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Final Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following structures is formed by the endocardial cushions?
a. Septum primum
b. Septum intermedium
c. Interventricular septum
d. Septum secundum
e. Both A and D

A

b. Septum intermedium

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2
Q

Which of the following hormones causes regression of the paramesonephric ducts?
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Mullerian inhibiting substance
d. Wolffian inhibiting substance
e. In both males and females, regression of the paramesonephric duct is passive and does
not require hormonal input

A

c. Mullerian inhibiting substance

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3
Q

During the second phase of hematopoiesis what is the primary location for blood cell production?
a. Liver
b. Yolk sac
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow
e. Thymus

A

a. Liver

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4
Q

What is the primary function of the zone of polarizing activity in the developing limb?
a. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb
b. Setting up the anterior-posterior axis of the limb
c. Determining the pattern of neural ingrowth into the limb
d. Setting up the dorsal-ventral axis of the limb
e. Determining the pattern of vascular ingrowth into the limb

A

b. Setting up the anterior-posterior axis of the limb

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5
Q

Which of the following is a valid reason why the urinary system must develop prior to the genital system?
a. The degenerating metanephric tubule cells form the sex cords of the indifferent gonad
b. The epididymis forms from the mesonephric duct
c. Uterine morphology is due to the degree of fusion of the mesonephric ducts
d. The follicle cells and the seminiferous tubules form from cells of the degenerating mesonephric tubules
e. Both B and D

A

e. Both B and D

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6
Q

Organs such as the digestive tract are composed of derivatives of more than one germ layer. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the digestive system origins?
a. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining
b. The mesoderm gives rise to the myenteric plexus
c. The ectoderm gives rise to the smooth muscle
d. The neural crest cells give rise to the smooth muscle

A

a. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining

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7
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding heart development:
a. The endocardial cushions are involved in septum intermedium formation
b. The bulbus cordis becomes the right ventricle
c. The heart develops in a region of the intermediate mesoderm called the cardiac crest
d. The septum secundum forms after the formation of the septum primum

A

c. The heart develops in a region of the intermediate mesoderm called the cardiac crest

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8
Q

The metanephric blastema is induced by Wnt signaling from the:
a. Pronephric ducts
b. Ureteric bud
c. Mesonephric tubules
d. Mesonephric duct
e. Metanephros

A

b. Ureteric bud

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9
Q

Which of the following statements regarding respiratory system development is correct?
a. The respiratory system initially diverts from developing foregut via the laryngo-tracheal groove
b. Lung formation is complete before birth
c. The lung buds form from the dorsal foregut
d. The saccular stage is characterized by terminal bronchiole formation
e. All of the above statements are correct

A

d. The saccular stage is characterized by terminal bronchiole formation

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10
Q

A developing fetus will only have about 12% of the blood leaving the right ventricle entering into the pulmonary circulation from the right ventricle. Which of the following is responsible for this shunt of blood away from the lungs and where is the blood being shunted to?
a. Ductus venosus; aorta
b. Ductus arteriosus; aorta
c. Ductus venosus; inferior vena cava
d. Ductus arteriosus; inferior vena cava
e. Foramen ovale; left atrium

A

b. Ductus arteriosus; aorta

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11
Q

Upon examination of a male kitten, there is a palpable left testis within the left scrotal sac, but no palpable right testis within the right scrotal sac. There were no other abnormalities noted. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY explanation involving the gonad of this kitten?
a. Agenesis of the right testis
b. Atresia of the right testis
c. Unilateral cryptorchidism
d. Fusion of the testes prior to descent
e. None of the above is a plausible explanation for the kitten’s abnormality

A

c. Unilateral cryptorchidism

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12
Q

With regards to digestive system development:
a. The liver and the pancreas form from the most cranial region of the hindgut
b. The stomach undergoes one 90 degree clockwise rotation followed by a 45 degree counter clockwise rotation
c. In both the simple stomach and ruminant stomach the ventral portion proliferates more rapidly
d. The urorectal septum separates the cloaca into the urogenital sinus and the rectum
e. Both B and D

A

d. The urorectal septum separates the cloaca into the urogenital sinus and the rectum

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13
Q

By which 3 properties is a stem cell defined?
a. Ability to self-renew by asymmetrical cell division, high proliferation properties and differentiation potency
b. Ability to self-renew by symmetrical cell division, high proliferation properties and differentiation potency
c. Ability to self-renew by symmetrical cell division, high proliferation properties and targeted cell death (apoptosis)
d. Ability to self-renew by asymmetrical cell division, cellular senescence and differentiation potency

A

a. Ability to self-renew by asymmetrical cell division, high proliferation properties and differentiation potency

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14
Q

Embryonic stem cells are isolated from:
a. Bone marrow
b. Fetal tissue in the first trimester
c. The inner cell mass of an embryo
d. The trophectoderm layer of a blastocyst
e. Amniotic fluid

A

c. The inner cell mass of an embryo

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15
Q

In what ways are embryonic stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells similar?
a. They can both undergo unlimited self-renewal
b. They can both differentiate into cell types of all three germ layers
c. They both require the expression of transgenes to maintain pluripotency
d. All of the above
e. a) and b) are correct

A

e. a) and b) are correct

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16
Q

Stromal vascular fraction refers to:
a. The fraction of bone marrow aspirate containing MSCs
b. The red blood cell fraction in umbilical cord blood
c. The nucleated cell fraction of bone marrow aspirate
d. The nucleated cell fraction of adipose tissue
e. The white blood cells in umbilical cord blood

A

d. The nucleated cell fraction of adipose tissue

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17
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the biceps muscles?
a. Neural ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

A

e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

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18
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the uterus?
a. Neural ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Splanchnic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

A

b. Intermediate mesoderm

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19
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the primary bronchus?
a. Neural ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Splanchnic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

A

d. Endoderm

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20
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the kidney nephron?
a. Neural ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Splanchnic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

A

b. Intermediate mesoderm

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21
Q

HOX genes are important for:
a. Neurogenesis
b. Myogenesis
c. Osteogenesis
d. Body patterning
e. None of the above

A

d. Body patterning

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22
Q

Which genes display “colinearity” and are involved in limb development?
a. Transforming growth factor beta superfamily genes
b. Bone morphogenic protein genes
c. Fibroblast growth factor genes
d. HOX genes
e. All of the above

A

d. HOX genes

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23
Q

The right side of the heart is a “high pressure” system during fetal life:
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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24
Q

Aortic stenosis is often associated with hypertrophy of the right ventricle:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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25
Q

Blood in the umbilical vein has:
a. Low oxygen concentration
b. High oxygen concentration

A

b. High oxygen concentration

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26
Q

Endochondral ossification involves the formation of bone from mesoderm through a cartilage template.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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27
Q

Vertebrae are formed by:
a. Resegmentation of sclerotome derived from somites to form vertebral bodies
b. Intramembranous ossification of sclerotome mesenchyme
c. Formation of vertebral bodies at sites of Ebner’s fissures
d. All of the above

A

a. Resegmentation of sclerotome derived from somites to form vertebral bodies

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28
Q

The greater curvature of the stomach is due to:
a. The ventral portion of the dilated caudal foregut grows rapidly
b. The dorsal portion of the dilated caudal foregut grows rapidly

A

b. The dorsal portion of the dilated caudal foregut grows rapidly

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29
Q

Embryonic physiological umbilical herniation occurs to accommodate the:
a. Large liver producing blood cells
b. Large spleen producing blood cells
c. Midgut
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

c. Midgut

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30
Q

All lung tissues are fully formed and matured at the time of birth:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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31
Q

The functional kidney in the newborn and adult originates from:
a. The pronephros
b. The metanephros
c. The mesonephros

A

b. The metanephros

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32
Q

The following structures are of endoderm origin:
a. Urinary bladder and ureters
b. Ureters and urethra
c. Urinary bladder and urethra
d. All of the above

A

c. Urinary bladder and urethra

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33
Q

The uterine tubes and uterus originate from the paired:
a. Paramesonephric/Mullerian ducts
b. Mesonephric/Wolffian ducts

A

a. Paramesonephric/Mullerian ducts

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34
Q

Secreted products from Leydig and Sertoli cells are important for female phenotypic sex development:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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35
Q

In order to evaluate the efficacy of stem cell therapies. studies need to account for:
a. Random allocation to treatment and control groups
b. Observer bias
c. Outcome bias
d. Natural waxing and waning of disease
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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36
Q

Allogenic/allogeneic cells are defined as:
a. Cells from the patient itself
b. Cells from a different species
c. Cells from a different individual of the same species
d. Cells from the same tissue
e. Cells from the same sex

A

c. Cells from a different individual of the same species

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37
Q

In Canada, there are currently no regulations on veterinarian’s use of autologous cell-based products like stromal vascular fraction or PRP.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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38
Q

Multipotent mesenchymal stromal cells may exert their function by:
a. Phagocytizing dead tissue in a manner similar to macrophages
b. Differentiating into the cell type of the desired mesodermal tissue
c. Centrally increasing the individual’s pain threshold
d. Altering the function of the immune system at the repair site via secreted factors
e. Mechanisms described in answer b and d

A

e. Mechanisms described in answer b and d

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39
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the cerebral cortex?
a. Neural ectoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Splanchnic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/myotome

A

a. Neural ectoderm

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40
Q

What is the embryonic origin of melanocytes?
a. Neural crest cells
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Splanchnic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Somite mesoderm/dermatome

A

a. Neural crest cells

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41
Q

Spermatocytogenesis is the male form of gametogenesis that results in:
a. Production of spermatogonia type A by mitosis
b. Production of spermatogonia type B by meiosis
c. Formation of spermatocytes
d. Formation of spermatids

A

c. Formation of spermatocytes

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42
Q

Neurocristopathies can arise due to defects of neural crest cell migration or differentiation. Which of the following is an example of a neurocristopathy?
a. Overo lethal white syndrome
b. Hydrocephaly
c. Syndactyly
d. Cleft palate
e. Both A and D

A

e. Both A and D

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43
Q

Which of the following is a derivative of the embryonic neural tube?
a. Postganglionic autonomic neurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Ependymal cells
d. Both B and C
e. Both A and B

A

d. Both B and C

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44
Q

The large fluid-filled follicle that is preparing to ovulate is called:
a. Primary follicle
b. Secondary follicle
c. Graafian follicle
d. Primordial follicle

A

c. Graafian follicle

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45
Q

Fertilization occurs:
a. In the infundibulum region of the uterine tubes
b. In the uterus
c. In the ampullary region of the uterine tubes
d. In the cervix

A

c. In the ampullary region of the uterine tubes

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46
Q

Which part of the female reproductive tract acts as a sperm reservoir, allowing spermatozoa from the same ejaculate to reach the uterine tubes at different times?
A. Cervix
b. Uterus
c. Vagina
d. Intramural region of the uterine tubes
e. Spermatozoa from the same ejaculate reach the uterine tubes all at the same exact time

A

A. Cervix

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47
Q

What extraembryonic membrane directly interfaces with the endometrium to form the placenta?
a. Chorion
b. Allantois
c. Yolk sac
d. Amnion
e. Both A and D

A

a. Chorion

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48
Q

What kind of placenta does a pig have?
a. Diffuse, endotheliochorial
b. Diffuse, synepitheliochorial
c. Zonary, epitheliochorial
d. Cotyledonary, epitheliochorial
e. Diffuse, epitheliochorial

A

e. Diffuse, epitheliochorial

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49
Q

The horse placenta secretes a unique hormone, equine chorionic gonadotropin (eCG), to signify pregnancy. eCG production occurs in:
a. Chorionic girdle
b. Endometrial cups
c. Endometrial caruncles
d. eCG is not produced in the placenta

A

b. Endometrial cups

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50
Q

During an equine foaling it is normal to first see a “red bag” protruding from the vulva:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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51
Q

The diencephalon arises from the ______________ and will become the ________________ (choose the BEST answer):
a. Prosencephalon, cerebrum
b. Prosencephalon, midbrain
c. Rhombencephalon, cerebellum
d. Rhombencephalon, medulla oblongata
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

FYI… arises from the PROSENCEPHALON; will become the EPITHALAMUS/THALAMUS/HYPOTHALAMUS

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52
Q

Choose the most correct statement:
a. Dorsal root ganglia are made of neuronal cell bodies derived from the neural tube
b. Spinal nerves are made up of mostly afferent nerve fibres
c. Motor neurons grow out of the basal plate to meet with peripherally growing processes from the dorsal root ganglion
d. Dorsal root ganglia are made of neuronal cell bodies from cardiac neural crest

A

c. Motor neurons grow out of the basal plate to meet with peripherally growing processes from the dorsal root ganglion

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53
Q

If the somites close to a limb-forming region are removed, which of the following will be missing in the limb?
a. Nerves
b. Muscles
c. Bones
d. Phalanges
e. All of the above

A

b. muscles

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54
Q

Mammalian cleavage during early embryogenesis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Decrease in blastomere size following each division
b. Rapid cell cycle
c. Growth of blastomeres
d. Exponential increase in cell number
e. Production of the blastocyst

A

c. Growth of blastomeres

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55
Q

Intra-uterine Insemination (IUI) consists of:
a. Injection of a single sperm in an oocyte
b. Injection of washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter
c. In vitro fertilization of an oocyte, with fertilized embryos placed back into a recipient
d. In vitro maturation of sperm

A

b. Injection of washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter

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56
Q

Which statement is true about therapeutic cloning:
a. The making of embryonic stem cells that are used for replacing/repairing damaged tissues/organs
b. Inserting a diploid nucleus from a body cell into an egg cell whose nucleus has already been removed, producing a live offspring
c. Aims to produce a live individual identical to the one that donated the genetic material for the procedure
d. None of the above statements are true

A

a. The making of embryonic stem cells that are used for replacing/repairing damaged tissues/organs

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57
Q

Which Assisted Reproductive Technology consists of the injection of a single sperm cell directly into the cytoplasm of an egg?
a. Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)
b. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
c. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
d. Reproductive Cloning (SCNT)

A

b. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

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58
Q

The advantage of vitrification versus slow-cooling is:
a. No formation of ice crystals
b. No need for cryoprotectants
c. Lower freeze-thaw survival rate
d. There is no advantage of vitrification versus slow-cooling

A

a. No formation of ice crystals

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59
Q

There are many genes and molecules important to embryonic development. Which of the
following statements is correct regarding each molecule and its function?
a. Oct4 is important in maintaining cellular pluripotency
b. BMP acts as a neural inducer and also acts to promote cell proliferation in limb
development
c. SHH acts as a neural inducer and also acts to maintain the anterior-posterior axis in limb
development
d. Both B and C are correct
e. Both A and C are correct

A

e. Both A and C are correct

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60
Q

True or false: FGF signaling promotes cell differentiation.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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61
Q

Chromosomal sex is determined at the time of fertilization, but phenotypic sex is determined by:
a. WNT gene
b. SRY gene
c. Mullerian inhibiting substance
d. Wolffian inhibiting substance
e. TSPY gene

A

b. SRY gene

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62
Q
  1. What important process is depicted in Figure 1? (sorry, no figure)
    a. Blastulation
    b. Gastrulation
A

b. Gastrulation

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63
Q

In Figure 1, what structure does the letter “A” identify?
a. Permanent streak
b. Primitive streak
c. Primary streak
d. Neural tube
e. Notochord

A

b. Primitive streak

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64
Q

In Figure 1, what cells (blue) does the letter “B” identify?
a. Mesoderm cells
b. Endoderm cells
c. Hypoblast cells
d. Epiblast cells
e. Neural crest cells

A

d. Epiblast cells

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65
Q

In Figure 1, which cells (orange) does letter “C” identify?
a. Mesoderm cells
b. Endoderm cells
c. Hypoblast cells
d. Epiblast cells
e. Neural crest cells

A

a. Mesoderm cells

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66
Q

In Figure 1, which cells (yellow) does letter “D” identify?
a. Mesoderm cells
b. Endoderm cells
c. Hypoblast cells
d. Epiblast cells
e. Neural crest cells

A

b. Endoderm cells

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67
Q

In Figure 1, which cells (green) does letter “E” identify?
a. Mesoderm cells
b. Endoderm cells
c. Hypoblast cells
d. Epiblast cells
e. Neural crest cells

A

c. Hypoblast cells

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68
Q

Choose the most correct statement:
a. ESCs can be used allogenically because they are capable of modulating inflammation
b. Differentiation of pluripotent stem cells reduces their risk of tumour formation
c. The stem cell niche for HSCs is in the blood vessels
d. Cell fate is fixed

A

b. Differentiation of pluripotent stem cells reduces their risk of tumour formation

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69
Q

True or false: During development, cells usually undergo an epithelial to mesenchymal transition in order to migrate to their final locations.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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70
Q

The allantois contributes to:
a. Placenta development
b. Midgut development
c. Bladder development
d. All of the above are correct
e. A) and C) are correct

A

e. A) and C) are correct

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71
Q

When is the second polar body extruded during oogenesis?
a. After ovulation, before oocyte is fertilized
b. After ovulation, only if oocyte is fertilized
c. After meiosis I, during formation of secondary oocyte
d. None of the above are correct

A

b. After ovulation, only if oocyte is fertilized

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72
Q

True or false: Facial development requires the contribution of endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, and neural crest derivatives.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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73
Q

With regards to the development of the urogenital system:
a. The urinary system develops from paraxial mesoderm while the genital system arises from intermediate mesoderm
b. The primitive sex cords arise from the metanephros
c. GDNF secreted by the metanephric blastema induces outgrowth of the ureteric bud from the mesonephric duct
d. The cranial suspensory ligament becomes the gubernaculum testis

A

c. GDNF secreted by the metanephric blastema induces outgrowth of the ureteric bud from the mesonephric duct

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74
Q

Nutrigenomics is the branch of science that:
a. Examines the response of genes to food compounds
b. Examines the response of nutritional changes to metabolites
c. Examines the response nutritional constituents to changes in gene changes
d. Examines the response of genes to genetic mutations

A

a. Examines the response of genes to food compounds

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75
Q
  1. Tagging of a foreign gene to which of the following helps in visual confirmation of a transgene?
    a. Metallothionine gene
    b. 5-methylcysteine gene
    c. Tetracycline Inducible gene
    d. Green Fluorescent protein gene
A

d. Green Fluorescent protein gene

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76
Q

What is the difference between prognostic, diagnostic and surrogate biomarkers?
a. Analyte that signifies the presence of a endpoint (e.g., death); analyte that provides information on likely course of disease in an untreated individual or likelihood of response to a given therapy; analyte that helps achieve clinical diagnosis, respectively.
b. Analyte that helps achieve clinical diagnosis; analyte that signifies the presence of a endpoint (e.g., death); analyte that provides information on likely course of disease in an untreated individual or likelihood of response to a given therapy, respectively.
c. Analyte that provides information on likely course of disease in an untreated individual or likelihood of response to a given therapy; analyte that helps achieve clinical diagnosis; analyte that signifies the presence of an endpoint (e.g., death); respectively.
d. Analyte that helps achieve clinical diagnosis; analyte that provides information on likely course of disease in an untreated individual or likelihood of response to a given therapy; analyte that signifies the presence of a endpoint (e.g., death), respectively.

A

c. Analyte that provides information on likely course of disease in an untreated individual or likelihood of response to a given therapy; analyte that helps achieve clinical diagnosis; analyte that signifies the presence of an endpoint (e.g., death); respectively.

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77
Q

Cancer in dogs and cats is similar to cancer in people because:
a. It is the biggest cause of mortality
b. It is commonly cured
c. It is commonly treated with immunotherapy
d. It has a genetic basis

A

d. It has a genetic basis

78
Q

In animals and people, the most common cause of cancer is:
a. Genetic factors
b. Environment

A

b. Environment

79
Q

Lulu, a 4 year old English Bulldog mix, was recently diagnosed with elbow dysplasia, a multifactorial disease. The gene(s) involved with elbow dysplasia in dogs has yet to be elucidated. Genetic causes of multifactorial diseases are best studied by:
a) Utilizing a genomics approach
b) Studying individual candidate genes
c) Estimating heritability values
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

80
Q

A freemartin is a:
a) Mosaic
b) Chimera
c) Trisomy
d) Fertile male co-twin
e) Fertile female co-twin

A

b) Chimera

81
Q

True or False: During development, cells usually undergo a mesenchymal to epithelial transition in order to migrate to their final locations.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

82
Q

The allantois contributes to:
a) Placenta development
b) Midgut development
c) Bladder development
d) All of the above are correct
e) A) and C) are correct

A

e) A) and C) are correct

83
Q

During gastrulation, which germ layer is the first to be established?
a) Mesoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm

A

c) Endoderm

84
Q

Which germ layer does smooth muscle originate from?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm

A

c) Mesoderm

85
Q

Masta Blasta and Shockwave are healthy, monozygotic (identical) twin colts who are a result of a monochorionic/diamniotic twinning event.
When did the embryo most likely split to produce these twins?
a) At the morula stage
b) After epiblast/hypoblast formation
c) After ICM formation
d) At gastrulation

A

c) After ICM formation

86
Q

The chorion and yolk sac are formed in part from lateral plate mesoderm that splits into two layers. Chorion results from ___________ mesoderm associating with __________, and the yolk sac forms from ____________ associating with ___________.
a) Visceral mesoderm/trophoblast; somatic mesoderm/epiblast
b) Somatic mesoderm/hypoblast; visceral mesoderm/trophoblast
c) Somatic mesoderm/trophoblast; visceral mesoderm/hypoblast
d) Visceral mesoderm/endoderm; somatic mesoderm/trophoblast

A

c) Somatic mesoderm/trophoblast; visceral mesoderm/hypoblast

87
Q

A pug puppy was referred to a specialist for urinary incontinence and ataxia. Radiographs revealed the puppy has hemivertebrae in the upper back area. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these defects?
a) A problem during endoderm specification
b) A problem during mesoderm and ectoderm formation
c) A problem during neural crest cell differentiation
d) A problem during somitogenesis

A

d) A problem during somitogenesis

88
Q

What is the embryonic origin of melanocytes?
a) Neural crest cells
b) Somite/dermatome
c) Somatic mesoderm
d) Intermediate mesoderm
e) Endoderm

A

a) Neural crest cells

89
Q

Neurocristopathies can arise due to defects of neural crest cell migration or differentiation. Which of the following is an example of a neurocristopathy?
a) Overo lethal white syndrome
b) Achondrodysplasia
c) Cleft palate
d) Syndactyly
e) Both A and C

A

e) Both A and C

90
Q

The enteric nervous system arises from:
a) Trunk neural crest cells
b) Vagal neural crest cells
c) Cardiac neural crest cells
d) Cranial neural crest cells

A

b) Vagal neural crest cells

91
Q

There are many genes and molecules important to embryonic development. Which of the following statements is correct regarding each molecule and its function?
a) Oct4 is important in maintaining cellular pluripotency
b) BMP acts as a neural inducer and also acts to promote cell proliferation in limb development
c) SHH acts as a neural inducer and also acts to maintain the anterior-posterior axis in limb development
d) Both B and C are correct
e) Both A and C are correct

A

e) Both A and C are correct

92
Q

Somites arise from ___________ undergoing _____________.
a) Paraxial mesoderm, mesenchymal to epithelial transition
b) Neuroectoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transition
c) Paraxial mesoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transition
d) Lateral plate mesoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transition

A

a) Paraxial mesoderm, mesenchymal to epithelial transition

93
Q

The “clock and wave” mechanism is a model used to describe the formation of somites. Which of the following is the MOST CORRECT with respect to this mechanism?
a) The “clock” refers to the time it takes for the somite to differentiate into dermamyotome and sclerotome
b) Wnt/Notch signaling is responsible for inducing an epithelial to mesenchymal transition
c) The “wave” refers to the gradient of Wnt/Notch signaling
d) It incorporates a feedback loop whereby formation of somite causes FGF signaling to drop caudally

A

d) It incorporates a feedback loop whereby formation of somite causes FGF signaling to drop caudally

94
Q

A Manx cat is born with a congenital anomaly: a noticeable fluid-filled cyst on his back (lumbar region). At about 8 weeks old it was evident that the kitten has difficulty walking and controlling his bladder. Which of the following conditions does the kitten most likely have?
a) Subarachnoid cyst
b) Hemivertebrae
c) Myelomeningocele
d) Spina bifida occulta

A

c) Myelomeningocele

95
Q

In January 2020, a stillborn foal with an abnormally large, open skull was examined at the OVC.
Upon necropsy, it was determined the foal had ________________ due to an obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct, causing accumulation of CSF within the ventricular system of the brain. What is the embryonic origin of the cerebral aqueduct?
a) Arnold-Chiari Malformation; prosencephalon
b) Hydrocephalus; mesencephalon
c) Syringomyelia; rhombencephalon
d) Hydrocephalus; rhombencephalon

A

b) Hydrocephalus; mesencephalon

96
Q

Dorsal root ganglia are derived from cranial neural crest cells.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

97
Q

Maintenance of progenitor cell population in neuroepithelium depends on:
a) Interneuron signaling
b) Orientation of mitotic spindle
c) SHH signaling
d) BMP signaling

A

b) Orientation of mitotic spindle

98
Q

The cell bodies of sensory neurons of a spinal nerve arise from the:
a) Basal plate
b) Dorsal root ganglia
c) Roof plate
d) Alar plate

A

b) Dorsal root ganglia

99
Q

Choose the incorrect statement with regards to spinal cord development.
a) The basal (ventral) plate will form the ventral horn, containing motor neurons
b) The alar plate and basal plate are located in the intermediate zone
c) The ventricular zone contains neural progenitor cells
d) The alar (dorsal) plate contains sensory neurons, whose axonal projections grow out into the dorsal root ganglion

A

d) The alar (dorsal) plate contains sensory neurons, whose axonal projections grow out into the dorsal root ganglion

100
Q

What extraembryonic membrane directly interfaces with the endometrium to form the placenta?
a) Chorion
b) Allantois
c) Yolk sac
d) Amnion
e) Both A and D

A

a) Chorion

101
Q

What kind of placenta does a cat have?
a) Zonary, endotheliochorial
b) Diffuse, synepitheliochorial
c) Zonary, epitheliochorial
d) Cotyledonary, epitheliochorial
e) Diffuse, epitheliochorial

A

a) Zonary, endotheliochorial

102
Q

In a hemochorial placenta, which maternal tissue layers are degraded?
a) Endometrial epithelium
b) Endometrial epithelium, connective tissue
c) Endometrial epithelium, connective tissue, and endothelium
d) None of the maternal layers are degraded in a hemochorial placenta

A

c) Endometrial epithelium, connective tissue, and endothelium

103
Q

Dogs have an endotheliochorial placenta. A characteristic of this placenta is:
a) There is high IgG diffusion
b) Nutrients, gases, and IgGs must cross maternal endothelium and chorion epithelial barrier
c) Maternal blood pools into spaces between chorionic villi
d) There is no degradation of maternal tissue

A

b) Nutrients, gases, and IgGs must cross maternal endothelium and chorion epithelial barrier

104
Q

Placentomes are formed from cotyledons from the chorion and caruncles from the endometrium.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

105
Q

During the first phase of hematopoiesis, what is the primary location for blood cell production?
a) Liver
b) Yolk sac
c) Spleen
d) Bone marrow
e) Thymus

A

b) yolk sac

106
Q

Which of the following structures is formed by the endocardial cushions?
a) Septum primum
b) Septum intermedium
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Septum secundum
e) Both A and D

A

b) Septum intermedium

107
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding heart development:
a) The interventricular septum forms at the same time as the septum primum
b) The heart develops in a region of the intermediate mesoderm called the cardiac tube
c) The bulbus cordis becomes the right ventricle
d) The septum secundum forms after the formation of the septum primum

A

b) The heart develops in a region of the intermediate mesoderm called the cardiac tube

108
Q

A developing fetus will only have about 12% of the blood leaving the right ventricle entering into the pulmonary circulation. The _________________ is responsible for shunting blood away from the lungs and into the _________________.
a) Ductus venosus; aorta
b) Ductus venosus; inferior vena cava
c) Ductus arteriosus; inferior vena cava
d) Ductus arteriosus; aorta
e) Foramen ovale; left atrium

A

d) Ductus arteriosus; aorta

109
Q

Upon routine physical examination, a heart murmur was detected in 2 year old Rudy the Rottweiler. An chest radiograph determined that Rudy had aortic stenosis. What did the veterinarian see on
the radiograph?
a) Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
b) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle

A

a) Hypertrophy of the left ventricle

110
Q

Blood in the umbilical vein has:
a) High oxygen concentration
b) Low oxygen concentration

A

a) High oxygen concentration

111
Q

Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT regarding division of the developing heart?
a) The ostium primum persists in the septum primum
b) The septum primum develops from the dorsal side of the atrium
c) The foramen ovale allows for blood flow from left atrium to right atrium
d) The septum intermedium is derived from mesoderm

A

b) The septum primum develops from the dorsal side of the atrium

112
Q

Which of the following statements regarding respiratory system development is correct?
a) The respiratory system initially diverts from developing foregut via the tracheo-esophageal groove
b) Lung formation is complete before birth
c) The lung buds form from the dorsal foregut
d) The saccular stage is characterized by alveolar formation

A

a) The respiratory system initially diverts from developing foregut via the tracheo-esophageal groove

113
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the origin and formation of the gut layers?
a) The visceral mesoderm gives rise to the inner lining of the digestive tract and liver
b) The foregut includes the esophagus and part of the duodenum
c) Neural crest cells give rise to the connective tissue components of the digestive tract
d) The endoderm gives rise to the muscular components of the digestive tract

A

b) The foregut includes the esophagus and part of the duodenum

114
Q

Organs such as the digestive tract are composed of derivatives of more than one germ layer. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the digestive system origins?
a) The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining
b) The mesoderm gives rise to the smooth muscle
c) The ectoderm gives rise to pulmonary pleura
d) Neural crest cells give rise to enteric ganglia

A

c) The ectoderm gives rise to pulmonary pleura

115
Q

In all species, the midgut herniates into the umbilical cord to form part of the small intestine and large intestine. Which aspect of the midgut, before rotation, becomes the duodenum, jejunum, and part of the
ileum?
a) Cranial limb of elongated midgut
b) Caudal limb of elongated midgut
c) The foregut gives rise to these structures

A

a) Cranial limb of elongated midgut

116
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Facial development requires the contribution of endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, and neural crest derivatives.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

117
Q

Facial deformities, like undershot jaws, can occur as a result of defects in pharyngeal arch specification. Which arch is associated with jaw formation and may have associated ear abnormalities?
a) Arch 1
b) Arch 2
c) Arch 3
d) Arch 4
e) Arch 6

A

a) Arch 1

118
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the hyoid bone?
a) Intermediate mesoderm
b) Neural crest cells
c) Somatic mesoderm
d) Paraxial mesoderm

A

b) Neural crest cells

119
Q

At which stage do secondary bronchi form during embryonic/fetal lung development?
a) Embryonic
b) Pseudoglandular
c) Canalicular
d) Saccular
e) Alveolar

A

c) Canalicular

120
Q

Which of the following structures are of endoderm origin (choose the most correct answer)?
a) Urinary bladder and ureters
b) Urinary bladder and urethra
c) Ureters and urethra
d) All of the above

A

b) Urinary bladder and urethra

121
Q

Which of the following hormones causes regression of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts?
a) Wolffian inhibiting substance
b) Mullerian inhibiting substance
c) In females, regression of the mesonephric duct is passive and does not require hormonal input
d) Testosterone

A

c) In females, regression of the mesonephric duct is passive and does not require hormonal input

122
Q

The uterine tubes and uterus originate from the paired:
a) Paramesonephric/Mullerian ducts
b) Mesonephric/Wolffian ducts

A

a) Paramesonephric/Mullerian ducts

123
Q

Upon examination of a male puppy, there is a palpable left testis within the left scrotal sac, but no palpable right testis within the right scrotal sac. A small subcutaneous lump was found at the top of the right leg near the scrotum. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY explanation involving the gonad of this puppy?
a) Agenesis of the right testis
b) Ectopic testis
c) Bilateral cryptorchidism
d) Fusion of the testes prior to descent
e) None of the above is a plausible explanation for the kitten’s abnormality

A

b) Ectopic testis

124
Q

Chromosomal sex is determined at the time of fertilization, but phenotypic sex is determined by:
a) Mullerian inhibiting substance
b) Wnt gene
c) Wolffian inhibiting substance
d) SRY gene
e) TSPY gene

A

d) SRY gene

125
Q

The ureteric bud branches as a result of induction from the metanephric blastema via:
a) Epithelial to mesenchymal transition
b) Wnt signaling
c) GDNF signaling
d) Hox signaling

A

c) GDNF signaling

126
Q

What is the primary function of the zone of polarizing activity in the developing limb?
a) Stimulating outgrowth of the limb
b) Setting up the anterior-posterior axis of the limb
c) Determining the pattern of neural ingrowth into the limb
d) Setting up the dorsal-ventral axis of the limb
e) Determining the patter of vascular ingrowth into the limb

A

b) Setting up the anterior-posterior axis of the limb

127
Q

What is the embryonic origin of most of the back muscles?
a) Somatic mesoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d) Endoderm
e) Paraxial mesoderm

A

e) Paraxial mesoderm

128
Q

HOX genes are responsible for:
a) Body patterning
b) Neurogenesis
c) Myogenesis
d) Osteogenesis
e) All of the above

A

a) Body patterning

129
Q

If the somites close to a limb-forming region are removed, which of the following will be missing in the limb?
a) Nerves
b) Muscles
c) Bones
d) Epidermis
e) All of the above

A

b) muscles

130
Q

The sternal bars of the developing embryo originate from:
a) Sclerotome
b) Somatic mesoderm
c) Visceral mesoderm
d) Neural crest cells

A

b) Somatic mesoderm

131
Q

TRUE or FALSE: FGF signaling promotes cell proliferation.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

132
Q

Vertebrae are formed by:
a) Endochondral ossification of sclerotome mesenchyme
b) Formation of vertebral bodies at sites of Ebner’s fissures
c) Resegmentation of sclerotome to form vertebral bodies
d) A) and C)

A

d) A) and C)

133
Q

Which of the following is a key difference in skeletal and cardiac myogenesis?
a) Myofibrils are only formed in skeletal muscle
b) Skeletal myoblasts fuse with each other while cardiac myocytes do not
c) Cardiac muscle is derived from somatic mesoderm and skeletal muscle is derived from somites
d) None of the above

A

b) Skeletal myoblasts fuse with each other while cardiac myocytes do not

134
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Only the lens arises from surface ectoderm during eye development.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

135
Q

What is the correct order of development of the neural retinal layer (from first to develop to last to develop)?
a) 1) Ganglion cells 2) Bipolar neurons 3) Amacrine/horizontal cells 4) Photoreceptors
b) 1) Ganglion cells 2) Amacrine/horizontal cells 3) Bipolar neurons 4) Photoreceptors
c) 1) Photoreceptors 2) Bipolar neurons 3) Amacrine/horizontal cells 4) Ganglion cells
d) 1) Photoreceptors 2) Amacrine/horizontal cells 3) Bipolar neurons 4) Ganglion cells

A

b) 1) Ganglion cells 2) Amacrine/horizontal cells 3) Bipolar neurons 4) Photoreceptors

136
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The development of the cornea requires degradation of hyaluronic acid and the action of thyroxine to render the cornea transparent.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

137
Q

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the development of the lens?
a) Epithelial cells form lens fibres by replacing their organelles with crystalline proteins
b) Secondary lens fibres form from primary lens fibres
c) Lens development is complete well before birth
d) Primary lens fibres form from the anterior end of the lens vesicle

A

a) Epithelial cells form lens fibres by replacing their organelles with crystalline proteins

138
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The eye cup is formed from the same embryonic brain region as the hypothalamus.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

139
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding therapeutic cloning?
a) It involves generating embryonic stem cells to replace/repair damaged tissues/organs
b) It involves inserting a diploid nucleus from a body cell into an egg cell whose nucleus has already been
removed, producing a live offspring
c) It aims to produce a live individual identical to the one that donated the genetic material for the
procedure
d) None of the above statements are true

A

a) It involves generating embryonic stem cells to replace/repair damaged tissues/organs

140
Q

Intra-uterine Insemination (IUI) consists of:
a) Injection of washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter
b) In vitro maturation of sperm
c) Injection of a single sperm in an oocyte
d) In vitro fertilization of an oocyte, with fertilized embryos placed back into a recipient

A

a) Injection of washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter

141
Q

TRUE or FALSE: in Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT), the tissue cell donor nucleus only contributes about half of the genetic material in the resulting offspring.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

142
Q

Which Assisted Reproductive Technology consists of the injection of a single sperm cell directly into the cytoplasm of an egg?
a) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
b) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
c) Reproductive Cloning (SCNT)
d) Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)

A

a) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

143
Q

Which part of the female reproductive tract acts as a sperm reservoir, allowing spermatozoa from the same ejaculate to reach the uterine/fallopian tubes at different times?
a) Uterus
b) Vagina
c) Cervix

A

c) Cervix

144
Q

The binding of sperm to ________ results in the acrosome reaction.
a) A receptor on uterine/fallopian tubes
b) A receptor on the zona pellucida
c) A receptor on the cumulus cells
d) A receptor on the oocyte

A

b) A receptor on the zona pellucida

145
Q

Spermatocytogenesis is the male form of gametogenesis that results in:
a) Production of spermatogonia type A by mitosis
b) Production of spermatogonia type B by meiosis
c) Formation of spermatocytes
d) Formation of spermatids

A

c) Formation of spermatocytes

146
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Primordial germ cells are diploid when they reach the genital ridge.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

147
Q

Choose the most correct statement:
a) Embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can be used allogenically because they can modulate inflammation
b) Differentiation of pluripotent stem cells reduces their risk of tumour formation
c) The stem cell niche for hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) is in the blood vessels
d) Cell fate is fixed

A

b) Differentiation of pluripotent stem cells reduces their risk of tumour formation

148
Q

Allogenic/allogeneic cells are defined as:
a) Cells from the patient itself
b) Cells from a different species
c) Cells from a different individual of the same species
d) Cells from the same tissue
e) Cells from the same sex

A

c) Cells from a different individual of the same species

149
Q

The function(s) of multipotent mesenchymal stromal cells include(s):
a) Phagocytizing dead tissue in a manner similar to macrophages
b) Differentiating into certain mesodermal cell types
c) Increasing the individual’s pain threshold
d) Altering the function of the immune system at the repair site via secreted factors
e) Functions described in B) and D)

A

e) Functions described in B) and D)

150
Q

What three properties define a “stem cell”?
a) Unspecialized, highly proliferative, and extensive differentiation potential
b) Unspecialized, capable of asymmetrical cell division, and unipotent
c) Capable of asymmetrical cell division, reprogramming, and specialized
d) Capable of symmetrical cell division, highly proliferative, and extensive differentiation potential

A

a) Unspecialized, highly proliferative, and extensive differentiation potential

151
Q

Embryonic stem cells are isolated from:
a) Bone marrow
b) Fetal tissue
c) The inner cell mass of an embryo
d) The trophectoderm layer of a blastocyst

A

c) The inner cell mass of an embryo

152
Q

In what ways are embryonic stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells similar?
a) They can both undergo unlimited self-renewal
b) They can both differentiate into cell types of all three germ layers
c) They both require the expression of transgenes to maintain pluripotency
d) A) and B) are correct
e) All of the above are correct

A

d) A) and B) are correct

153
Q

A benefit of using induced pluripotent stem cells in future clinical practice is:
a) They have a lower risk of immune rejection compared to ESCs
b) They have no risk of teratoma formation
c) They are less likely to have chromosomal aberrations than embryonic stem cells (ESCs)
d) They are not genetically manipulated

A

a) They have a lower risk of immune rejection compared to ESCs

154
Q

In order to evaluate the efficacy of stem cell therapies, studies need to account for:
a) Observer bias
b) Outcome bias
c) Control groups
d) Recovery due to other factors
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

155
Q

TRUE or FALSE: In the US, there are currently no regulations on veterinarian’s use of autologous cell-based products like stromal vascular fraction or PRP.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

156
Q

Stromal vascular fraction refers to:
a) The fraction of bone marrow aspirate containing MSCs
b) The red blood cell fraction in umbilical cord blood
c) The cellular fraction of bone marrow aspirate
d) The cellular fraction of adipose tissue

A

d) The cellular fraction of adipose tissue

157
Q

A client tells you that he’s read a number of success stories of dogs undergoing stem cell treatments for a variety of conditions. He requests more information on this treatment for his aging dog who has osteoarthritis (OA). What piece of advice are you LEAST LIKELY to give?
a) Studies are typically subjective and based on owner reported outcomes
b) MSC therapy doesn’t work on OA for dogs
c) Efficacy has yet to be shown using randomized clinical trials
d) Studies generally use small sample sizes

A

b) MSC therapy doesn’t work on OA for dogs

158
Q

TRUE or FALSE: There is some evidence that MSC therapy reduces the re-injury rate of superficial digital flexor tendons (SDFT) in racehorses.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

159
Q

You add donor cells from the inner cell mass (ICM) of blastocyst A to the ICM of blastocyst B. Where will you find derivatives of blastocyst A?
a) In newborn tissues
b) In placental tissues
c) In cells derived only from the ectoderm
d) In placental and newborn tissues
e) Composing the trophoblast

A

a) In newborn tissues

160
Q

Upon graduation, you are asked to consult on a large research project at the OVC looking at improving Guernsey cow blastocyst growth rates during IVF via gene therapy. You hypothesize that by correcting one or more genes of interest, you could improve fertility in this breed for years to come. Would the best approach be germline gene therapy or somatic gene therapy?
a) Germline gene therapy
b) Somatic gene therapy

A

a) Germline gene therapy

161
Q

A client is hesitant to enroll their dog in a gene therapy clinical trial involving AAV vectors. To inform the client better, which of the following statements would you use to explain AAV gene therapy?
a) AAV vectors are typically unable to replicate in cells on their own
b) They do not incorporate into the host DNA
c) Low viral load produces equal results to high viral load
d) A) and B)
e) All of the above

A

d) A) and B)

162
Q

The outcome of bovine IVF blastocyst experiments allowed you to apply for more funding for gene therapy research. Your next task is to evaluate the effect of deleting a BMP gene (or rendering it non-functional) on
blastocyst/gastrula development. Which gene therapy technology would you choose to proceed with these experiments?
a) CRISPR/Cas9 via homology-directed repair
b) AAV vector therapy with an inducible promoter
c) CRISPR/Cas9 via non-homologous end joining
d) Transgenic insertion of foreign DNA

A

c) CRISPR/Cas9 via non-homologous end joining

163
Q

Mammalian cleavage during early embryogenesis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Decrease in blastomere size following each division
b. Rapid cell cycle
c. Growth of blastomeres
d. Exponential increase in cell number
e. Production of the blastocyst

A

c. Growth of blastomeres

164
Q

You add donor inner cell mass (ICM) cells to a 64-cell blastocyst. The number of ICM cells that you added is equivalent to those already present in the blastocyst. You will find descendants of the donor ICM cells in:
a. Newborn tissues
b. Placental tissues
c. Cells derived from only the ectoderm
d. Placental and newborn tissues
e. Composing the trophoblast

A

a. Newborn tissues

165
Q

True or false: Facial development requires the contribution of endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, and neural crest derivatives.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

166
Q

The enteric nervous system arises from:
a) Trunk neural crest cells
b) Vagal neural crest cells
c) Cardiac neural crest cells
d) Cranial neural crest cells

A

b) Vagal neural crest cells

167
Q

Somites arise from ___________ undergoing _____________.
a) Paraxial mesoderm, mesenchymal to epithelial transition
b) Neuroectoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transition
c) Paraxial mesoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transition
d) Lateral plate mesoderm, epithelial to mesenchymal transitio

A

a) Paraxial mesoderm, mesenchymal to epithelial transition

168
Q

The “clock and wave” mechanism is a model used to describe the formation of somites. Which of the following is the MOST CORRECT with respect to this mechanism?
a) The “clock” refers to the time it takes for the somite to differentiate into dermamyotome and sclerotome
b) Wnt/Notch signaling is responsible for inducing an epithelial to mesenchymal transition
c) The “wave” refers to the gradient of Wnt/Notch signaling
d) It incorporates a feedback loop whereby formation of somite causes FGF signaling to drop caudally

A

d) It incorporates a feedback loop whereby formation of somite causes FGF signaling to drop caudally

169
Q

A Manx cat is born with a congenital anomaly: a noticeable fluid-filled cyst on his back (lumbar region). At about 8 weeks old it was evident that the kitten has difficulty walking and controlling his bladder. Which of the following conditions does the kitten most likely have?
a) Subarachnoid cyst
b) Hemivertebrae
c) Myelomeningocele
d) Spina bifida occulta

A

c) Myelomeningocele

170
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Facial development requires the contribution of endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, and neural crest derivatives.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

171
Q

Cooper, Dr. Lepage’s horse, had his left eye removed due to complications from adult-onset uveitis. Upon examination, there were signs of retinal detachment at the back of the eye. What is the MOST LIKELY explanation for why retinal detachment occurred in Cooper’s case?
a) Abnormal intraocular pressure
b) Damage to the optic nerve
c) Abnormal development of inner optic cup (neural layer)
d) Abnormal development of outer optic cup (RPE layer)

A

a) Abnormal intraocular pressure

172
Q

What do the iris stroma and animal fur have in common?
a) They both contain melanocytes
b) They both contain cells of neural crest origin
c) They are both beautiful to behold
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

173
Q

Which of the following hormones causes regression of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts?
a) Wolffian inhibiting substance
b) Mullerian inhibiting substance
c) In females, regression of the mesonephric duct is passive and does not require hormonal input
d) Testosterone

A

c) In females, regression of the mesonephric duct is passive and does not require hormonal input

174
Q

Polyspermy is prevented in each of the following ways EXCEPT:
a. An influx of calcium alters membrane potential to make it difficult for other sperm to penetrate
b. Cortical granules endocytose to create a barrier between the zona pellucida and oocyte
c. A release of enzymes into the perivitelline space blocks entry of other sperm
d. Receptors on the oocyte are altered to prevent entry of sperm

A

b. Cortical granules endocytose to create a barrier between the zona pellucida and oocyte

175
Q

_____________ is a process in which spermatozoa are produced from male primordial germ cells by way of mitosis and meiosis. In this process, ____________ give rise to primary spermatocytes.
a. Spermatogenesis; spermatozoon
b. Spermatogenesis; spermatogonia
c. Spermatocytogenesis; spermatozoon
d. Spermatocytogenesis; spermatids

A

b. Spermatogenesis; spermatogonia

176
Q

Cleavage during early embryogenesis is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Decrease in blastomere size following each division
b. Rapid cell proliferation
c. Passive epigenetic reprogramming of the paternal genome
d. Exponential increase in cell number
e. Production of the blastocyst

A

c. Passive epigenetic reprogramming of the paternal genome

177
Q

What is the proper order of events leading to conception?
a. Insemination, acrosome reaction, capacitation, zona digestion
b. Insemination, zona digestion, acrosome reaction, capacitation
c. Insemination, capacitation, acrosome reaction, zona digestion
d. Insemination, zona digestion, capacitation, acrosome reaction

A

c. Insemination, capacitation, acrosome reaction, zona digestion

178
Q

Capacitation of sperm involves:
a. Addition of surface proteins to improve motility
b. Penetration of the corona radiata of oocyte
c. The release of the enzyme hyaluronidase
d. Removal of surface proteins so sperm can bind to zona pellucida

A

d. Removal of surface proteins so sperm can bind to zona pellucida

179
Q

Presence of two polar bodies indicates:
a. That the cell is a mature oocyte
b. That the cell has been fertilized by a sperm
c. That the cell is ready for implantation
d. None of the above, polar bodies are irrelevant byproducts of oogenesis

A

b. That the cell has been fertilized by a sperm

180
Q

Choose the most appropriate answer. Tissue-engineering relies on the
interplay of:
a. Cells, scaffolds, cytokines and possibly mechanical cues
b. Bioreactors and bio-printers
c. Scientists, doctors and patients
d. Chemists, physicists and engineers
e. Cells and animal models

A

a. Cells, scaffolds, cytokines and possibly mechanical cues

181
Q

The transcription factors Oct3/4, Sox2, Klf4 and C-Myc are collectively know
as
a. Surface markers of hematopoietic stem cells
b. Pluripotency markers of embryonic stem cells
c. The Yamanaka factors of induced pluripotent stem cells
d. Markers of mesenchymal stem cells
e. None of the above

A

c. The Yamanaka factors of induced pluripotent stem cells

182
Q

The inner cell mass forms mainly:
a. embryo proper (embryonic body)
b. extra-embryonic tissue
c. yolk sac
d. cytotrophoblast

A

a. embryo proper (embryonic body)

183
Q

When mammalian gametes unite during fertilization, the resulting single cell is called:
a. syngamy
b. blastocyst
c. gonad
d. zygote

A

d. zygote

184
Q

Conjoined twins are always monochorionic/diamniotic.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

185
Q

A newborn lamb was euthanized after experiencing difficulty breathing and digesting food shortly after birth. A necropsy revealed gross defects in the lining of the GI tract and lungs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the these defects?
a. A problem in mesoderm and ectoderm formation
b. A problem during endoderm development
c. A problem during neural crest cell migration
d. A problem during somitogenesis
e. There is not enough information to determine a developmental cause

A

b. A problem during endoderm development

186
Q

The sclerotome arises from cells that were located in the _________, and will give rise to ___________:
a. Paraxial mesoderm, vertebrae
b. Intermediate mesoderm, muscles
c. Endoderm, dermis
d. Surface ectoderm, vertebrae

A

a. Paraxial mesoderm, vertebrae

187
Q

Neural plate formation signals the beginning of neurulation; closure of the anterior and posterior neuropores signals the end of neurulation.
a. True/False
b. False/False
c. True/True
d. False/True

A

c. True/True

188
Q

The cerebellum is derived from the:
a. Mesencephalon
b. Myencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Prosencephalon
e. Neural crest

A

c. Metencephalon

189
Q

Choose the incorrect statement regarding domestic animal placentae.
a. The dog has a zonary placenta, where development involves the degeneration of a
choriovitelline placenta centrally
b. In the horse a choriovitelline placenta is replaced by a chorioallantoic placenta
c. The pig has a chorioallantoic diffuse placenta
d. The cow has a cotyledonary placenta, where cotyledons formed by the
endometrium of the uterus combine with caruncles formed from chorionic villi

A

d. The cow has a cotyledonary placenta, where cotyledons formed by the
endometrium of the uterus combine with caruncles formed from chorionic villi

190
Q

Nourishment of the embryo by the hemotrophe replaces the initial support by the:
a. Embryotrophe
b. Histiotrophe

A

b. Histiotrophe

191
Q

An epitheliochorial placenta has lost two maternal tissue layers:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Veterinary Developmental Biology (1 decks)

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