of blood pumped from left ventricle in 1 minute
SV x HR

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2
Q

Cardiac Index

A
2.2 - 4
< 1.5 = grave prognosis
1.5 - 2.0 = cardiogenic shock
more accurate
cardiac output based on body surface area
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3
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

2-6 mm Hg
preload for right side of heart
fluid volume status
low CVP indicates the patient is hypovolemic
high CVP indicates the patient is hypervolemic

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4
Q

Pulmonary Artery Pressure (PAP)

A

15/5

25/15

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5
Q

Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)

A

4-12 mm Hg
indicates left ventricle preload
PAD pressure equivalent when no pulmonary disease is present

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6
Q

Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)

A

afterload for left ventricle

800 - 1400 dynes/sec

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7
Q

Pulmonary Vascular Resistance (PVR)

A

afterload for right ventricle

100 - 250 dynes/sec

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8
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

initial stage

A
Decreased cardiac output
S/S:
systolic BP <90
decreased LOC
pale, cool, moist skin
decreased urine output
chest pain (not absolute)
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9
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

compensatory phase

A
SNS initiated
S/S:
tachycardia
tachypnea
crackles (LV failure)
s3 and s4 (LV failure)
peripheral edema (RV failure)
JVD (RV failure)
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10
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

Progressive stage

A
Continued myocardial ischemia
-dysrrhythmias
-chest pain
respiratory distress
-metabolic and respiratory acidosis
-hypoxia
neurologic deterioration
-decreased LOC
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11
Q

Medical Management of Cardiogenic Shock

A
Medical management
treat underlying cause
pharmacologic agents
angioplasty
enhance effectiveness of pump
increase oxygen supply
decrease oxygen demand
improve tissue perfusion
IAPB
VAD
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12
Q

Intra-aortic balloon pump

use

A

improves coronary artery perfusion
inflated during diastole
decreases after load
used for heart failure, cardiomyopathy

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13
Q

When caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock your first nursing priority would be:

A

to administer IV fluids and (positive) inotropic agents

positive inotropic agents improve cardiac contractility. ex: digoxin, milritrone, and dobutamine

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14
Q

Adenosine (Adenocard)

A

antidysrhythmic to treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
slows conduction through AV node, interrupts dysrhythmia producing re-entry pathways and can restore NSR
cardiac monitoring and vital signs
S/E: hypotension, dysrhythmias, short period of asystole following injection
Push FAST!

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15
Q

Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin)

A

antidysrhythmic to treat supraventricular tachydysrhythmias (SVT)
calcium channel blocker (negative chronotropic and inotropic) also used to treat angina
monitor HR and BP
S/E:
headache, bradycardia and hypotension

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16
Q

Diltiazem (Cardizem, Dilacor XR)

A

antidysrhythmic to treate PSVT, A fib/flutter (with increased rate)
calcium channel blocker (negative chronotropic and inotropic agent) also used to treat angina
Monitor BP and HR
S/E:
myocardial depression, bradycardia and can increase digoxin levels

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17
Q

Lidocaine

A

Antidysrhytmic to treat ventricular dysrhythmias
a fast sodium channel blocker, class 1B
local anesthetic effect on heart; decreased myocardial inability
monitor cardiac and assess for s/s of toxicity (confusion, drowsiness, hearing impairment, conduction defects, myocardial depression, muscle
metabolized in the liver

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18
Q

P Wave

A

First wave in cardiac cycle
denotes depolarization of atria
measures: no more than 0.11 sec long and 0.2 - 0.3 v in height
upright = normal depolarization from atria
inverted = coming from AV node

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19
Q

During physical assessment of patient with the nurse would suspect A fib when palpation of the radial pulse reveals:

A

an irregular pulse rhythm
A fib = irregularly, irregular pulse
no regularity to rhythm

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20
Q

Stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected per heartbeat

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21
Q

A client who is hemorrhaging has decreased preload. What physiologic event will follow?

A

Decreased cardiac output

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22
Q

Normal ejection fraction

A

50-70

percentage of blood ejected with systole

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23
Q

Which of the following discharge instructions should the nurse stress to a patient with stable angina?

A

sit or lie down when taking sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG)
coronary vasodilator, also dilates vessels in brain, can cause dizziness, risk for falling
If on patch, patch on 12 and off 12
If pain not controlled after first dose, call 9-1-1 and take second dose

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24
Q

PR Interval (PRI)

A

P wave with adjoining straight, flat line
Denotes time from SA node to AV node
measures 0.12 - 0.20

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25
QRS Complex
Depolarization of the ventricles | measures <0.10
26
ST segment
early phase of ventricular depolarization measures 0.12 seconds or less T wave is actual ventricular repolarization phase T wave measures: 0.20 seconds or less
27
QT Interval
Ventricular depolarization through ventricular depolarization Mesures: 0.36 - 0.44 seconds
28
EKG Time and Measurements
small squares = 0.04 seconds large squares = 0.20 seconds 5 small squares = 1 large square
29
To calculate the rate with EKG
``` # of R to R intervals in 6 second strip and multiply by 10 # of large boxes between 2 QRS complexes and divide by 300 # small boxes between 2 QRS complexes and divide by 1500 ```
30
Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC)
ectopic (irritable) foci in ventricular myocardium initiates depolarization from cell to cell, not via a pathway etiology: hypoxia, ischemia, electrolyte imbalance, acid - base imbalance
31
Ventricular Tachycardia
Etiology: same as PVCs allowed to repeatedly occur
32
Ventricular Fibrillation
Etiology: multiple foci independently causing separate sections of ventricular myocardium to contract in unorganized fashion VT frequently proceeds to V fib
33
Asystole
lack of electrical activity "flat line" may masquerade as fine v-fib verify in two separate leads
34
The best indicator of fluid balance is:
weight | 2.2 lb = 1 kg = 1 L of fluid
35
Heart failure
inability of the heart to work effectively as a pump
36
On initial assessment of a patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse would most likely find:
hypertension cardiac arrhythmias sympathetic nervous system kicks in and causes HTN and tachycardia
37
Left Sided Heart Failure
AKA congestive heart failure typically caused by: hypertensive, coronary arter, valvular disease 2 types: systolic and diastolic
38
Right-Sided Heart Failure
Causes: left ventricular failure, right ventricular MI, pulmonary hypertension Right ventricle cannot empty completely Increased volume and pressure in venous system and peripheral edema
39
When teaching a patient about complications of A fib, the nurse understands that the complications can be caused by:
statsis of blood in the atria
40
In planning care for a patient with acure myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse identifies the highest priority goal of care as:
relief of pain | pain indicates ischemia to the heart muscle
41
The nurse recognizes second-degree AV block, type II (Mobitz II) and intervenes appropriately when s/he:
prepares for temporary pacemaker insertion Atropine can also be used for this patient while waiting on pacemaker
42
A common abnormality associated with the development of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is:
High serum lipids atherosclerosis clogs your vessels
43
arteriosclerosis
thickening or hardening of arterial wall often associated with aging
44
Atherosclerosis
Type of arteriosclerosis involving formation of palque within arterial wall
45
Atherosclerosis | Physical assessment/Clinical Manifestations
Monitor BP Palpate pulses in all major sites of the body assess for prolonged capillary refill assess for bruit
46
Atherosclerosis | Lab assessment
lipid level, including cholesterol and triglycerides, elevated HDL and LDL High serum levels of homocysteine can allow cell walls to become vulnerable to plaque buildup
47
The client admitted with PVD (peripheral vascular disease) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
Decreased blood flow | to muscle; O2 demand greater than O2 supply This is called intermittant claudication
48
The nurse is assessing the lower extremeties of the client with PVD. The nurse would expect to find:
Mottled skin d/t decreased blood flow TX: vasodilators, plavix, eventually surgery
49
Atherosclerosis | Interventions
``` Evaluate total serum cholesterol levels and lifestyle changes nutrition therapy drug therapy smoking cessation exercise complementary and alternative therapies ```
50
Six P's of arterial insufficiency
``` Pain Pallor Pulselessness Paresthesia Paralysis Poikilothermia (coolness) ```
51
Acute Peripheral Arterial Occlusion
Embolus - most common cause of occlusions, although local thrombus may be cause May affect upper extremities but most common in lower extremities Drug therapy Surgical therapy Nursing care
52
Aneurysms of the Peripheral Arteries
Femoral and popliteal aneurysms S/S: limb ischemia, diminished or absent pulses, cool to cold skin, pain TX: surgery Post Op care: monitor for pain
53
The nurse should instruct a patient who has been diagnosed with Raynaud's disease to:
wear gloves when handling ice or frozen foods
54
What is a positive result of using PEEP in the treatment of ARDS?
Alveoli remain open
55
A patient states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that tidal volume is the amount of air:
Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration | Amount of air you are breathing in and out
56
Patient with chest tube and nurse notes that the fluid in the water seal column is fluctuating with each breath that the client takes. What is the significance of this fluctuation?
The chest tube system is functioning properly (tidaling). | [The suction chamber should have continuous bubbling]
57
What condition can place a patient at increased risk for ARDS?
Septic Shock | also acute pancreatitis, pneumonia
58
ARDS is also known as:
ALI (acute lung injury)
59
Normal ABG levels:
pH 7.35 - 7.45 PaCO2 35 - 45 HCO3 21 - 28 Quick method draw arrow up or down for pH. up indicates alkalosis, down acidosis. next look at resp (PCO), draw an arrow high or low. If arrows in opposite direction problem is respiratory in nature. Next look at HCO if arrow in same direction problem is metabolic in nature
60
Chest Tube Chambers:
Chamber 1: collects fluid draining from patient Chamber 2: water seal prevents air from re-entering patient't pleural space Chamber 3: suction control of system
61
Iron Deficiency Anemia | Microcytic
common type of anemia resulting from blood loss, poor intestinal absorption or inadequate diet if mild - s/s of weakness and pallor evaluate adult patients for abnormal bleeding, esp from GI tract TX: increase oral inteake of iron from food sources, oral iron supplements or IM iron solutions
62
What process is initiated between oxygen and hemoglobin as body temperature increases?
Oxygen unloading is enhanced
63
Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia | Macrocytic
lack of B12 causes improper DNA synthesis of RBCs Causes: poor intake of foods containing B12, small bowel resection, tapeworm, overgrowth of intestinal bacteria
64
Pernicious Anemia
Anemia resulting from failure to absorb vitamin B12 Caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor
65
Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia
Manifestation similar to those of vitamin B12 deficiency, but nervous system function remains normal common causes - poor nutrition, malabsorption and drugs
66
Serum Electrolyte Levels | Sodium
135 - 145
67
Serum Electrolyte Levels | Potassium
3.5 - 5
68
Serum Electrolyte Levels | Calcium
8.5 - 10.2
69
Aplastic Anemia
dificiency of circulating RBCs because of failure of bone marrow to produce these cells pancytopenia common TX: blood transfusions immunosuppressant therapy splenectomy
70
Pancytopenia
Deficiency of RBC, WBCs and platelets
71
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP)
rare disorder; platelets clump together abnormally in capillaries, and too few platelets remain in circulation inappropriate clotting, yet blood fails to clot properly when trauma occurs TX: plasmapheresis, fresh frozen plasma, aspirin, alprostadil, plicamycin, and immunosupressive therapy
72
Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
serious immune-medicated clotting disorder that features an explained platelet count after Heparin administration increasing because of the increased use of Heparin can occur in any patient that receives Heparin therapy: - unfractioned heparin - low molecule weight heparin
73
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
forms thousands of small clots in the tiny capillaries of the liver, kidneys, brain, spleen and heart reduces oxygenation and decreases o2 saturation causing hypoxemia and ischemia the clots use clotting factors and fibrinogen faster than they can be produced occurs with septic shock with continued capillary leak, the bleeding causes hypovolemia and a drastic decrease in cardiac output, blood pressure and pulse pressures
74
When caring for a patient with CREST syndrome associated with scleroderma, the nurse teaches the patient to:
Encourage small frequent meals in upright position difficulty swallowing with scleroderma due to esohphageal dysmotility and decreased peristalsis
75
During the emergent phase of burn management, what diagnostic test resutl should the nurse expect to find?
``` increased H&H decreased serum albumin increased serum potassium increased BUN decreased serum sodium ```
76
Parkland Formula
4 ml x patient wt in kg x % of body burned = total fluid replacement for 24 hours. give 1/2 in first 8 hours and other 1/2 over the next 16 hours if patient came to ER 1 hour ago, give first 1/2
77
Treatment of Psoriasis
``` Corticosteroids Tar preparations other topical therapies ultraviolet light therapy systemic therapy emotional support ```
78
A patient with a major burn is receiving silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) to treat the burns. What nursing action should be implemented when using this medication?
Monitor WBC count daily Silvadene causes transient leukopenia
79
For a patient with a major burn, which evaluation criteria indicate that fluid resuscitation is effective during the first 24 hours of care?
Urine output of 30 - 50 ml/h
80
What is the complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) that is most common and the leading cause of death?
Nephritis | over 50% of SLE pts develop renal disease
81
In assessing a female patient with moderate anemia, the nurse would expect to find which of the following?
Complaints of shortness of breath with exercise (or feeling tired all the time) anemia is usually developed slowly over time
82
Management of Skin Cancer
surgical: cryosurgery, curettage and electrodesiccation, excision, Mohs' surgery, wide excision non surgical: drug therapy and radiation therapy
83
Lupus Erythematosus
chronic, progressive, inflammatory connective tissue disorder can cause major body organs/systems to fail spontaneous remissions and exacerbations autoimmune process some degree of kidney involvement
84
Lupus clincial manifestations
``` skin involvement: -butterfly rash polyarthritis osteonecrosis muscle atrophy fever and fatigue Renal invovement pleural effusions Raynaud's phenonmenon neurologic manifestations serositis ```
85
Scleroderma
``` chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune connective tissue disease not always progressive hardening of the skin classifications: -diffuse cutaneous -limited cutaneous ```
86
CREST Syndrome
``` C = calcinosis R = Raynaud's phenomenon E = esophageal dysmotility S = sclerodactyly (localized thickening and tightness of the skin of the fingers or toes) T = telangiectasia (spidery, red appearance of capillaries) ``` **hands and forearm edema with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome usually first symptoms to occur
87
Scleroderma Clinical Manifestations
arthralgia renal and cardiac system involvement problems with GI tract lung involvement
88
Scleroderma Interventions
``` drug therapy identify early organ involvement skin protective measures comfort GI management mobility ```
89
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia. Which interventions should the nurse include in her plan of care during hospitalization?
1. place pt in private room 2. assist with oral hygiene after meals 3. request soft, bland diet
90
The nurse observes reddish-purple spots and areas of purple bruising on a newly admitted pt with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Which lab result will support this assessment finding:
Low platelets
91
Normal Platelet
150,000 - 400,000
92
The nurse is administering fresh frozen plasma to a pt with DIC and she understands that the intended effect of this treatment is to:
replace specific clotting factors
93
Resucitation/Early Phase of Burn injury
``` continues for about 24 - 48 hours Goals of management: -secure airway -support circulation - fluid replacement -prevent infection -maintain body temperature -provide emotional support ```
94
Inujuries to the Respiratory System d/t burn
``` direct airway injury carbon monoxide poisoning thermal injury smoke poisoning pulmonary fluid overload external factors ```
95
Pulmonary Fluid Overload
occurs even when lung tissues have not been damaged directly histamine, other inflammatory mediators cause capillaries to leak fluid into pulmonary tissue space
96
What nursing diagnosis would be of highest priority for a pt hospitalized for a bone marrow transplant to treat a relapse of acute myelocytic leukemia?
ineffective protection (risk for infection)
97
The nurse observes a slight facial tic in a patient. Which cranial nerve should the nurse assess?
VII
98
Burn: Cardiovascular Assessment
hypovolemic shock common cause of death in early phase of pts with serious injuries vital signs cardiac status, esp in cases of electrical burns
99
Burn: Skin Assessment
size and depth of injury percentage of total body surface area affected "Rule of Nines" using multiples of 9% of total BSA
100
The nurse is caring for a pt in ICU with ICP monitoring system. While providing hygiene measures for the pt, the nurse observes that the ICP is reading 25 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take?
Cease stimulating the patient we don't want ICP higher than 20 make sure HOB elevated head is in good alignment and if those don't bring ICP down mannitol may be given
101
A pt with a craniotomy develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous membranes. What would be the nurse's best intervention?
evaluate urine specific gravity s/s of diabetes insipidus - urine will be very dilute and specific gravity will be low Expect dr to order vasopressin or desmopressin
102
What are the typical clinical manifestations of MS?
double vision weakness in extremities numbness and tingling
103
While in the ER, a pt with C8 quadriplegia develops a BP of 80/44, pulse of 48 bpm, and rr of 18. The nurse suspects what condition?
Neurogenic shock interruption in sympathetic nervous system and unopposed parasympathetic
104
When the nurse stimulates Babinski's sign in an adult, the big toe moves upward and the other toes fan out. This finding indicates:
Upper motor neuron disease spasticity and hyperreflexity
105
Lower motor neuron disease sign
pt will be flaccid
106
What lab finding leads the nurse to suspect that the patient may have systemic lupus erythematosus?
Elevated ANA and ESR C reactive protein may be elevated as well
107
A pt is newly diagnosed with psoriasis. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order for initial therapy?
Anthralin (wear gloves, put on lesion, do not put on normal skin) PUVA therapy another therapy used.
108
Seizure v. Epilepsy
Seizure: generalized, partial, unclassified, secondary seizures Epilepsy: primary or idopathic
109
Seizure risks:
``` may result from: metabolic disorders acute alcohol withdrawal electrolyte disturbances heart disease stroke substance abuse ```
110
Seizure precautions
``` oxygen suchtion equipment at bedside airway IV access siderails up no tongue blades ```
111
Seizure management
observation and documentation patient safety side-laying position no retraints
112
Acute Seizure Management
Lorazepam (Ativan) Diazepam (Valium) Diastat IV phenytoin (Dilantin) or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)
113
ALS (Lou Gehrig's Disease) | Concerns
respiratory concerns swallowing concerns musculoskeletal concerns
114
Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)
``` demylination of peripheral nerves result of immune-mediated pathologic processes S/S: -initial muscle weakness and pain -ascending paralysis -autonomic dysfunction ```
115
GBS Plan of Care
``` diagnostic testing priority nursing care: -respiratory care -pain management -communication and emotional support -nutritional involvement of family and other team members education ```
116
GBS interventions
Drug therapy plasmapheresis (removal of blood plasma from body, separating it and tranferring it back into body) monitoring respiratory status and managing airway managing cardiac dysfunction improving mobility and preventing complications of immobility managing pain
117
Bell's Palsy
``` seventh cranial nerve interventions: -medical management -prednisone, analgesics, acyclovir -protection of eye -nutrition -massage, warm/moist heat, facial exercises ```
118
Stroke (Brain Attack)
a change in the normal blood supply to the brain ischemic - interruption in blood flow to the brain hemorrhagic - bleeding w/in or around the brain The brain is unable to store oxygen or glucose and must receive a constant flow of blood to function
119
Types of strokes
ischemic thrombolytic embolitic hemorrhagic - resulting from ruptured aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation
120
Hypopituitarism
deficiency of one or more anterior pituitary hormones results in metabolic problems, sexual dysfunction Most life-threatening deficiencies ACTH and TSH requires life-long replacement of deficient hormones
121
Causes of Hyperpituitarism
hormone oversecretion occurs with pituitary tumors or hyperplasia genetic considerations pituitary adenoma
122
Post op care for pituitary removal
``` monitor neurological response assess for postnasal drip elevate HOB assess nasal drainage avoid coughing soon after surgery assess for meningitis hormone replacement avoid bending avoid straining at stool avoid toothbrushing (oral rinsing best) numbness in area of the incision decreased sense of smell Vasopressin ```
123
SIADH
Vasopressin secreted even when plasma osmolarity is low or normal feedback mechanisms do not function properly water is retained, results in hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium level)
124
SIADH Assessment
``` Findings: recent head trauma cerebrovascular disease TB or other pulmonary disease cancer all past and current drug use decrease in serum sodium levels ```
125
SIADH Interventions
``` fluid restriction drug therapy (diuretics, hypertonic saline, demeclocycline) monitor for fluid overload safe environment neurologic assessment ```
126
Addison's Disease
Primary Secondary -sudden cessation of long-term, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy
127
Acute Adrenal Insufficiency/Addisonian Crisis
Life-threatening even; need for cortisol and aldosterone is greater than available supply usually occurs in response to stressful event
128
Adrenal Gland Hyperfunction
hypersecretion by adrenal cortex results in cushing's syndrome/disease, hypercortisolism or excessive androgen production
129
Hypercortisolism (Cushing's Disease) | Assessment
clinical manifestations: skin changes, cardiac changes, musculoskeletal changes, glucose metabolism, immune changes Lab tests - blood, salivary, urine cortisol levels
130
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
``` esophageal assessment evidence-based information -noninvasive diagnostic procedures -antacids, histamine antagonists priority nursing interventions ```
131
Complications of Acute Pancreatitis
``` hypovolemia hemorrhage acute kidney failure paralytic ileus hypovolemic or septic shock Pleural effusion, respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia mutlisystem organ failure disseminated intravascular coagulation diabetes mellitus ```
132
Chronic Pancreatitis
progressive destructive disease of pancreas characterized by remissions and exacerbations
133
Non-Surgical Managment of Chronic Pancreatitis
``` drug therapy analgesic administration enzyme replacement insulin therapy nutrition therapy ```
134
Side effect of Catopril
persistent, dry cough
135
Neupogen action
increases WBC
136
Nevinega action
increases platelets
137
Atropine action and what used for
increases heartrate | treat pts with bradycardia
138
Amiodarone used for
pt with v tach
139
Procrit action
increases RBCs
140
Lidocaine treats
PVCs
141
This med won't cure MS disease only treats and slows progress
Avonex
142
``` Beta-Blockers: Action metoprolol = Lopressor atenolol = tenormin propanolol = inderal labetalol = normadyne ```
Inhibits SNS | Competes with epinephrine and norepinephrine for adrenergic receptor sites
143
Beta-Blockers: Uses
``` Treats: HTN ventricular dysrhythmias reduce mortality in HF reduce reinfarction post MI ```
144
Beta-Blockers: Side Effects
bradycardia, hypotension heart block dizziness
145
Beta-Blockers: Nursing Interventions
Monitor HR and BP - orthostatic BPs if given with ACE inhibitor, administer at different times Teach: pt not to discontinue abruptly
146
``` Calcium Channel Blockers: Action verapamil = calan, isoptin diltiazem = cardizem felodipine = renedil amlodipine = norvasc nifedipine = procardia ```
Blocks influx of calcium across cardiac and smooth muscle cells relaxes and dilates coronary arteries slows conduction SA - AV node dilates peripheral arteries
147
Calcium Channel Blockers: Uses
chronic stable angina tachy dysrhythmias unstable and vasospastic angina HTN
148
Calcium Channel Blockers: Side Effects
Bradycardia, hypotension edema - can worsen HF Headache fatigue
149
Calcium Channel Blockers: Nursing INterventions
monitor HR, BP, and s/s of CHF
150
``` ACE Inhibitors: Action catopril = capoten enalapril = vasotec lisinopril = zestril ramipril = altace quinapril = accupril ```
Blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (vasodilates) Blocks release of aldosterone (decrease Na an H2O retention, increases serum K by blocking K excretion)
151
ACE Inhibitors: USES
decrease symptoms of CHF post MI decrease risk of CHF treat HTN (vasodilates and diuresis)
152
ACE Inhibitors: Side Effects
cough decrease BP increase K decrease renal function
153
ACE Inhibitors: Nursing Interventions
``` monitor BP (orthostatic BPs) monitor K Monitor kidney function (BUN and Creatinine) ```
154
ARBs: Actions losartan = Cozaar valsartan = diovan
Blocks binding of angiotensin II to AT 1 receptors | blocks the vasoconstrictive and aldosterone secreting effects of angiotension II
155
ARBs: Uses
treat HTN diuresis alternative to ACE inhibitors in pts with cough
156
ARBs: Side Effects
decreased BP increased K decreased renal function
157
ARBs: Nursing Interventions
monitor BP monitor K monitor kidney function (BUN and Creatinine)
158
Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blockers: Action prazosin = minipress phentolamine = regitine tamsulosin = flomax
Blocks aplha adrenergic receptors | dilates veins and arteries = vasodilator
159
Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Uses
HTN BPH Extravasatoins of IV vasoconstrictors pheochromocytoma
160
Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Side Effects
hypotension, tachycardia nasal congestion GI upset fluid and Na retention
161
Alpha 1 adrenergic Blockers: Nursing Interventions
monitor BP, electrolytes avoid alcohol give with food or milk
162
Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Action clonidine = catapress methyldopa = aldomet
Central acting sympatholytics decrease sympathetic activity increase parasympathetic activity prevents pain signal transmission in CNS
163
Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Uses
HTN | severe pain
164
Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Side Effect
decreased BP (orthostatic) dizziness dry mouth sodium and water retention
165
Alpha 2 adrenergic Blockers: Nursing Interventions
monitor BP monitor for edema monitor for pain teach patient not to discontinue suddenly
166
Biological modifiers Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factors (CSF) Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine)
Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine) | Treat neutropenia
167
Biological modifiers | Hormone
epoetin (EPO, Epogen, Procrit) | treat anemia
168
Biological modifiers | CSF and Interleukin
oprelvekin (Neumega) | treats thrombocytopenia
169
Cholinergics: Action bethanechol (urecholine) neostigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
prevents distruction of acetylcholine | increases transmission at impulses at myonerual junction
170
Cholinergics: Uses
post op bladder distention and urinary retention (increases bladder motility, urinary tract stimulant) post op ileus (increases GI motility)
171
Cholinergics: Side Effects
N/V, diarrhea, bronchospasm, bradycardia, laryngospasm, hypotension and increase secretions
172
Antidote for cholinergic crisis:
Atropine
173
Anticholinergic: Action | atropine, glycopyrrolate, scopalamine, oxybutynin (Ditropan)
Inhibit (block) acetycholine at receptor sites
174
Anticholinergic: Uses
decrease secretion before surgery | decrease GI, billiary and urinary motility
175
Anticholinergic: Side Effects
dry mouth and constipation
176
You should pre-medicate patient before applying this burn medication
Sulfamycin
177
Patient has burns on face and stridor what should be done immediately?
ET tube
178
pH 7.46, CO2 30 =
Respiratory alkalosis
179
pH 7.33, CO2 52 =
Respiratory acidosis
180
What does an A-Line measure
BP
181
Important nursing intervention for patient on Nipride
use of A-Line for continuous BP monitoring
182
What should nurse monitor frequently on patient with A-Line
circulation checks
183
Patient in V Fib, nurse will prepare to
defibrillate
184
Patient in V Fib or V Tach, what med should nurse anticipate
Amiodarone
185
What is a late sign of ICP
widened pulse pressure
186
What is a late sign of cardiac tamponade
JVD
187
Best nursing intervention for patient with CVP disconnected, patient feels dizzy and weak
Sit patient in high fowlers and administer O2
188
Patient in ICU restless and has a nursing diagnosis of sleep deprivation. What's the best nursing intervention?
Cluster care
189
Does unstable angina get better with rest?
no
190
S/S of left-sided heart failure:
dyspnea and crackles | left = lungs
191
What type of patient would NOT get statins
cirrhosis patient
192
What does PEEP do?
Keeps alveoli open
193
What position will patient be in for paracentesis
HOB elevated
194
Patient with laryngectormy and radical neck needs:
humidified O2
195
Patient with radical neck dissection, what should UAP report to nurse?
Bright red continuous blood from dressing
196
Teaching community about lung cancer prevention
smoking cessation
197
How do you know a chest tube is working?
Tidaling with respirations
198
Patient with tension pneumothorax, list the manifestations:
deviation of trachea, decreased cardiac output
199
Patient on HCTZ, What should nurse instruct patient to report to doctor immediately?
blurred vision
200
Patient with polycythemia will have
splenomegaly and increased RBC
201
If patient has SEVERE anemia, they will have
pallor and tachycardia
202
When patient is taking iron, nurse should instruct patient to
keep taking iron 2-3 months after anemia corrects
203
What patient gets ET tube immediately
stridor and facial burns
204
Patient with vertigo and dizziness has issue with this cranial nerve
VIII
205
Patient with lower motor neuron lesion will have
absent or hyporeflexes
206
Why would the nurse tell a patient who had an MI not to strain for bowel movements
because straining stimulates vagal response
207
Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia
numbness and tingling in fingers
208
Your patient is having a fluid deprivation test what is the nurse observing
observe for fluid intake
209
Patient with Addison's what would you see
Muscle weakness
210
Patient with Cushing's what would you see
increased serum glucose | hyperglycemia too many steriods
211
Patient with SIADH what would you monitor
watch for decreased serum sodium
212
Patient with Bell's Palsy, what are their signs and symptoms
sagging (drooping) of face
213
Patient has MS and has urinary retention, what would you teach
self catherization
214
Patient has sensory and motor impairment in leg. What would you include in plan of care?
injury prevention
215
patient arrives with coffee ground emesis, what would the nurse prepare for?
NG tube and lavage
216
Your patient has a peptic ulcer, what would be a sign it's getting better with treatment?
no epigastric pain
217
Your patient refuses to move, what should you encourage?
coughing and deep breathing
218
What does Lidocaine treat?
PVC
219
What is the position for lumbar punctures?
lean forward and fetal position