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Learning and Conditioning > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

A type of learning in which the future frequency of a behaviour is
affected by its consequences

A

Operant conditioning

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2
Q

Behaviours that are motivated by their consequences

A

Operant behaviours

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3
Q

In classical conditioning, responses are elicited by —. In operant conditioning, responses are maintained by —

A

Antecedent stimuli, consequences

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4
Q

Who was the first to study operant conditioning?

A

Edward Thorndike

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5
Q

Explain Thorndike’s law of effect

A

Behaviours change as a result of consequences: A response followed by a pleasant consequence (satisfier) will tend to be repeated, a response followed by an unpleasant consequence (annoyer) will tend to decrease in frequency

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6
Q

Controlled by antecedent stimuli

A

Respondent behaviour

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7
Q

Controlled and selected by consequences after the behavior

A

Operant behaviour

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8
Q

A response that produces a consequence

A

Operant response (R)

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9
Q

A consequence that serves to increase or decrease the frequency of the response

A

Operant consequence (S^R/P)

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10
Q

Consequences that strengthen behaviours

A

Reinforcers

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11
Q

Consequences that weaken behaviours

A

Punishers

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12
Q

In the context of operant conditioning, what does strength refer to?

A

The probability/frequency of responses

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13
Q

The process by which a consequence strengthens a behaviour

A

Reinforcement

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14
Q

The process by which a consequence weakens a behaviour

A

Punishment

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15
Q

Stimulus in the presence of which responses are reinforced and in the absence of which responses are not reinforced

A

Discriminative stimulus/operant antecedent (S^D)

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16
Q

What is the three-term contingency?

A

Antecedent event (S^D): Behaviour (R) -> Consequence (S^R/P)

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17
Q

Weakening of a behaviour through non-reinforcement of a previously reinforced behaviour

A

Extinction

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17
Q

Name a pro and a con for extinction

A

Gentler than punishment, slower to condition

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18
Q

Name and describe the four types of contingencies

A

Positive reinforcement (S^R+): The presentation of an appetitive stimulus following a response (increase in strength)

Negative reinforcement (S^R-): The removal of an aversive stimulus following a response (increase in strength)

Positive punishment (S^P+): The presentation of an aversive stimulus (decrease in strength)

Negative punishment (S^P-): The removal of an appetitive stimulus following a response (decrease in strength)

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18
Q

Stimulus that signals the absence of reinforcement

A

Discriminative stimulus for extinction (S^Δ)

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19
Q

Reinforcement inherent to performing the behaviour

A

Intrinsic reinforcement

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20
Q

Reinforcement by a consequence that is external to the behaviour

A

Extrinsic reinforcement

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21
Q

Gradual creation of new behavior through reinforcement of successive approximations to that behaviour

A

Shaping

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22
Q

The response required to obtain reinforcement

A

Schedules of reinforcement

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23
Q

Stable response patterns that emerge after considerable
exposure to a schedule

A

Steady-state behaviours

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24
Q

Each specified response is reinforced

A

Continuous reinforcement schedule (CRF)

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25
Q

What are continuous reinforcement schedules best for?

A

Strengthening a newly learned behavior

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26
Q

Only some responses are reinforced

A

Intermittent schedule

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27
Q

Name the four main types of intermittent schedules

A

Fixed ratio
Variable ratio
Fixed interval
Variable interval

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28
Q

Reinforcement is contingent on a fixed, predictable number of responses

A

Fixed ratio (FR)

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29
Q

Describe the typical rate of response for a fixed rate schedule

A

Generally produces high rate of response with a “post-reinforcement pause” after each reinforcer

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30
Q

Schedule has a very low response requirement

A

Rich/dense schedule

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31
Q

Very high response requirement

A

Lean schedule

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32
Q

Increasing the response requirement from a very rich schedule to a very lean schedule

A

Stretching the ratio

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33
Q

Breakdowns in behavior due to increasing response requirement too quickly or too high

A

Ratio strain

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34
Q

Reinforcement is contingent upon varying, unpredictable number of responses

A

Variable ratio (VR)

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35
Q

Reinforcement is contingent upon the first response after a fixed, predictable time period

A

Fixed interval (FI)

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36
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon the first response after a varying, unpredictable time period

A

Variable interval (VI)

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37
Q

Reinforcement is contingent on performing the behaviour continuously

A

Duration schedule

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38
Q

Behavior must be performed continuously for a fixed, predictable period of time

A

Fixed duration (FD)

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39
Q

Behavior must be performed continuously for a varying, unpredictable period of time

A

Variable duration (VD)

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40
Q

Reinforcement is directly contingent on the rate of response

A

Response-rate schedules

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41
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon emitting at least a certain number of responses in a certain period of time

A

Differential reinforcement of high rates (DRH)

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42
Q

Minimum amount of time must pass between each response before the reinforcer is delivered

A

Differential reinforcement of low rates (DRL)

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43
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon emitting a series of responses at a steady rate

A

Differential reinforcement of paced responding

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44
Q

Reinforcer delivered independently of a response

A

Noncontingent schedules (response independent schedules)

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45
Q

Reinforcer is delivered after fixed, predictable period of time, regardless of one’s behavior.

A

Fixed time (FT) schedule

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46
Q

Reinforcer is delivered following varying, unpredictable period of time, regardless of one’s behavior.

A

Variable time (VT) schedule

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47
Q

Combination of two or more simple schedules

A

Complex schedules

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48
Q

Requirements of 2+ simple schedules must be met before a reinforcer is delivered

A

Conjunctive schedule

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49
Q

Response requirement changes as a function of performance while responding for previous reinforcer

A

Adjusting schedule

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50
Q

Sequence of 2+ simple schedules, each of which has its own S^D
and ending with a final reinforcer

A

Chained schedule

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51
Q

Increase in strength and/or efficiency of responding as one draws near goal

A

Goal-gradient effect

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52
Q

Responding on a chained schedule established by training the final link first and the initial link last (in animals)

A

Backward chaining

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53
Q

How are response chains usually established in humans?

A

Instructions

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54
Q

Explain drive reduction theory

A

All reinforcers are associated (directly or indirectly) with some type of drive reduction

An event is reinforcing to the extent that it is associated with a reduction in some type of physiological drive

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55
Q

Describe the criticisms of drive reduction theory

A

Not all reinforcers are associated with drive reduction

Incentive motivation: Derived from some property of the reinforcer as opposed to an internal drive state

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56
Q

Explain the Premack principle

A

High-probability behavior (HPB) can be used to reinforce low-probability behavior (LPB)

Reinforcement consists of a sequence of 2 behaviours: The behaviour that is being reinforced, and the behaviour that is the reinforcer (reinforcers are viewed as behaviors rather than stimuli)

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57
Q

Explain the response deprivation hypothesis

A

A behaviour can serve as a reinforcer when access to that behaviour is restricted or its frequency falls (or is in danger of falling) below its preferred level of occurrence

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58
Q

Baseline level of occurrence when an organism can freely engage in the activity

A

Preferred level of occurence

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59
Q

Explain the behavioural bliss approach

A

An organism with free access to alternative activities will distribute its behaviour in such a way as to maximize overall reinforcement

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60
Q

Optimal distribution of activities

A

Behavioural bliss point

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61
Q

A decrease in the strength response due to nonreinforcement of a previously reinforced response

A

Extinction

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62
Q

List the three common side effects of extinction

A

Extinction burst
Increase in variability
Emotional behaviour (extinction-induced aggression, depressive symptoms)

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63
Q

Temporary increase in frequency and intensity of responding when extinction is first implemented

A

Extinction burst

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64
Q

Reappearance during extinction of other behaviors that had once been effective in obtaining reinforcement

A

Resurgence

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65
Q

Why is consistency important for extinction?

A

Behaviours can be strengthened if reinforcement is suddenly given during extinction

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66
Q

Extent to which responding persists after an extinction procedure has been implemented

A

Resistance to extinction

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67
Q

List the four factors affecting resistance to extinction

A

Schedule of reinforcement
Degree of deprivation
Previous experience with extinction
Discriminative stimulus

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68
Q

Describe the partial reinforcement effect

A

Behavior maintained on intermittent (partial) reinforcement schedule will extinguish more slowly than behavior maintained on continuous schedule

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69
Q

How does history of reinforcement impact extinction?

A

More reinforcers received = greater resistance to extinction

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70
Q

How does the magnitude of the reinforcer impact extinction?

A

Large reinforcers often result in greater resistance to extinction

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71
Q

How does the degree of deprivation impact extinction?

A

The greater the level of deprivation for the reinforcer, the greater the resistance to extinction

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72
Q

How does previous experience impact extinction?

A

The greater the number of previous exposures to extinction, the quicker extinction will occur

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73
Q

How does the discriminative stimulus impact extinction?

A

Extinction occurs more quickly when there is a distinctive stimulus that signals the onset of extinction

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74
Q

The reappearance of an extinguished response, despite the continued absence of reinforcement following a rest period of extinction

A

Spontaneous recovery

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75
Q

Reinforcement of any behavior other than the target behavior that is being extinguished.

A

Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)

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76
Q

Concerning differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO), what is the target behaviour weakened by?

A

Both the non-reinforcement of unwanted behaviour and the reinforcement of the alternative behaviour

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77
Q

A stimulus in the presence of which responses are reinforced and in the absence of which responses are not reinforced

A

Discriminative stimulus

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78
Q

When the presence of discriminative stimulus reliably affects probability of a behavior

A

Stimulus control

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79
Q

Tendency for an operant response to be emitted in the presence of a stimulus that is similar to an SD

A

Stimulus generalization

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80
Q

With stimulus generalization, the more similar the stimulus…

A

The stronger the response

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81
Q

Describes the strength of responding in the presence of stimuli that are similar to the SD and that vary along a continuum

A

Generalization gradient

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82
Q

Tendency for an operant response to be emitted more in the presence of one stimulus than another

A

Stimulus discrimination

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83
Q

Describe the relationship between stimulus generalization and discrimination

A

Less generalization = strong discrimination
More generalization = weak discrimination

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84
Q

Reinforcement of responding in the presence of SD and not in the presence of another stimulus

A

Discrimination training

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85
Q

Describe the peak shift effect

A

Following discrimination training, the peak of the generalization will often shift from the SD to a stimulus further removed from the discriminative stimulus for extinction (S∆)

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86
Q

What are the two possible explanations for the peak shift effect?

A

Some generalization occurs: Responding occurs to relative rather than absolute values of the stimuli
SD has acquired some negative properties due to its similarity to the S∆

87
Q

Two or more independent schedule presented in sequence, each resulting in reinforcement having distinctive SD

A

Multiple schedule

88
Q

With multiple schedules, what indicates stimulus control?

A

Stimulus control happens when the subject responds differently in the presence of different SDs associated with each schedule

89
Q

When a change in rate of reinforcement on one component of multiple schedule produces an opposite change in the rate of response on another component

A

Behavioural contrast

90
Q

A decrease in reinforcement of one component produces an increase in response of another component

A

Positive contrast effect

91
Q

An increase in reinforcement of one component produces a decrease in response of another component

A

Negative contrast effect

92
Q

When the rate of response varies inversely with an upcoming change in the rate of reinforcement.

A

Anticipatory contrast

93
Q

A form of gradual discrimination training that minimizes errors and side effects

A

Errorless discrimination training

94
Q

What are the two aspects of errorless discrimination training?

A

Fading: S∆ is introduced soon after the animal begins to respond appropriately to the SD

S∆ presented in weak form to begin with and then gradually strengthened

95
Q

Describe an advantage and disadvantage of errorless discrimination training

A

Advantage: minimizes errors and reduces adverse effects of discrimination training such as frustration

Disadvantage: can result in learning that is more rigid and difficult to change in comparison to regular discrimination training

96
Q

What are the two types of behaviour associated with negative reinforcement?

A

Escape behaviour
Avoidance

97
Q

Performance of a behaviour terminates an aversive stimulus

A

Escape behaviour

98
Q

Performance of a behaviour prevents the aversive stimulus from occurring

A

Avoidance

99
Q

Describe the two-process theory of avoidance

A

A fear response is classically conditioned

Once the fear response is conditioned, moving away from the CS is negatively reinforced through a reduction in fear through operant conditioning

100
Q

What are the main criticisms of the two-process theory of avoidance?

A

Some avoidance responses are extremely persistent and do not extinguish

Once a subject gets used to the procedure, they don’t necessarily show fear but avoidance continues anyway

If there is no longer any fear in the CS, how can the CS be negatively reinforced by a reduction in fear?

101
Q

Describe the anxiety conservation hypothesis

A

Responses occur so quickly that there is insufficient CS exposure to the feared stimulus for extinction to occur

102
Q

Describe the one-process theory of avoidance

A

The act of avoidance is negatively reinforced by a lower rate of aversive stimulation

103
Q

Describe the differences between avoidance in animals and phobias in humans

A

Avoidance usually requires a few conditioning trials, phobic conditioning in humans requires only a single trial

Avoidance may eventually extinguish, but phobic conditioning in humans is extremely resistant to extinction

104
Q

Avoidance conditioning procedure for animals that more closely matches human phobic conditioning

A

Stampfl Procedure

105
Q

A disorder in which people have recurring, unwanted thoughts, ideas or sensations and to get rid of the thoughts, they feel driven to do something repetitively

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

106
Q

What is the two-process theory explanation for OCD?

A

Obsession has been classically conditioned to elicit anxiety
Compulsive behavior is negatively reinforced by reduction of anxiety

107
Q

Treatment for OCD featuring graduated prolonged exposure to events that elicit the obsessive anxiety while not engaging in the compulsive behavior.

A

Exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy

108
Q

What are two types of negative punishment?

A

Time out: Loss of access to any positive reinforcer for a period of time

Response cost: Removal of specific positive reinforcer

109
Q

Punishment that is an inherent aspect of the behavior being punished

A

Intrinsic punishment

110
Q

Punishment that is not an inherent aspect of behavior being punished

A

Extrinsic punishment

111
Q

Event that is innately punishing

A

Primary (unconditioned) punisher

112
Q

Event that is punishing because of past association with other punishers

A

Secondary (conditioned) punisher

113
Q

Event that is punishing because of its past association with many other punishers

A

Generalized (generalized secondary) punisher

114
Q

Describe eight problems with punishment

A

Doesn’t directly strengthen occurrence of adaptive behavior

Punishing one behavior can result in generalized suppression of other behaviors.

The person delivering the punishment could become an SD for punishment

Punishment may simply teach individual to avoid the person who delivered the punishment

Likely to elicit strong emotional response (can interfere with adaptive behavior you would prefer to see).

Can sometimes elicit aggressive reaction, which may include bystanders.

Punishment through modelling could teach the person that punishment is acceptable means of controlling behavior.

Often has an immediate effect stopping unwanted behavior; use of punishment is therefore strongly reinforced and can be taken advantage of

115
Q

Describe four possible benefits of punishment

A

Quickly stops a behavior

Can sometimes lead to…
- An increase in social behavior
- Improvement in mood
- Increased attention to the environment

116
Q

Describe six recommendations for the effective use of punishment

A

It should be immediate

It should be consistent.

It should be intense enough to stop the behavior (but not so intensive as to be abusive).

Negative punishment (e.g., time-out) is generally preferable to positive punishment.

If possible, it should be accompanied by an explanation.

It should be combined with positive reinforcement for appropriate behavior

117
Q

Describe conditioned suppression theory

A

Punishment does not weaken behavior, it produces an emotional response that interferes with the behaviour’s occurrence

118
Q

Describe the avoidance theory of punishment

A

Punishment is a type of avoidance conditioning where the avoidance response is any behavior other than behavior being punished

119
Q

Describe the Premack principle of punishment

A

Low-probability behavior (LPB) can be used to punish high-probability behavior (HPB)

120
Q

When the aversive event was essentially uncontrollable (even unpredictable), such that whatever you do, you are unable to influence your exposure to that event

A

Noncontingent punishment

121
Q

Decrease in learning ability resulting from repeated exposure to uncontrollable aversive events

A

Learned helplessness

122
Q

Experimentally produced disorder in which exposure to unpredictable aversive events leads to neurotic-like symptoms

A

Masserman’s Experimental Neurosis

123
Q

Describe the relationship between Masserman’s Experimental Neurosis and PTSD

A

Suggests that people are more likely to develop PTSD when exposed to highly aversive events in settings that they normally regard as safe

124
Q

Simultaneous presentation of two or more independent schedules, each leading to a reinforce, where the subject is given a choice between responding for a reinforcer on one schedule vs another

A

Concurrent Schedules of Reinforcement

125
Q

Describe the matching law

A

On concurrent VI schedules, the proportion (or percentage) of responses emitted on a schedule will approximately match the proportion of reinforcers earned on that schedule

126
Q

What is the matching law equation?

A

RA/(RA+RB) = S^RA/(S^RA+S^RB)

Number of responses emitted on schedule A divided by the number of responses emitted on schedule A plus the number of responses emitted on schedule B equals the number of reinforcers earned on schedule A divided by the number of reinforcers earned on schedule A plus the number of reinforcers earned on schedule B

127
Q

Name the three types of deviations from the matching law

A

Undermatching
Overmatching
Bias

128
Q

Proportion of responding on the richer versus poorer schedule is less different than would be predicted by matching

A

Undermatching

129
Q

Proportion of responding on the richer versus poorer schedule is more different than would be predicted by matching

A

Overmatching

130
Q

One alternative receives a higher proportion of responding than would be predicted by matching regardless of the number of reinforcers received

A

Bias

131
Q

Describe maximization (optimization) theory of matching

A

Matching will somehow maximize overall reinforcement

132
Q

Describe the melioration theory of matching

A

We tend to shift behavior toward a higher value choice regardless of the long-term effect on the overall amount of reinforcement

133
Q

Describe the three factors contributing to melioration sometimes reducing overall reinforcement

A

We might spend more time on a highly reinforcing alternative than is needed to obtain the reinforcer

Overindulgence in a highly reinforcing alternative can result in long-term habituation, thereby reducing its value as reinforcer

Our behavior is more strongly influenced by immediate rather than delayed reinforcers

134
Q

Entails the strengthening of a desired action and the capacity to suppress an undesired impulse

A

Self-control

135
Q

Ability to delay gratification, resisting short-term temptations in order to meet long-term goals

A

Willpower

136
Q

Which three brain regions are associated with self-control?

A

Anterior cingulate
Prefrontal cortex
Orbitofrontal cortex

137
Q

Name seven factors affecting self-control

A

Ability to delay instant gratification, regulate emotions and control impulses

Age

Family and Culture

Exposure to alcohol & drugs in the child’s environment

Temperament

Genetics

Mental health conditions, illnesses, disorders

138
Q

High levels of self-control are associated with improvements in which four areas?

A

Cognitive and self-regulatory skills in adolescence

Health and well-being

Academic performance

Interpersonal relationships

139
Q

Low levels of self-control are associated with which three issues?

A

Buying and financial problems

Eating disorders

Procrastination

140
Q

What was Skinner’s position on self-control?

A

Self-control is not an issue of willpower but instead an issue of being confronted with choices that have conflicting outcomes

141
Q

Which two responses did Skinner suggest were involved in self-control?

A

(1) a controlling response that (2) alters frequency of a controlled response

142
Q

Describe the four types of controlling responses according to Skinner

A

Physical restraint: Physically manipulate something in the environment

Depriving or satiating: Use motivating operations of deprivation or satiation

Doing something else: Perform and alternate behavior

Self-reinforcement and Self-punishment

143
Q

True or False: Self-punishment and self-reinforcement function differently than punishment and reinforcement

A

True

144
Q

Describe self-control as a temporal issue

A

Self-control can be viewed as the act of choosing a larger later reward (LLR) over a smaller sooner reward (SSR) - delayed gratification

145
Q

The act of choosing an SSR over an LLR

A

Impulsiveness

146
Q

Describe the Ainsle-Rachlin model of self-control

A

Preference between SSRs and LLRs can shift over time

The value of a reward is often a hyperbolic function of its delay

As delay to a reward decreases, reward value increases slowly at first and then more and more sharply as the reward becomes imminent.

147
Q

Describe the major problem with self-control and two possible solutions according to the Ainsle-Rachlin model

A

The major problem in self-control is we often experience a reversal of preference from the LLR to the SSR when the SSR becomes imminent

Solution: Raise value of the LLR so that it outweighs the SSR or reduce the value of the SSR

148
Q

Describe the small-but-cumulative effects model of self-control

A

Each individual choice on a self-control task has a small but cumulative effect on one’s likelihood of obtaining desired long-term goal

149
Q

Describe two ways to counter the small-but-cumulative effects tendency

A

Make salient that individual choices are not isolated events, but rather parts of a whole (if you use the “just this once” excuse today, you are likely to also use it tomorrow)

Establish rules that clearly distinguish between acceptable and unacceptable behaviors

150
Q

Describe three ways to improve self-control

A

Setting specific and realistic goals

Develop a plan for achieving your goal

Monitor progress

151
Q

Behavior of a model is witnessed by observer and observer’s
behavior is subsequently changed

A

Observational/Social Learning

152
Q

Strongly emphasizes the importance of observational learning and cognitive variables in explaining human behaviour

A

Social learning theory (Bandura)

153
Q

Mental process occurring between observing a behaviour and imitating it (stimulus/response)

A

Mediation

154
Q

Name and describe the four mediational processes of observational learning

A

Attention: Pay attention to others in order to learn through observation

Retention: Process information/consolidate information

Production: Translate learned behaviour in to action

Motivation: Learners are selective in the behaviours they exhibit

155
Q

Neurons that fire with the same response pattern when we perform an action as when we witness that same action being performed in another person

A

Mirror neurons

156
Q

Typically instinctive/reflexive behaviour that is triggered by observing behaviour in others

A

Contagious behaviour

157
Q

Probability of behavior is changed because an individual’s attention is drawn to a particular item or location by behavior of another individual

A

Stimulus enhancement

158
Q

Classically conditioned emotional responses that result from seeing emotional responses exhibited by others

A

Vicarious emotional responses

159
Q

A form of observational learning that involves close duplication of a novel behaviour

A

True imitation

160
Q

Tendency to imitate new modeled behaviour with no specific reinforcement for doing so

A

Generalized imitation

161
Q

Relate observational learning to operant conditioning

A

Observing a person behaving in a way that leads to reinforcers may influence the likelihood of our engaging in the same behavior

162
Q

Requires that observer pay attention in order to model the behavior in order to acquire the basic information needed to perform that behaviour

A

Acquisition

163
Q

Which four factors does acquisition depend on?

A

Whether model receives reinforcement for the behavior

Whether observer receives reinforcement for paying attention to the model

Whether observer has sufficient skills to benefit from the modeling

Personal characteristics of model

164
Q

How you translate acquired knowledge into actual behaviour

A

Performance

165
Q

Describe the three ways that reinforcement/punishment can impact performance

A

We are more/less likely to perform modeled behavior when we have observed the behavior being reinforced/punished (vicarious reinforcement/punishment)

We are more/less likely to perform modeled behavior when we ourselves experience reinforcement/punishment for performing behavior

Our personal history of reinforcement/punishment

166
Q

What did Bandura’s Bobo doll study demonstrate about the social learning of aggression?

A

Demonstrated that children have a strong tendency to imitate aggressive behavior

The behaviours performed precisely replicated the ones the behaviours they observed (true imitation)

The effect was stronger when the behaviour was observed being reinforced, and less strong when the behaviour was observed being punished

167
Q

Describe gender differences in the social learning of aggression through violent media

A

Studies have shown that men and boys are more likely to express aggression after exposure to media violence

Violent media may make women and girls more vulnerable to being victims of aggression

168
Q

Verbal description of a contingency

A

Rule

169
Q

Behavior that is generated or governed by exposure to rules (through language)

A

Rule-governed behaviour

170
Q

Describe two disadvantages of using rules to govern behaviour

A

Less efficient than behavior that has been directly shaped by natural contingencies/experiences

Sometimes insensitive to actual contingencies of reinforcement in a particular setting (Focusing only on the rule may prevent you from changing behaviour to maximize reinforcement)

171
Q

A verbal description of a contingency that we present to ourselves to influence our behavior

A

Personal rule

172
Q

How closely what we say we are going to do matches what we actually do at a later time

A

Say-Do Correspondence

173
Q

Personal rules that indicate the specific process by which a task is to be accomplished

A

Personal process rules/implementation intentions

174
Q

Mechanism through which organisms that are capable of adapting to environmental pressures are more likely to reproduce and pass along their adaptive characteristics than those that cannot adapt

A

Natural selection

175
Q

Helpful genetic trait that evolves as a result of natural selection

A

Evolutionary adaptation

176
Q

Innate tendency to more easily learn certain types of behaviors or to associate certain types of events with each other

A

Preparedness

177
Q

What are the two main examples of preparedness in classical conditioning?

A

Fear conditioning, taste aversion

178
Q

A form of conditioning in which a food item that has been paired with gastrointestinal illness becomes a conditioned aversive stimulus

A

Taste aversion

179
Q

Name and explain the four processes associated with taste aversion conditioning

A

Stimulus generalization: Avoiding food that tastes similar to the aversive food

Blocking: Presence of aversive stimulus can block taste aversions to other food

Overshadowing: Can occur when we develop an aversion to a stronger tasting food over a milder one

Latent inhibition: More likely to form aversion to a novel food than a familiar one

180
Q

What are the three main ways taste aversion conditioning differs from other forms of classical conditioning?

A

Formation of associations over long delays

One-trial conditioning

Specificity of association (Strong tendency to associate gastrointestinal illness with food or drink rather than other stimuli in the environment)

181
Q

How does preparedness relate to operant conditioning?

A

Some stimuli are better at reinforcing behaviours related to preparedness

182
Q

Innate (biological) reactions to fearful stimuli

A

Species-Specific Defence Reaction (SSDR)

183
Q

Name the three types of SSDRs

A

Fight, flight, freeze

184
Q

Which two parts of the limbic system are associated with the flight-fight-freeze system?

A

Amygdala: Fear responding/encoding

Hypothalamus: regulates automatic nervous system

185
Q

Primary system involved in flight-fight-freeze system

A

Automatic nervous system

186
Q

Conditioning in which an innate fixed action pattern gradually emerges and displaces a behavior being operantly conditioned

A

Instinctive drift

187
Q

Tendency to approach a stimulus that signals the presentation of an appetitive event

A

Sign tracking

188
Q

Excessive pattern of behaviour that emerges as a by-product of certain types of intermittent schedules of reinforcement for some other behaviour

A

Adjunctive behaviour (schedule-induced behaviour)

189
Q

Describe four characteristics of adjunctive behaviour

A

Typically occurs on FI or FT schedules of reinforcement, immediately following consumption of the intermittent reinforcer, during which time another reinforcer is not available

Affected by level of deprivation for the scheduled reinforcer

Opportunity to engage in an adjunctive behavior can serve as a reinforcer for another behavior

There is an optimal time interval between reinforcers for development of adjunctive behavior

190
Q

An activity that emerges when one is confronted by conflict or prevented from obtaining a goal

A

Displacement activity

191
Q

Occurs in rats when they exhibit an abnormally high level of activity and low level of food intake generated by exposure to a time-restricted schedule of feeding

A

Activity anorexia

192
Q

Psychiatric disorder where patients refuse to eat adequate amounts of food and lose extreme amounts of weight

A

Anorexia nervosa

193
Q

An animal’s behavior is organized into certain innate systems (such as feeding, mating, avoiding predators), with each system becoming activated in relevant situations

A

Behaviour systems theory

194
Q

Humans have an inherited predisposition to be drawn to
nature, including other animals

A

Biophilia hypothesis

195
Q

Attributing human characteristics to animals

A

Anthropomorphism

196
Q

The study of information processing across a variety of species

A

Comparative cognition

197
Q

What are Tinbergen’s four questions?

A

Ultimate Cause:
-How does the trait help the individual survive or reproduce?
-Is the trait found in closely related species, or species with similar environments?

Proximate Cause:
-What are the biological or environmental mechanisms that cause the trait to emerge?
-How does the trait develop across the life span of the individual?

198
Q

Forgetting when you have been “told” to forget something

A

Directed forgetting

199
Q

When you see this card, review the delayed matching-to-sample task and directed forgetting pigeon experiment diagrams

A

N/A

200
Q

What seems to be the relationship between food-storing in birds and memory?

A

Food-storing species tend to have better spatial memory than species that do not store food

Spatial memory highly correlated with size of hippocampus, and food-storing species have larger hippocampuses

201
Q

Understanding of quantity

A

Numerosity

202
Q

Studies the cognitive, developmental and neural bases of numbers and mathematics

A

Numerical cognition

203
Q

True or False: Animals are not capable of categorization

A

False: Some animals (such as pigeons) do seem capable of simple categorization

204
Q

True or False: Some animals display counting abilities

A

True: Parrots differentiating between numerical values, primates distinguish among small numbers

205
Q

Relationship between two objects can be inferred by knowing relationship of each to a third object

A

Transitive inference

206
Q

True or False: Humans are the only species known to use tools

A

False

207
Q

Tool use provides evidence that…

A

An animal has higher cognitive abilities

208
Q

Animals can learn to use tools through…

A

Observation, social interaction, and practice

209
Q

Tendency to attribute mental states to others, seeing oneself as separate from others, and recognizing that the content of another’s mind is different from one’s own

A

Theory of mind

210
Q

The ability to perceive oneself as separate from others

A

Self-awareness

211
Q

Name and describe the classic test of self-awareness

A

Mark and mirror task: If an organism behaves differently when faced with their reflection than they would otherwise, it is an indication of self-awareness

212
Q

How are cooperation and deception related to theory of mind?

A

Cooperation and deception require an ability to infer what another individual knows

213
Q

Why is cooperation rare?

A

Competition in one setting tends to impede cooperation in other settings

214
Q

Process of sending and receiving signals

A

Communication

215
Q

What are the four main modes of animal communication?

A

Visual, auditory, tactile, chemical

216
Q

Name and describe the three characteristics that separate language from other forms of communication

A

Symbol: A cue that represents an experience/object that can be shared

Syntax: Grammatical rules concerning how symbols are arranged

Semantics: The meaning associated with symbols

217
Q

True or False: Some animals use language

A

False: Some do have communication systems but none that have all the features of a language

Learning and Conditioning (2 decks)

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