Final

Question 1

What solution is sterile?

Answer 1

Normal saline

Question 2

How do you lip a sterile solution?

Answer 2

Place cap upside down on a flat surface or hold it. Pour a small amount of the container to wash away airborne contaminats control the height to avoid splashing. Agencies replace sterile solutions daily.

Question 3

Who should sign a safe guard envelope?

Answer 3

Yourself, a second nurse, supervisor, security person and client

Question 4

How does a nurse id client owned equipment?

Answer 4

A large, easily readable label

Question 5

Who is responsible for for the admission assessment, even if delegated?

Answer 5

The registered nurse is responsible for admission, even if delegated.

Question 6

What is medication reconciliation?

Answer 6

Obtaining and verifying the medications a client is currently taking. The name,dosage,frequency, and route are necessary to obtain.

Question 7

A medicine error occurs what do you do?

Answer 7

Contact physician

Question 8

Once all admission data is collected, what does the nurse do?

Answer 8

Develops a poc asap but no later then 24 hours following admission

Question 9

What does the initial poc id?

Answer 9

Priority problems, the clients projected needs for teaching and discharge planning.

Question 10

What is a skilled nursing facility?

Answer 10

A nursing home that provides 24 hours nursing care under the direction of an RN.

Question 11

What are procedures that are skilled nursing facility qualified?

Answer 11

Care for a pressure ulcer
Enteral feedings or iv fluids
Bowel or bladder retraining
Injectable medications
Sterile dressing changes
Tracheostomy care

Question 12

What must skilled nursing facility’s provide?

Answer 12

Rehab like pt and ot, pharmaceutical services, dietary services,therapeutic activity’s, and routine and Emergancy dental services.

Question 13

What qualifies you for Medicare beneifits in a nursing home?

Answer 13

A person who has been hospitalized for 3 or more days within 30 days.

Question 14

What is the normal shell temp range?

Answer 14

96.9 to 99.3 Fahrenheit

Question 15

What is a normal core body temp range?

Answer 15

97.0 to 99.5 Fahrenheit

Question 16

What Pyrexia?

Answer 16

A term used to describe a warmer than normal set point

Question 17

What is febrile?

Answer 17

A fever

Question 18

What is afebrile?

Answer 18

No fever

Question 19

What are symptoms associated with a fever?

Answer 19

Flushed skin that is warm
Headache
Above normal pulse and respiratory rate

Question 20

What is hyperthermia?

Answer 20

Excessively high core temp, the temp exceeds 105.8

Question 21

Someone with hyperthemia is at a extremely high risk for?

Answer 21

Brain damage or death from complications associated with increased metabolic demands

Question 22

What is the adult average heart rate?

Answer 22

60-100 bpm at rest

Question 23

What is tachycardia?

Answer 23

100 to 150 bpm

Question 24

What is palpitation?

Answer 24

Awareness of one’s own heart contractions, this can accompany tachycardia

Question 25

What is bradycardia?

Answer 25

HR less then 60 bpm. You should do prompt reporting and continued monitoring.

Question 26

How do you raise subnormal temperature?

Answer 26

Raise the room temp Apply layers and loosely woven blankets Warm blankets and clothing in an oven Provide warm fluids

Question 27

What is a arrhythmia or dysrhythmia?

Answer 27

An irregular pattern of heartbeats

Question 28

A pulse felt with mild pressure

Answer 28

A strong pulse

Question 29

A pulse that is difficult to feel, or once felt is obliterated easily with slight pressure

Answer 29

A feeble, weak or threads pulse

Question 30

A pulse that does not easily disappear with pressure

Answer 30

A bounding or full pulse

Question 31

What heart rate measurement is the most accurate?

Answer 31

Apical pulse. You would listen for 60 seconds.

Question 32

Where is the apical?

Answer 32

The apex is slightly below the left nipple (5th intercostal space) in line with the middle of the clavicle

Question 33

What is an apical-radial rate?

Answer 33

The number of sounds heard at the hearts apex and the rate of the radial pulse during the same period.

Question 34

What is a pulse deficit?

Answer 34

The difference between the apical and the radial pulse rates.

Question 35

Flat, round, colored, nonpalpable area

Answer 35

Macule

Question 36

Elevated, Palpable, solid

Answer 36

Papule

Question 37

Elevated, round, filled with serous fluid/serum

Answer 37

Vesicle

Question 38

Elevated, irregular border, no free fluid

Answer 38

Wheal

Question 39

Elevated, raised border, filled with pus

Answer 39

Pustule

Question 40

Ex of macule

Answer 40

Freckles

Question 41

Ex of papule

Answer 41

Wart

Question 42

Ex of vesicle

Answer 42

Blister

Question 43

Ex of Wheal

Answer 43

Hives

Question 44

Ex of pustule

Answer 44

Boil

Question 45

Slight indentation (2mm)

Answer 45

1+ pitting edema

Question 46

Deep pit (6mm) Remains several seconds after pressing Skin swelling obvious by general inspection

Answer 46

3+ pitting edema

Question 47

Fluid can no longer be displaced No pitting Tissue palpates as firm or hard Skin surface: shiny, warm, moist, waxy

Answer 47

5+ brawny edema

Question 48

What must consent contain?

Answer 48

Capacity, comprehension, and voluntarinesd

Question 49

What may cause someone to not ask questions or understand the information about a procedure?

Answer 49

Anxiety and insecurity

Question 50

Who is ultimately responsible for providing info for informed concent?

Answer 50

The physician

Question 51

What may be a special prep before some exams?

Answer 51

Withholding food and fluids or modifying diet

Question 52

Regardless of the type of exam or test what will the nurse do?

Answer 52

Help the client change into gown, ensures there is an id bracelet, take vital signs, and suggest the client empties the bladder(unless a full bladder is required for the test)

Question 53

Lying flat with face up with legs extended

Answer 53

The supine position

Question 54

Lying on abd. With head turned arms can be above head or at the sides of the body. A drape covers the body

Answer 54

Prone position

Question 55

Reclining position with knees bent, hips rotated outward, and feet flat.

Answer 55

Dorsal recumbent position

Question 56

A reclining position with the feet in metal stirrups . The nurse drapes exposed perineum and legs.

Answer 56

Lithotomy position, used for gynecological, urologic and sometimes rectal examinations.

Question 57

Lies on left side with chest leaning forward, the right knee bent toward the head, right arm forward, the left arm extended behind the body

Answer 57

Sims position

Question 58

Why would you be in sims position?

Answer 58

Alt gynecologic or urologic position when a client can’t abduct hips. (Like someone with arthritis)

Question 59

Rest on the knees and chest. They turn the head supported on a pillow. The nurse places a pillow under the clients chest for added comfort

Answer 59

Knee-chest position. Also called genupectoral position

Question 60

The person stands with upper body leaning forward on exam table

Answer 60

Modified standing position

Question 61

What is the modified standing position used for?

Answer 61

Primarily prostate gland exam