Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration

A

aerobic requires oxygen

anaerobic does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

three steps of aerobic respiration, which step is common to both aerobic fermentation and respiration

A

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation

common is glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chemical equation for cellular respiration

A

glucose + oxygen —> CO2 + H2O + energy (ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is fermentation? what type of fermentation leads to production of carbon dioxide? what type of germ ration do bakers yeasts preform and how do they make dough rise?

A

Fermentation ~ process of converting sugars into alcohol acids or gases without the use of oxygen

Ethanol fermentation produces carbon dioxide

Bakers yeast preform alcoholic fermentation, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide making dough rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how are fermentation rates examined using yeast? which substrate and/or temperature lead to highest rate of carbon dioxide production? why do they produce more gas when fed with a simple sugar than starch?

A

yeast fermentation rates examined by measuring carbon dioxide production

higher rates of carbon dioxide occurred with higher temperatures and simple sugars like glucose bc easier breakdown compared to starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How was respiration detected in living corn kernels, what was the positive results? negative ?

A

was detected by measuring oxygen consumption, positive result indicated active respiration while negative showed no respiration

detected by their ability to turn a solution of methylene blue from blue to colorless, positive - solution turned colorless
negative - solution remained blue, no respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what was effect of human breathing on the bromothymol blue solution? how did the CO2 affect pH

A

human breathing caused bromothymol blue solution to turn yellow/green very quick bc of increased CO2 production from higher respiration rates.

exhaled lowered pH cussing color change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how did exercise affect rate of the color change in the bromothymol blue solution

how did it affect heart rate/breathing

A

exercise increased rate of color change in bromothymol blue solution, from blue to yellow/green bc of increased CO2 production from higher respiration rates

also increased heart rate and breathing rate to supply more oxygen for aerobic respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

during which step of aerobic respiration is most CO2 produced

A

in the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the wavelengths (colors) present in visible light

A

visible light contains wavelengths ranging from 400 to 700 nanometers. Violet blue green yellow orange and red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if an object is green what happens to each wavelength of visible light that’s hits the object?

A

absorbs all wavelengths expect for green, which is reflected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reactants and products of photosynthesis, chemical equation ?

A

reactants are carbon dioxide and water
products are glucose and oxygen

6CO2 + 6H2O —> C6H12O6 (sugar/glucose) + 6O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most abundant pigments in plants

A

Chlorophyll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what would you expect to happen with leaf discs submerged in water that are left under light in comparison to discs left in the dark

A

leaf disc in light should produce oxygen bubbles from photosynthesis, discs in dark should not produce bubbles as no photosynthesis occurs without light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

be able to identify pigments in a paper chromatography and exam. why they separate in bands. what is an Rf value and what does it tell you about polarity of the pigments

A

paper chromatography separates pigments into bands based on their polarity, more polar pigments travel slower

Rf value indicates how far a pigment has traveled relative to the solvents, reflects its polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what did we use to determine the absorbance of chlorophyll

A

used a spectrophotometer to measure absorbance spectrum of chlorophyll solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

drawing of typical absorbance curve for a sample rich in chlorophyll when exposed to different wavelengths of the visible light spectrum, what color light corresponds to each level of absorption

A

the drawing of the curve will show a higher absorbance in the blue and red regions of the visible light spectrum (peaks in those colors)

blue light corresponds to high absorbance

absorbs green wavelengths poorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are two components of photosynthesis and where do they occur

A

light dependent reactions which occur in the thylakoid membranes

light independent reactions which occur in the storms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the electromagnetic spectrum, what wavelengths corresponds to each color, what does the wavelength tell you about the amount of energy contained within each color?

A

electromagnetic spectrum includes all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation (ranging from gamma rays to radio waves)

shorter wavelengths corresponds to violet and blues
longer wavelengths correspond to red colors

wavelength indicates amount of energy contained within each color, shorter having higher energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Interphase

A

G1 - primary cell growth
S- synthesis, genetic material is replicated
G2 - prepares for mitotic division, many organelles are formed (mitochondria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mitosis

A

Prophase - chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope is not apparent
Metaphase - chromosomes with two chromatids are lined up on the metaphase plate
Anaphase - chromatids of each chromosomes separate and move toward opposite poles
Telophase - chromosomes are at the poles and nuclear envelope reappears, cytoplasm starts dividing, cleavage furrow

cytokines- division into two daughter cells is completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what cellular structures are required for mitosis ?

A

DNA, centrosomes, spindle fibers, and chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe movement of chromosomes in mitosis

A

chromosomes condense, centrosomes move to poles, spindle forms, chromosomes line up at metaphase plate, sister christie’s separate are opposite poles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

difference between mitosis in animal and plant cells

A

in animal cells involves cleavage furrow formation during cytokinesis while in plant cells, a cell plate forms

25
Q

what is cytokinesis and how does it differ between plant and animal cells

A

cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells after mitosis

animal cells ~ pinching of the cell membrane

plant cell ~ cell plate forms between divided nuclei

26
Q

what are the cytoskeletal components that aid in cell division

A

microtubules and actin (micro) filaments

27
Q

what phase of interphase lasts the longest and why, which phase of mitosis would last the longest

A

Interphase ~ is typically G1 since the cell is preparing for DNA replication and is undergoing primary growth

Mitosis~ prophase as chromatins condense into chromosomes and nuclear envelope breaks down

28
Q

what are the 4 major phases of development and what occurs in each phase?

A

zygote - fertilized egg
morula - solid mass of cells resulting from cleavage
blastula - hollow ball of cells formed during gastrulation
gastrula - stage of development where cell layers differentiate, germ layers

29
Q

what is the blastopore

A

the opening of the archenteron in the gastrula during gastrulation, which later develops into the mouth or anus

30
Q

the archenteron develops into what?

A

develops into the gut tube, digestive tract

31
Q

what are 3 germ layers and what do they form

A

ectoderm ~ outer, nervous system and epidermis

mesoderm ~ middle, muscle tissues and connective tissue

endoderm ~inner, linings of the digestive and respiratory system, form organs such as liver and pancreas

32
Q

Phases of meiosis

A

meiosis 1 ~ separates homologous chromosomes, homologous chromosomes separate reducing the chromosome number by half

meiosis 2 ~ separates sister chromatids sister chromatids separate resulting in haploid daughter cells

results in 4 haploid daughter cells

33
Q

Phases of meiosis

A

Prophase 1 - chromosomes condense, homologous pairs form tetrads and crossover occurs, nuclear envelop breaks down
metaphase 1 - tetrads line up at metaphase plate
anaphase 1 - homologous chromosome separate and move to opposite poles
telophase 1 - chromosomes arrive at poles, cytokinesis may or may not occur
Cytokinesis ~ cytoplasm divides forming two haploid cells

prophase 2 - same as 1
metaphase 2 - chromosomes line up individually at metaphase plate
anaphase 2 - same as 1
telophase 2 - nuclei form at opposite poles

34
Q

difference in mitosis and meiosis

A

mitosis results in two genetically identical diploid daughter cells

meiosis results in four genetically diverse and unique haploid daughter cells

35
Q

compare and contrast between homologous pairs, tetrads and sister chromatids

A

homologous pairs - chromosomes that carry genes for the same traits, one from each parent

tetrads consist of two homologous chromosomes paired together during meiosis 1 , four chromatids of a duplicated pair

sister chromatids are identical copies of a single chromosome produced during DNA replication. joined at centromere

36
Q

Heterozygous, homozygous, dominant allele, recessive allele

A

hetero, two different alleles

homo, same alleles

dominant are expressed over recessive

37
Q

genotype and phenotype difference

A

genotype is the genitive material, phenotype is the physical/observable trait

38
Q

ABO blood type system, how many alleles are involved, how many phenotypes, how can you identify blood type suing anti A and anti B antibodies

A

The ABO blood type system is determined by three alleles, IA IB and i

4 phenotypes : A AB B and O

anti A and anti B antibodies are used to identify blood type by causing agglutination (clumping) of red blood cells with specific antigens

39
Q

review genotypic and phenotypic ratios associated with recessive autosomal, dominant autosomal, and sex linked recessive traits. are the ratios the same for males and females

A

recessive autosomal - 3:1 phenotypic ratio in offspring

dominant autosomal - 1:2:1 ratio

sex linked recessive traits show different ratios in males and females bc presence of one X chromosome in males

40
Q

dominant, recessive, autosomal, and sex linked inheritance

A

autosomal ~ gene is an autosome not sex chromosome

dominant ~ expressed if present

recessive ~ require two copies to be expressed

sex linked ~ trait located on the sex chromosome either X or Y

41
Q

difference between DNA and RNA

A

DNA~ double stranded, contains sugar deoxyribose, has base thymine

RNA~ single stranded, contains sugar ribose, base uracil instead

42
Q

process of replication ( DNA synthesis)
transcription and translation

A

replication is the process of copying DNA, transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA template, translation is the process of protein synthesis using mRNA as a template for amino acid

43
Q

name and describe major types of RNA involved in protein synthesis

A

messenger RNA (mRNA) ~
transfer RNA (tRNA)~
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)~

44
Q

what are codons, what is the start codon

A

codons are theee nucleotide sequences on mRNA that code for specific amino acids, start codon is AUG which initiates translation,

and there are three stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) that terminate translation

45
Q

what we’re the key steps in the transformation that allowed us to insert foreign DNA into bacteria

A

DNA uptake, recombination, expression of the foreign DNA

heat shock to allow entry, adding plasmid to bacteria, and growing transformed bacteria

46
Q

what ingredients are needed for the extraction of DNA from living cells, what is the role of each of those ingredients

A

a source of DNA (cells)

detergent (lysis or lyses cells)(break open cells and release DNA)

enzymes/protease (digests proteins)

phenol/chloroform(removes proteins and lipids)

ethanol (precipitates DNA)

47
Q

explain how gel electrophoresis works, how the gel is made and how it works in separating different fragments of DNA, how is charge applied to gel

A

gel electrophoresis involve separating DNA fragments based on size using electric field, a gel matrix usually made form agarose provides a medium through which DNA can migrate or travel.

Negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode, smaller fragments move faster through the gel

48
Q

how to interpret resulting gel, how are bands separated

A

smaller fragments migrate farther than large ones, bands appear as distinct lines or bands in the gel, with each band representing a different sized DNA fragment

49
Q

what are restriction enzymes

A

enzymes that cleave or cut DNA at specific recognition sites producing fragments with sticky ends that can be used in DNA cloning and manipulation

50
Q

what is the loading dye used for

A

helps load samples into gel wells and provides color to track migration, make samples denser

51
Q

how and why a digested and undigested sample will look differently on a gel

A

digested sample will show distinct bands corresponding to the sizes of the DNA fragments produced by restriction enzyme digestion (multiple bands representing different sized fragments produced)

undigested will show a single band representing the intact DNA molecule (one thick band of uncut DNA)

52
Q

what is glycolysis the break down of

A

break down of glucose into pyruvate

53
Q

what does fermentation refer to

A

refers to the incomplete breakdown of sugar in the absence of oxygen

54
Q

oxygen requirements of a human

A

facultative aerobes

55
Q

final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration

A

oxygen

56
Q

carbon fixation

A

process in which carbon dioxide is incorporated into the organic molecule

57
Q

products of light reactions

A

atp and electron acceptors

58
Q

are carriers hetero, homo?

A

carriers are heterozygous