Final Flashcards

1
Q

22 lb dog weighs how many kgs?

A

22 divided by 2.2 = 10

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2
Q

A 12 kg dog weighs how many lbs?

A

12 divided by 2.2 = 26.4

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3
Q

How many lbs are in a kg?

A

2.2 lbs

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4
Q

A 25 lb dog weighs how many kgs?

A

25 lb divided by 2.2 = 11.4 kg

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5
Q

A 10 kg dog weighs now many lbs?

A

10 kg x 2.2 =22 lbs

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6
Q

What does urinalysis mean?

A

Break down of urine components to determine A diagnosis
( analysis of the urine)

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7
Q

A 4 kg cat weighs how many lbs?

A

4 kg x 2= 8.8 Lbs

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8
Q

A 75 lb dog weighs how many kgs?

A

75 lb divided by 2.2 = 34.1 kg

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9
Q

Pre and Post are examples of..

A

Pre-Before Post-After

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10
Q

Inter and Intra are examples of…

A

Inter-Inside Intra-Outside

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11
Q

What does chemotherapy mean?

A

Chemical treatment

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12
Q

A 2 lb kitten weighs how many kgs?

A

2 lb divided by 2.2 = 0.9 kg

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13
Q

A 50 kg dog weighs now many lbs?

A

50 kg X 2.2 lbs = 110 lbs

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14
Q

What prefix means elevated?

A

Hyper

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15
Q

What prefix means depressed

A

Hypo

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16
Q

What prefix means before

A

Pre

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17
Q

What prefix means after

A

Post

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18
Q

What does hepatitis mean?

A

Inflammation of the liver

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19
Q

Which word part is always placed at the beginning of a term?

A

Suffix

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20
Q

Which word part is always placed at the end of a term

A

Prefix

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21
Q

When analyzing a term, always begin at the end .
True or false?

A

True

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22
Q

What does postoperative mean ?

A

After operation

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23
Q

What does preanesthetic mean?

A

Before anesthesia

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24
Q

What does the prefix eu- mean ?

A

good, normal, easy death

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25
Q

How much does a 30 kg dog weigh in lbs?

A

30 kg x 2.2 = 66 lbs

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26
Q

-Ac is what type of suffix?

A

Pertaining to

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27
Q

-Ectomy is what type of suffix?

A

Surgical

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28
Q

-centesis is what type of suffix ?

A

Procedural

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29
Q

The term gastroenteritis means

A

Inflammation of stomach and small intestine

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30
Q

The term ovariohysterectomy means ?

A

Surgical removal of ovary and uterus

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31
Q

A 3 kg cat weighs how lbs?

A

3 kg x 2.2=6.6 lbs

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32
Q

The suffix osis- means..?

A

Abnormal conditioning

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33
Q

the suffix itis- means..?

A

Inflammation

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34
Q

The term ventral means ?

A

Belly or underside of body or body part

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35
Q

The term Dorsal means?

A

The back

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36
Q

The term medial means?

A

Toward midline

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37
Q

The term Lateral means?

A

Away from midline

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38
Q

The suffix logy- means ?

A

Study of

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39
Q

A 67.2 lb dog weighs how many Kg ?

A

67.2 divided by 2.2 = 30.5 kg

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40
Q

Anatomy is the study of..?

A

the body structure

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41
Q

Combining form for blood?

A

Hemo

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42
Q

Combining form for lungs ?

A

Pneumo

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43
Q

What plane divides the body into cranial and caudal ?

A

Transverse

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44
Q

What term means farthest from midline or farthest from beginning of structure ?

A

Distal

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45
Q

The term ventral refers to what part of the body ?

A

The belly or underside of a body or body part

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46
Q

The term dorsal refers to what part of the body ?

A

To the back

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47
Q

A 4 lb cat weighs how many kg?

A

4lb divided by 2.2 = 1.8Kg

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48
Q

A 28 kg dog weighs how many pounds?

A

28 kgs divided by 2.2=61.6 lbs

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49
Q

What’s a caprine?

A

Goat

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50
Q

What’s a porcine?

A

Pig / swine

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51
Q

What’s a bovine?

A

Cattle/ cow

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52
Q

What’s an ovine?

A

Sheep

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53
Q

What’s an equine?

A

Horse

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54
Q

What combining form refers to Bones?

A

Oste/o

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55
Q

What combining form refers to Nares?

A

Nas/o

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56
Q

What combining form refers to Stomach?

A

Gastr/o

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57
Q

What combining form refers to kidneys?

A

Ren/o and Nephr/o

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58
Q

What term refers to testes?

A

Orch/o , orchi/o , orchid/o , or testicul/o

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59
Q

What is lagcmorph ?

A

Rabbit

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60
Q

What is a cavy?

A

Guinea pig

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61
Q

what does whelping mean

A

Giving birth to whelps / puppies

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62
Q

What is a mule ?

A

A equine

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63
Q

I counted 25 Heart beats in 15 seconds . What’s is the HR per min?

A

25 x 4 = 100 bpm

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64
Q

I counted 22 heart beats in 15 seconds . What is the HR per min ?

A

22 x 4 = 88 bpm

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65
Q

What does the Abbrevation ADR stands for?

A

Ain’t doing right

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66
Q

The Abreviation TPR stands for ?

A

Temperature ,Pulse , Respiration

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67
Q

What is Signalment?

A

A description of the animal with information about the animal

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68
Q

What does Intact mean ?

A

Not sexually altered still able to reproduce

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69
Q

A colt is an …?

A

Intact male equine that’s is four years in age and younger

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70
Q

A mare is an …?

A

Intact female that is 4 years or older

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71
Q

A Tom is an…?

A

Intact male cat

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72
Q

A queen is an ..?

A

Intact female cat

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73
Q

A 59.4 kg dog weighs how many Lb?

A

59.4 kg x 2.2 = 130.7 Lbs

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74
Q

What is the projecting part of canine and feline ears called?

A

Pinna

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75
Q

The knee in people is called the what in animals?

A

Stifle joint

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76
Q

The tail is cranial to the vertebral column .
True or false

A

False

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77
Q

The term Quadrupeds mean …?

A

An animal with four feet

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78
Q

What is the V-shaped pad of soft horn on the sole of an equine hoof ?

A

Frog

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79
Q

The rudimentary first digit of a dog and cat is called what?

A

Dewclaw

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80
Q

What bone is the shin bone of an equine?

A

Cannon bone

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81
Q

What is the normal range for a dogs heart rate?

A

70-160bpm

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82
Q

What is the normal range for a dogs respiratory rate ?

A

8-20RR

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83
Q

What’s the normal range for a dogs temperature?

A

100.5-102.5

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84
Q

Surgical puncture to remove fluid or gas?

A

Centesis

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85
Q

What the Medical term for prevention?

A

Prophylaxis

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86
Q

What is pathogen?

A

Microorganism that produces disease

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87
Q

What the Medical term for fever?

A

Febrile

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88
Q

What are the three major vaccines dogs are vaccinated with?

A

DHPP , rabies , bordetella

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89
Q

The fetlock is in between the _______ and ________ in ungulates?

A

The pattern and cannon

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90
Q

The mass of connective tissue, muscle and fat covering the ruminant chest is…?

A

Brisket

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91
Q

What is the tarsal joint of the caudal limb?

A

Hock

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92
Q

What is the palmar and plantar surface of the hoof?

A

Sole

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93
Q

What is the name for the nipple of the mammary gland?

A

Teat

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94
Q

Name for mammary gland?

A

Udder

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95
Q

What includes the two nostrils?

A

Muzzle

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96
Q

What’s is a stallion?

A

Intact male equine that is 4 years or older

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97
Q

What does auscultation means?

A

Examination by hearing

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98
Q

What does palpation mean?

A

Examination by touch

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99
Q

What does percussion mean?

A

Examination by tapping

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100
Q

What is zoonotic disease?

A

A disease that is transmittable to humans and animals

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101
Q

A decrease in body temperature is known as …?

A

Hypothermia

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102
Q

What’s the normal range for a cats temperature?

A

100.5-102.2

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103
Q

What does febrile mean?

A

Fever

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104
Q

What is an other term for fever?

A

Febrile

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105
Q

The term meaning ingestion of feces is ..?

A

coprophagy

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106
Q

Urinating on objects to mark territory is called ?

A

Spaying

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107
Q

The pouch that store an oily ,foul smelling fluid in dogs and cats are called?

A

Anal glands

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108
Q

What are symptoms of parvo in dogs?

A

Lethargy, abnormal pain,and bloating,fever or low body temp,vomiting and severe often bloody diarrhea

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109
Q

What are the symptoms of distemper

A

Fever ,nasal discharge,coughing,lethargy,reduced appetite ,and vomiting

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110
Q

What does SQ Stand for?

A

Subcutaneous

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111
Q

What does Hx stand for?

A

History

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112
Q

What does PE stand for ?

A

Physical Exam

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113
Q

The abbreviation IV stands for?

A

Intravenous

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114
Q

The abbreviation IM stands for?

A

Intramuscular

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115
Q

The abbreviation DHLPP stands for?

A

Distemper,Hepatitis,leptospirosis,parvo,parainfluenza

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116
Q

The abbreviation VX stands for…?

A

Vaccination

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117
Q

The pathogen that causes Parvo is a bacteria.
True or false

A

False

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118
Q

The DHPP and DHLPP are administered in different areas of the body.
True or false

A

False

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119
Q

The DHPP is administered in the right front shoulder SQ
True or false

A

True

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120
Q

Vaccinations for puppies and kittens should begin at 6 months of age .
True or false

A

False

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121
Q

The DHLPP is given IV.
True or false

A

False

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122
Q

Most vaccines are administered SQ.
True or false

A

True

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123
Q

The bordetella vaccine is most effective when administered intranasally
True or false

A

true

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124
Q

What’s an other name for bodetella?

A

Kennel cough

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125
Q

Bordetella can be inserted at 3 months
True or false

A

True

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126
Q

How often does bordetella be administered?

A

Once a year

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127
Q

Bordetella required for grooming?
True or false

A

True

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128
Q

How often does the DHPP be administered ?

A

Starts of 3 weeks, following up in 20 weeks, and then yearly

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129
Q

If the leptospirosis vx is administered it self ,it’s usually given in the ….?

A

Left hip SQ

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130
Q

What does eradicated mean ?

A

A virus that has a low likelyhood to contact

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131
Q

What does domesticated mean?

A

Not feral

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132
Q

Rabies have been eradicated in wild animals?
True or false

A

False

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133
Q

The pathogen that causes rabies is bacteria?
True or false

A

False

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134
Q

Rabies are zoonotic.
True or false

A

True

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135
Q

What animals can’t catch rabies?

A

Oppassum

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136
Q

How long is there first rabies vx good for ?

A

1 year

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137
Q

What does hepatitis mean ?

A

Inflammation of the liver

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138
Q

Hepatitis is cause by a virus.
True or false

A

True

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139
Q

Bubble gum seizures are associated with what canine disease?

A

Distemper

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140
Q

What does the abbreviation FVRCP stand for?

A

Feline Virus Rhinotracheitis ,Calicivirus,panleukopenia

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141
Q

Why is it important to vaccinate in the leg of a feline rather than in between the shoulder?

A

They can get a reaction from the vx which is easier to amputate their leg

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142
Q

Calicivirus is not considered a highly contagious .
True or false

A

True

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143
Q

Kitten vaccines should start at 1 year of age .
True or false

A

False they start at 6-8 weeks

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144
Q

Panleukopenia is caused by a bacteria.
True or false

A

False

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145
Q

What does anorexia mean in terms of an animal signs?

A

Loss of appetite LOA

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146
Q

What is the definition of ptyalism?

A

Hyper salvation / drooling a lot

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147
Q

What is the mode of transmission for calicivirus ?

A

Direct contact (D/C) with saliva,nasal mucus,eye discharge , and aerosol droplet when sneezing

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148
Q

What is the abbreviation FeLV stand for?

A

Feline Leukemia Virus

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149
Q

What does the abbreviation FIV stand for ?

A

Feline Immunedeficency Virus

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150
Q

Feline AIDS is an other term for ?

A

FIV

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151
Q

SID

A

Once a day
Every 24 hours

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152
Q

BID

A

Two times a day
Every 12 hours

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153
Q

TID

A

Three times a day
Every 8 hours

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154
Q

QID/QOD

A

Four times a day
Every 6 hours

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155
Q

Tx

A

Treatment

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156
Q

Dx

A

Diagnosis

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157
Q

Rx

A

Prescription

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158
Q

Sx

A

Surgery

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159
Q

NPO

A

Nothing by mouth / orally

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160
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count

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161
Q

CRT

A

Capillary refill time

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162
Q

Cc

A

Cubic centimeter

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163
Q

Gt

A

Drop

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164
Q

Po

A

By mouth/orally

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165
Q

Prn

A

As needed

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166
Q

Q

A

Every

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167
Q

Q4

A

every 4hrs

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168
Q

Q6

A

Every 6 hrs

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169
Q

Q8

A

Every 8hrs

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170
Q

Q12

A

Every 12 hrs

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171
Q

Q24

A

Every 24 hrs

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172
Q

Qd

A

Every day

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173
Q

Pid

A

Four times daily

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174
Q

T

A

Tablespoon or tablet

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175
Q

Tab

A

Tablet

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176
Q

What is the most common fatal disease for felines?

A

FeLV

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177
Q

What is the signs of FeLV?

A

Skin,respiratory,urinary infections

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178
Q

Is there a vx for FeLV ? If so where is it administered

A

There is a vx and is administered LH Leg SQ

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179
Q

What is the mode of transmission for FeLV?

A

Bite form infected cat, WBC destroyed +immune system

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180
Q

Felines with FeLV usually die from what?

A

Secondary infection or euthanasia

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181
Q

What test is used to determine if a feline has FeLV?

A

Snap test

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182
Q

What bodily fluid is used for the snap test?

A

Blood

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183
Q

FIV is caused by a bacteria .
True or false

A

False

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184
Q

How is FIV transmitted?

A

Direct contact and bite wound

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185
Q

Is there a vx for FIV?

A

No

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186
Q

If a feline test positive for FiV ,what should happen?

A

They need to isolate if they are positive for FIV

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187
Q

A feline can not be a carrier for FIV
True or false

A

False

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188
Q

What is the test to determine if a feline has FIV?

A

Snap test

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189
Q

FIV attacks the felines immune system .
True or false

A

True

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190
Q

Felines with FIV usually die from the virus itself .
True or false

A

True

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191
Q

What is the definition of volume?

A

The space liquid takes up

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192
Q

What care the most commonly used needle gauge sizes in veterinary medicine ?

A

18 G , 20 G, 22 G, 24 G
(The bigger the number is the smaller the needle it is )

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193
Q

What are the most commonly used needle length in veterinary medicine?

A

1/2 “ , 1” , 1 1/2 “

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194
Q

What are the three most common injections angles in veterinary medicine ?

A

SQ=45 Degrees , IV=25 degrees , IM=90 degrees

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195
Q

What angle should the needle be when given a IM injection?

A

90

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196
Q

What angle should the needle be when given SQ injection ?

A

45

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197
Q

What angle should the needle be when given IV injection?

A

25

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198
Q

What’s Patella luxation?

A

Dislocation of the knee cap

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199
Q

Oste/o, oss/e , oss/i means..

A

Bone

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200
Q

Arthr/o means..

A

Joint

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201
Q

Ambulation means ?

A

A type of movement or mobility

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202
Q

_________ produces RBC ,WBC , and clotting cells?

A

Red bone marrow

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203
Q

One of the hardest tissues in the body is …

A

Bone

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204
Q

What are four different types of connective tissue associated with skeletal system

A

Bone,tendon ,ligament,cartilage

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205
Q

Ligaments connects bone to bone .
True or false

A

True

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206
Q

The bones of axial skeleton makeup the core of the body?

A

True

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207
Q

The ball and socket joints are the joints affected by hip dysplasia.
True or false

A

True

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208
Q

Joints are cushion between bones.
True or false

A

False

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209
Q

Ligaments connect muscle to bone.
True or false

A

False

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210
Q

The axial skeleton is made up of bones of the limbs .
True or false

A

False

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211
Q

What’s the abbreviation for fracture?

A

Fx

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212
Q

Combining form for crani/o

A

Bone

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213
Q

The combining form for cost/o

A

Rib

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214
Q

Hock is an other term for ______?

A

ankle

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215
Q

The pelvis is a part of the front hind limb.
True or false

A

True

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216
Q

The femur is part of the front limb.
True or false

A

False

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217
Q

The radius is apart of the front limb.
True or false

A

True

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218
Q

The scapula is part of the hindlimb.
True or false

A

False

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219
Q

The patella is the …

A

Knee

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220
Q

Luxation is the bad abnormal development of the bones .
True or false

A

False

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221
Q

The cervical spine is part of the appendicular skeleton.
True or false

A

False

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222
Q

The vertebrae of the tail are called …?

A

Caudal

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223
Q

The acetabulum is a socket of the pelvis.
True or false

A

True

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224
Q

The ribs protect the ______ and _______.

A

Heart and lungs

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225
Q

A disease for abnormal; condition of muscle is called Myopathy.
True or false

A

True

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226
Q

protrusion of a body part through tissues that normally contain it is called _____.

A

Hernia

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227
Q

The ______ is the upper jaw.

A

Maxilla

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228
Q

The atlas is a part of the cervical spine.
True or false

A

True

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229
Q

The axis is the first vertebrae of the cervical spine.
True or false

A

False

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230
Q

Flexor and extensor are examples of range of motion .
True or false

A

False

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231
Q

A compound Fx is a broken bone in which there is no open wound in the skin .
True or false

A

False

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232
Q

_______ is the proximal long bone of the front limb.

A

Femur

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233
Q

The tibia is larger and more weight bearing than the fibula.
True or false

A

True

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234
Q

Dogs have phalanges on both the front and hind limbs .
True or false

A

True

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235
Q

Femur is the distal long bone of the front and hind limbs.
True or false

A

False

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236
Q

Ligaments connect one bone to another bone.
True or false

A

True

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237
Q

The hamstrings is a common place to give a canine an IM injection.
True or false

A

True

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238
Q

The hamstrings is located in the proximal front limb.
True or false

A

False

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239
Q

The abbreviation GI means_____.

A

Gastrointestinal

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240
Q

The abbreviation H20 Means ..

A

Water

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241
Q

Emesis means ..

A

Vomit

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242
Q

Emetic means..

A

To produce vomit

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243
Q

The muscular system generates Heat.
True or false

A

True

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244
Q

Joints are the _____ between bones.

A

Connection

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245
Q

Ossification is the __________ of bone

A

Formation

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246
Q

The abbreviation spondyl/o stands for sacral vertebrae .
True or false

A

False

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247
Q

The correct order of the vertebral segment is …
A) C, T , L , S,C
B) C, L,T,C, S
C) T, L, C, S, C
D) T, C, L, S, C

A

C, T ,L, S , C

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248
Q

The GI System is a long muscular tube.
True or false

A

true

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249
Q

One of the functions of the GI system is the elimination of waste product.
True or false

A

True

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250
Q

The kidneys are apart of the GI system.
True or false

A

False

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251
Q

Deciduous teeth are temporary teeth .
True or false

A

false

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252
Q

Canines have a total of 30 teeth
True or false

A

False

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253
Q

The combining for form stomat/o means stomach.
True or false

A

False ( stomat/o = body)

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254
Q

The tongue is a muscular organ in the oral cavity.
True or false

A

True

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255
Q

The soft palate is inside the oral cavity.
True or false

A

True

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256
Q

Felines have Canine teeth.
True or false

A

True

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257
Q

Dental formulas are a paste for brushing a pets teeth .
True or false

A

False
It’s the amount of teeth an animal has on each side

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258
Q

Combining form for bucc/o?

A

Cheek

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259
Q

What is a Sterile field?

A

A clean disinfected room / work area where a vet can do Sx in

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260
Q

What is the mayo stand?

A

A silver stand tray where tools are placed on during Sx

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261
Q

What is an endotracheal tube?

A

A tube inserted down the oral cavity into the trachea ( throat) to provide oxygen

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262
Q

What is an IV catheter used for?

A

Anesthesia, IV liquids , to insert meds

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263
Q

What does the abbreviation ABC mean?

A

Airway , Breathing , Circulation

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264
Q

Normal temperature for a feline ?

A

100.5 - 102.5

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265
Q

What is a normal feline Heart rate ?

A

150-210BPM

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266
Q

Normal temperature for Equine?

A

99-101.5

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267
Q

What’s the Normal Equine Heart rate range?

A

28 - 50 BPM

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268
Q

What is the normal feline respiratory rate?

A

8-30 RR

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269
Q

What is the normal equine respiratory rate?

A

8 - 16 RR

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270
Q

How many sides are in a patient cage?

A

6 sides

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271
Q

What does “ give H2O PRN “ mean ?

A

Water as needed

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272
Q

What does the abbreviation TGH mean?

A

To Go Home

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273
Q

When walking a patient outside you should place 2 leashes on that patient .
True or false

A

True

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274
Q

What’s the abbreviation for patient ?

A

PT

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275
Q

A patient record is what type of document?

A

Legal document

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276
Q

The abbreviation N/M means what ?

A

Neutered male

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277
Q

The __________ is a cavity that joins the respiratory and GI system

A

Thoracic Cavity

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278
Q

The abdominal cavity is located between the diaphragm and the _______.

A

Pelvic cavity

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279
Q

The esophagus is located dorsal to the trachea.
True or false

A

True

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280
Q

Combining form for Liver

A

Hepat/o

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281
Q

What does Intact mean when describing reproductive status

A

still able to reproduced / still have their reproductive parts

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282
Q

Inflammation of the stomach is called?

A

Gastritits

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283
Q

What is the abbreviation for changed?

A

🔺’ed

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284
Q

What does the S/F mean ?

A

Spayed female

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285
Q

What patient information is included in signalment?

A

Species,breed,age,sexual status

286
Q

How do you correct a mistake in a medical record?

A

Cross it out and put your initials

287
Q

Black,blue,red ink can be used in a medical record.
True or false

A

False

288
Q

“If its not written down , it didn’t happen”
True or false

A

True

289
Q

How many ML’s are in a canine a feline VX?

A

1 ML’s

290
Q

When drawing up a canine or feline vx , what size syringe should be used?

A

3 cc

291
Q

When administering a canine or feline vx ,what needle size. Should you use?

A

25 Ga

292
Q

Should you change the needle after drawing up the vaccine and before administering it ?

A

Yes every time

293
Q

Barium is a contrast material used for radiographic studies to evaluate the GI tract .
True or false

A

True

294
Q

Blood test can be used to detect some diseases of the GI tract .
True or false

A

True

295
Q

A biopsy is a blood test.
True or false

A

False

296
Q

Postprandial is testing before eating .
True or false

A

False

297
Q

A fecal examination is used to detect external parasites .
True or false

A

False ( internal parasites)

298
Q

Anorexia means …

A

Lack or loss of appetite. ( LOA)

299
Q

Hypoglycemia means what

A

Lower then normal sugar levels

300
Q

What does pyometra mean?

A

Pus in the uterus

301
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count

302
Q

DSH

A

Domestic Short Hair

303
Q

Abbreviation for Fracture

A

Fx

304
Q

What does Inj mean ?

A

Injured

305
Q

What does URI mean

A

Upper Respiratory Infection

306
Q

What does the abbreviation UA mean

A

Urinalysis

307
Q

What does the abbreviation CRT mean

A

Capillary Refill Time

308
Q

What does the abbreviation DHPP stand for?

A

Distemper, Hepatitis , Parainfluenza , Parvo

309
Q

Where is DHPP administered?

A

Right Front Shoulder SQ

310
Q

Where is the FVRCP Vx administered ?

A

Front leg SQ

311
Q

Where is rabies Vx given?

A

Right hind Leg SQ

312
Q

How long is the first rabies vx good for in canines?

A

6 years

313
Q

How long is the rabies Vx good for in felines?

A

1 year

314
Q

What is one of the objectives for the urinary system?

A

Removes waste from the body by constantly filtering blood

315
Q

What is a major waste product of protein metabolism in the urinary system .

A

urea , which is filtered by the kidneys

316
Q

What is polyuria

A

Excessive urine and frequency of urination

317
Q

Homeostasis adjust to conditions to maintain a stable internal environment .
True or false

A

True

318
Q

What are the combining forms for urine

A

Urin/o and ur/o

319
Q

Blood flows through each kidney through the _____ ______?

A

Renal artery

320
Q

What’s an other term of urination ?

A

Excretion, voiding , elimination, micturition

321
Q

Combining form for Urethra ?

A

Urethr/o

322
Q

What does Anuria mean?

A

Absence of urine

323
Q

What does oliguria mean?

A

Scant amount or frequency of urine

324
Q

A urine test strip can test for glucose in the urine .
True or false

A

True

325
Q

Urine test strips can only test for blood in the urine if it is visible to the naked eye.
True or false

A

False

326
Q

Renal diseases can be Acute or …

A

Chronic

327
Q

FLUTD is abbreviation for…

A

Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease

328
Q

In male cats, urethral obstruction is commonly associated with what disease?

A

FLUTD

329
Q

Cystitis means urinary bladder pain ?
True or false

A

False it mean inflammation of urinary bladder

330
Q

Urinary calculus is abnormal mineral deposits.
True or false

A

True

331
Q

What’s the combining form for Calculus ?

A

Lith/o

332
Q

Incontinence is the inability to control urine.
True or false

A

True

333
Q

Inappropriate urinate is always behavioral problem.
True or false

A

True

334
Q

What is the abbreviation for blood urea nitrogen.

A

BUN

335
Q

The presence of glucose in urine can be indicate Diabetes Mellitus .
True or false

A

True

336
Q

Blood glucose levels lower in diabetes mellitus .
True or false

A

False they increase

337
Q

The presence of ___________ in canine and feline urine is typical of an animal with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus .

A

Glucose / high sugar levels

338
Q

Urine acidic pH is typical in animals who eat a ______ diet

A

Meat diet

339
Q

Cyst/o is combining form for?

A

Urinary bladder

340
Q

Basic or Alkaline urine pH is typical in animals who eat a ________ diet.

A

Cereal grain diet

341
Q

What is the definition of Nephropathy

A

Disease of the kidneys

342
Q

________ is the inability of the kidneys to function.

A

ARF

343
Q

ARF

A

Acute Renal Failure

344
Q

ARF may be caused but a nephrotoxin.
True or false

A

True

345
Q

What are the four heart chambers?

A

Right Atrium , Right ventricle, Left ventricle , Left atrium

346
Q

There are two type of circulation .
True or false

A

True

347
Q

What are the two types of circulation

A

Pulmonary circulation and Systemic circulation

348
Q

What type of circulation lets Blood flow out the heart through the lung and back to the heart?

A

Pulmonary

349
Q

What type of circulation lets Blood flow to all parts of the body except to the lungs

A

Systemic

350
Q

What’s another name for the cardiovascular system ?

A

Circulatory system

351
Q

The heart is located inside what cavity?

A

Thoracic cavity / chest cavity

352
Q

The heart lies between the lungs in a cavity called mediastinum.
True or false

A

True

353
Q

Mediastinum contains…?

A

Large blood vessels, trachea,esophagus,lymph nodes.

354
Q

The heart is covered by the

A

Pericardium

355
Q

Double-walled membranous sac enclosing the heart is

A

Pericardium

356
Q

The pericardial fluid causes friction between the heart and and pericardium when the heart beats .
True or false

A

False pericardial fluid prevents friction

357
Q

Necrosis means …

A

Death tissue / tissue death

358
Q

The narrow tip of the heart is called ?

A

apex

359
Q

Blood flow through the heart is controlled by valves.
True or false

A

True

360
Q

What a membranous fold?

A

Valve

361
Q

The rate and regularity of the heart rhythm is called the _____ ______.

A

Heart beat

362
Q

The abbreviation for electrocardiogram is _______ or _________.

A

ECG or EKG

363
Q

What is brachycardia?

A

Abnormally slow heart beat

364
Q

What is trachycardia?

A

Abnormally rapid heartbeat

365
Q

The term systole means expansion .
True or false

A

False it means contraction

366
Q

The term diastole means contraction .
True or false

A

False it means expansion

367
Q

A heart murmur is an abnormal sound associated with the turbulent blood flow.
True or false

A

True

368
Q

Murmurs are abnormal swooshing cardiac sounds.
True or false

A

True

369
Q

Combining form vas/o means..

A

Vessel

370
Q

The abbreviation CHF means..

A

Congestive Heart Failure

371
Q

Diuretics are used to treat CHF.
True or false

A

False they are chemical substances used to cause in increase in urine production

372
Q

Dirofilariosis means

A

Heart worm infection

373
Q

Prophylaxis is available for dirofilarosis.
True or false

A

False, Prophylaxis means prevention and Prophylactic is a medicine that prevents dirofilarosis

374
Q

Abbreviation for PDA

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

375
Q

Bluish tinge is called ..

A

Cyanosis

376
Q

The right atrium receives blood from all tissues ,except lungs through the _______ __________.

A

Cranial and caudal venae cavae

377
Q

The right ventricle pumps blood through the pulmonary semilunar valve and into the pulmonary artery which carries it to the ________.

A

Lungs

378
Q

What are two parts of the respiratory system?

A

Upper and lower

379
Q

What’s the definition of dyspnea?

A

Difficult or labored breathing

380
Q

What are the vessels that return blood to the heart ?

A

Veins

381
Q

What are vessels that carry blood away from the heart?

A

Artery

382
Q

Where does most gas exchange occur ?

A

Alveoli

383
Q

Ventilation is ….

A

Intake of fresh air

384
Q

Abnormally rapid respiratory rate is ________.

A

Tachypnea

385
Q

Inhaling a foreign substance into the upper respiratory tract is ….

A

Aspiration

386
Q

Term for voice box?

A

Larynx

387
Q

Tube placed through the oral cavity ,pharynx,and larynx, into the trachea is called

A

Endotracheal tube

388
Q

Horns, hooves and nails are apart of the integumentary system .
True or false

A

True

389
Q

Skin does not play a role in waterproof for the body .
True or false

A

False ( it does play a part)

390
Q

What are the three layers that makeup the skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis, and Subcutaneous layer

391
Q

Ring worms are an example of __________.

A

Endoparasite

392
Q

Mange is caused by a _______.

A

Mites

393
Q

The most superficial layer of skin is __________.

A

Epidermis

394
Q

What type of mange is zoonotic?

A

Saroptic ( scabies)

395
Q

Pyoderma is the skin disease that contains …..

A

Pus

396
Q

a localized collection of pus is an _________.

A

Abscess

397
Q

Combining form Onych/o means ..

A

Claw

398
Q

Vestigial pad is called ….

A

Chestnut

399
Q

Trich/o is combining form for….

A

Hair

400
Q

Complete lack of hair

A

Alopecia

401
Q

A skin scraping is used to detect what?

A

Mites

402
Q

A fatty tumor is ….

A

Lipoma

403
Q

Shedding is normal hair loss.
True or false

A

True

404
Q

Dermis means

A

Skin

405
Q

The suffix derma means skin.
True or false

A

True

406
Q

Cutane/o is a combining form for …

A

Skin

407
Q

Histamine is an anticoagulant chemical released in response to injury.
True or false

A

False , its a chemical released in response to allergens that cause itching

408
Q

________ perception is the ability to Recorgnize touch sensation.

A

Tactile

409
Q

The quick is not a sensitive tissue .
True or false

A

False

410
Q

Dewclaws are rudimentary bones.
True or false

A

True

411
Q

Acute moist dermatitis is commonly called ______.

A

Hot spot

412
Q

Acute monastic dermatitis is caused by a _________________ infection.

A

Bacterial skin disease

413
Q

Hooves are the _____ _______ of the distal phalanx in ungulates

A

Horny covering

414
Q

Pruritus

A

Itching

415
Q

An Accidental cut to the skin

A

Laceration

416
Q

Urticaria is an other word for …

A

Hives

417
Q

Dermatophytes are caused by ?

A

Ringworms

418
Q

A chestnut is a ___________ _________ in equines.

A

Medial surface

419
Q

The thyroid gland regulates ______ and blood calcium levels.

A

Metabolism

420
Q

Metabolism is the bodies process of taking food and converting it into energy .
True or false

A

True

421
Q

The thyroid gland is located on the either side of the ……

A

Larynx

422
Q

There are four parathyroid glands .
True or false

A

True

423
Q

There are _____ adrenal glands?

A

Two

424
Q

The adrenal gland hormones are classified as _______

A

Steroids

425
Q

The adrenal glands are located cranial to the liver.
True or false

A

False

426
Q

The adrenal gland regulate electrolytes and metabolism .
True or false

A

True

427
Q

The endocrine function of the pancreas maintain blood______ levels .

A

Glucose

428
Q

The pancreas secretes _______.

A

Insulin and glucagon

429
Q

Insulin hormones decreases blood glucose levels.
True or false .

A

True

430
Q

The gonalds are glands that produce gametes (sex cells )
True or false

A

True

431
Q

Gonalds are the _____ in females and the _______ in males

A

Ovaries an testes

432
Q

Ovaries secrete estrogen and ….

A

Progesterone

433
Q

The testes secrete ________.

A

Testosterone

434
Q

Hormones enter the _________ and affect tissue and organs .

A

Blood stream

435
Q

Endo means …

A

Within or inside

436
Q

-crine means to ______ or ________.

A

Secrete or separate

437
Q

The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain ..
True or false

A

True

438
Q

What gland is known as the master gland?

A

Pituitary gland

439
Q

________ stimulates uterine contractions during parturition and milk letdown from the mammary ducts

A

Oxytocin

440
Q

The abbreviation TSH means..

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

441
Q

A THS test is used to detect _________.

A

Hypothyroidism

442
Q

The abbreviation ACTH means

A

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

443
Q

An ACTH stim test is a blood analysis test used to measure ________ levels .

A

Cortisol

444
Q

An ACTH stim test is used to test for Hyperadrenocorticism .
True or false

A

True

445
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism is also called …

A

Cushing disease

446
Q

Addison disease is also known as …

A

hypoadrenalcorticism

447
Q

Pancreatitis

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

448
Q

Pancreatitis can be life threatening.
True or false

A

True

449
Q

What are three signs of pancretitis

A

Vomiting, fever, dehydration

450
Q

What does dietary indiscretion mean

A

Animals eating fatty foods

451
Q

The insufficient secretion of insulin or recognition of insulin is ……

A

Diabetes mellitus

452
Q

________ is one of the most common health conditions in middle age dogs and cats .

A

Diabetes

453
Q

Obesity is one of the underlying causes of …..

A

Diabetes mellitus

454
Q

Abnormally elevated blood glucose is …..

A

Hyperglycemia

455
Q

The study of hormonal system

A

Endocrine system

456
Q

P/U

A

Polyuria

457
Q

P/D

A

Polydipsia

458
Q

P/U an P/D are seen in what two diseases?

A

Cushing disease , diabetes, hypothyroidism

459
Q

The term for sex cell is ….

A

Gamete

460
Q

Abnormally low blood glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

461
Q

a tumor of the islet of langerhans of the pancreas is called…?

A

Insuliomia

462
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism , a disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex production of glucocorticoid , also known as _______.

A

Addison disease

463
Q

Which hormone maintains water balance in the body by increasing water reabsorption in the kidney?

A

Antidiuretic hormone

464
Q

Which hormone transports blood glucose to the cells?

A

Hyperinsulinism

465
Q

What are the two small glands located on top of the kidneys?

A

Adrenal glands

466
Q

What is the butterfly shaped gland on either side of the larynx ?

A

Thyroid gland

467
Q

Condition of excessive thyroid hormone

A

Hyperthyroidism

468
Q

Condition of decreases thyroid hormone

A

Hypothyroidism

469
Q

Epinephrine is made in the gland above the kidney called the __________ gland.

A

Adrenal

470
Q

The purpose of the reproductive system is to _________.

A

To produce off springs

471
Q

What is the combining form for organs of the reproduction

A

Genit/o

472
Q

The male reproductive system is responsible for producing ovum.
True or false

A

False

473
Q

The functions of the scrotum is to___________.

A

Regulates and protects the testes

474
Q

Testes are located in the scrotum so they can be maintained at temperature that is below body temperature.
True or false

A

True

475
Q

_______________ is production of male gametes.

A

Spermatogenesis

476
Q

The ductus deferens carries _______ from the epididymis to the urethra .

A

Sperm

477
Q

All accessory sex glands are present in all species .
True or false

A

False

478
Q

The area of skin between the scrotum ( in males / vaginal orifice ( in females ) and the anus is the perineum .
True or false

A

False in females its the vulva

479
Q

The retractable fold of skin covering the glans penis is the ______.

A

Prepuce / aka foreskin

480
Q

The functions of the females reproductive system is to _____________

A

To create and support life

481
Q

Ovaries produce estrogen ,progesterone , and ova.
True or false

A

True

482
Q

Fertilization ,when an egg and sperm come together ,occur in the uterus.
True or false

A

True

483
Q

Fertilization ,when an egg and sperm come together, occurs in the uterus.
True or false

A

True

484
Q

The ovum is ________ gamete

A

Female sex cell

485
Q

The inner layer of the uterus

A

Endometrium

486
Q

The uterus house the developing __________ during pregnancy

A

Embryo

487
Q

What is the mammary gland in large animals?

A

Udder

488
Q

What connects the uterus to the vagina ?

A

Cervix

489
Q

The ______ _______ are the milk producing glands in female

A

Mammary glands

490
Q

What is the Heat cycle in female called?

A

Estrous cycle

491
Q

The purpose of the estrous cycle is to prepare the uterus to accept a fertilized ovum.
True or false

A

True ( in human terms it’s basically ovulation)

492
Q

What is it called if an animal has ONE estrous cycle per year ?

A

Monoestrous

493
Q

What is it called if an animal has MORE then one estrous cycle per year?

A

Polyestrous

494
Q

_______ and _______ are terms that mean sexual intercourse.

A

Copulation and coitus

495
Q

________ is the period of development of the fetus from conception to parturition.

A

Gastation

496
Q

The gastation period for a dog is ….?

A

58-71 days ; avg 63 days

497
Q

The gastation period for a cat is …..?

A

58-71 days; avg 63 days

498
Q

The gestation period for a horse …?

A

320 - 360 days. ; avg 340

499
Q

Act of giving birth

A

Parturition

500
Q

Difficult birth

A

Dystocia

501
Q

First milk produced after giving birth

A

Colostrum

502
Q

A dog’s or cat’s temp will drop below 100F 24 hours before giving birth.
True or false

A

True

503
Q

Condition of having both ovarian and testicular tissue is called ?

A

Hermaphroditism

504
Q

Pus in the uterus

A

Pyometra

505
Q

_______ is retraction of the skin of the prepuce causing a painful swelling of glans penis that prevents the penis from retracting.

A

Paraphimosis

506
Q

Frenchies and English bulldog usually require C-sections to whelp.
true or false

A

True

507
Q

an ovariohysterectomy is also called a ….?

A

Spay

508
Q

___________ is when one or both testes fail to descend from the scrotum.

A

Cryptorchidism

509
Q

Inflammation of the mammary glands

A

Metritis

510
Q

The basic unit of the nervous system?

A

Neuron

511
Q

Why are the three types of neurons

A

Sensory, associative,motor

512
Q

Carry’s impulses toward CNS

A

Sensory nuerons

513
Q

Carries impulses from one neuron to another

A

Associative neurons

514
Q

Carry impulses Away

A

Motor neurons

515
Q

Largest part of the brain

A

Cerebrum

516
Q

What is the function of cerebrum

A

Receives and process sensory information and controls voluntary movement and stores info

517
Q

_______ connects the CNS to other parts of the body

A

Nerve

518
Q

A protective covering over some nerve cells is …… ?

A

Myelin

519
Q

What are the two main parts of the nervous system

A

Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)

520
Q

______ Carries impulses

A

Neurons

521
Q

The structures of CNS are…?

A

Brain and Spinal cord

522
Q

The structures for PNS are…?

A

Cranial nerves,automatic nervous system,spinal nerves ad ganglia

523
Q

Two types of receptors are _______ and _________.

A

Nociceptive ( pain receptors) & proprioceptive (spatial orientation or perception of movement)

524
Q

The combining form for Nerve

A

Neur/i , neur/o

525
Q

Sensory receptor that receive pain is……

A

nociceptors

526
Q

Activates or excites something

A

Stimulus

527
Q

Reflex is a what type of response?

A

Involuntary response

528
Q

What surround ,nourishes, and cushions the CNS?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

529
Q

The brainstem connects the cerebral hemispheres with the …

A

Spinal cord

530
Q

The cerebellum coordinates movement and…

A

Muscle activity

531
Q

Nerves carry impulses that connect CNS to the …

A

Rest of the body

532
Q

The spinal cord regulates HR
True or false

A

True

533
Q

What does olfactory receptors mean ?

A

Smell

534
Q

The cerebellum is the largest part of the brain . True or false

A

False ,its the second largest part

535
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum ?

A

Coordinates movement ad balance part of the hind brain

536
Q

The synapse is the junction between two neurons.
True or false

A

True

537
Q

The autonomic nervous system controls what type of functions?

A

Involuntary

538
Q

HR and Digestion are voluntary functions .
True or false

A

False

539
Q

_______ nervous system control voluntary movement.

A

Somatic nervous system

540
Q

Lack of coordination

A

Ataxia

541
Q

Optic means?

A

Sight/vision

542
Q

The spinal nerves are paired with the ______ of the same name and number

A

Vertebra

543
Q

Gran mal is the most common type of seizures in animals
True or false

A

True

544
Q

An other term for conscious

A

Alert

545
Q

Proprioception deficit is..?

A

Being aware of ones surrounding and body
Knuckling

546
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy means…?

A

Unknown cause of recurrent seizures

547
Q

Water in the brain

A

Hydrocephalus

548
Q

Myoparasis

A

Weakness of muscles

549
Q

What does IVDD mean?

A

Intervertebral disc disease

550
Q

Vistubular disease is mostly seen in ______ dogs

A

Older

551
Q

Analgesia

A

Without pain / pain relief

552
Q

Anesthesia and anesthetic are the same.
True or false

A

False

553
Q

Anesthesia

A

Absence of sensation

554
Q

anesthetic

A

Substances used to induce Anesthesia

555
Q

Tropic Anesthesia

A

Absence of sensation after a substance have been applied to the skin or external surface ( ex. Numbing cream)

556
Q

Local anesthesia

A

Abstained of sensation after chemical injection
( ex. The shot your dentist puts in your gums )

557
Q

Epidural anesthesia

A

Absence of sensation after a chemical injection in the epidural space
( shot in the back / the spine nerves)

558
Q

General anesthesia

A

Absence of sensation and consciousness
(couscous/ awake but can’t feel anything)

559
Q

Ganglia are knot like mass of nerves .
True or false

A

True

560
Q

What activates “flight or fight”

A

Sympathetic

561
Q

Returns body to normal after “flight or fight”

A

Parasympathetic

562
Q

Ganglia or ganglion

A

Voluntary movement
(Ex . Grabbing a pencil )

563
Q

Cranial nerves

A

Sensory impulses
(Smell, hear, see )

564
Q

Spinal nerves

A

Transmits information from the body to the brain to perceive sensation
(Touch , pain , hot or cold)

565
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Involuntary function
(Does it it self HR, RR,breathing, blinking)

566
Q

What system is responsible for Vision?

A

Ocular system

567
Q

Combining form for eye or sight

A

Ocul/o , Opt/o

568
Q

Within the eyeball

A

Intraocular

569
Q

Outside the eyeball

A

Entraocular

570
Q

Around the eyeball

A

Periocular

571
Q

An accessory structure for an organ is called?

A

Adnexa or stroma

572
Q

What are the six main accessory structures for the eye?

A

Orbit, eye muscles, eyelash, conjunctiva,eyelids,lacrimal appartus

573
Q

The _________ is the bony cavity of the skull that contains the eyeball

A

Orbit

574
Q

The eye muscles work together to make _______ vision possible

A

Binocular

575
Q

The eyelids protect the eyeball from_______, _________ and ________.

A

Injury, foreign material, and excessive light

576
Q

The ____ is where the upper and lower eyelid meets

A

Canthus

577
Q

The ____membrane protects the eyeball when the eye is closed

A

Mucous ( conjunctiva) nictitating memebrane

578
Q

_____is the condition of normal tear production

A

Lacrimation

579
Q

The eyeball has three major parts

A

Sclera,choroid,rentina

580
Q

The_____ provides most of the focusing power of the eye

A

Cornea

581
Q

__________ is used to examine the interior eye structures

A

Opthalmoscope

582
Q

________ is a procedure to measure Intraocular pressure indirectly

A

Tonometry

583
Q

Veterinarians use _____________ to determine if an injury has occurred or if there is an ulcer on the cornea

A

Fluorescein dye stain

584
Q

________ is the involuntary ,constant ,rhythmic movement of the eye

A

Nystagmus

585
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva is called?

A

Conjunctivitis

586
Q

Entropion is when the eyelid turns outward
TRUE or FALSE

A

False

587
Q

Lubrication of the eyeball is important prior to anesthesia because animals do not bling while under deep anesthesia
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

588
Q

The ______is the external portion of the ear that catches sound waves and transmits them to the external auditory canal.

A

Pinna

589
Q

The ______,_______,____ transmits sound from the pinna to the eardrum

A

External auditory canal

590
Q

The eardrum is called the ________ ______.

A

Tympanic membrane

591
Q

The eardrum separates the inner ear from the middle ear
TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

592
Q

______ _______is when sound waves enter the pinna, travel through the auditory canal, and strike the tympanic membrane.

A

Air conduction

593
Q

_______ is the term used when the tympanic vibrates and the ossicles conduct sound waves through the middle ear.

A

Bone conduction

594
Q

when sound waves initiate nerve impulses that Relay to the brain it is called ________ _______.

A

Sensorineural conduction

595
Q

What’s is used to examine the ear?

A

Otoscope

596
Q

An aural hematoma is a collection or mass of blood in the eye.
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

597
Q

What are biting parasites found in the ear?

A

Otodectes mites

598
Q

Dogs with long ears are more likely to have otitis.
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

599
Q

Inflammation of the ear

A

Otitis

600
Q

Abbreviation for both ears

A

AU

601
Q

Abbreviation for left ear

A

AS

602
Q

Removal of part of ear

A

Ablation

603
Q

Auricle is also known as pinna
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

604
Q

Ear pain

A

Otalgia

605
Q

After draining an aural hematoma,the ear needs to be bandaged to the head to reduce the risk of the hematoma occurring again.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

606
Q

_______ ________are used to remove foreign ,arterial from the ear .

A

Alligator foreceps

607
Q

sensory receptors for hearing and balance are found in the ______ _____.

A

Inner ear

608
Q

The three small bones in the middle ear is responsible for transmitting sound waves are called _______ ______.

A

Auditory ossicles

609
Q

What is when the eye is displaced from the orbit?

A

Proptosis

610
Q

Proptosis of the eye is the most common reason for enucleation .
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

611
Q

a group of eye disorders resulting form increased Intraocular pressure is _____.

A

Glautoma

612
Q

Foxtails are an example of foreign material that can be in the eyes or ears of a pet.
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

613
Q

Abbreviation for PLR

A

Pupillary light reflex

614
Q

Pupillary light reflex test checks pupils response to light
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

615
Q

During PLR test , the pupil should get …

A

Smaller

616
Q

Abbreviation for right eye

A

OD

617
Q

Abbreviation for both ears

A

AU

618
Q

Study of blood

A

Hematology

619
Q

Formation of blood

A

Hematopoiesis

620
Q

Medical term for drawing blood

A

Venipuncture

621
Q

Process of clotting

A

Coagulation

622
Q

What is the liquid portion of blood with clotting proteins removed?

A

Serum

623
Q

Straw- colored fluid portion of blood that transports nutrients ,hormones and waste product?

A

Plasma

624
Q

Mature RBC

A

Erythrocyte

625
Q

WBC is called..

A

Leukocytes

626
Q

What is a clotting cell?

A

Thrombocyte

627
Q
    1. Leukocytosis is an _____ in the number of ______.
A
  1. Elevation 2. WBC
628
Q

Decrease number of RBC?

A

Anemia

629
Q
    1. Leukopenia is an ________ in the number of ________.
A
  1. Decrease 2. WBC
630
Q

abnormal decrease in the number of clotting cells?

A

Thrombocytopenia

631
Q

a condition of engulfing or eating blood cells?

A

Phagocytes

632
Q

A blood protein that transports oxygen

A

Hemoglobin

633
Q

Which tube is used for CBC ?

A

Purple top tube

634
Q

What vein should be used in venipuncture when possible?

A

Jugular vein

635
Q

It’s best to save __________ vein for IV catheter placement?

A

Cephalic

636
Q

The______ vein can be used in an aggressive dog to avoi being near the mouth?

A

Saphenous

637
Q

Lost of blood usually in short period of time

A

Hemorrhage

638
Q

Small bean shaped structures are called…

A

Lymph nodes

639
Q

What means Exempt from or protected against foreign substances?

A

Immunity

640
Q

The lymph nodes,tonsils,spleen,and the thymus are structures of the what system…

A

Lymphatic

641
Q

A vaccine is administered to stimulate a protective immune response against a specific pathogen.
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

642
Q

What top tube color is a STT?

A

Red top

643
Q

A set has an ______________ in it?

A

Anticoagulant

644
Q

If you need serum to run a test, you should collect blood in a _________ top tube

A

Purple top tube

645
Q

Lymphocytes are WBS that play a role in Immune response.
TRUE or FALSE

A

True

646
Q

What are the two main type of specialized lymphocytes?

A

T and B lymphocytes

647
Q

T cells mature in …?

A

Thymus

648
Q

What tube top has gel clot activator?

A

Red

649
Q

If you need plasma to run a test, you should collect blood in what color top tube?

A

Purple

650
Q

The first line of defense is ….?

A

Intact skin

651
Q

An overreaction of the body to a particular antigen is called an…

A

Allergy

652
Q

A noncancerous tumor is called

A

Benign

653
Q

A cancerous tumor is called…

A

Malignant

654
Q

An antibody is a disease fighting ______ produced by the body in response to the presence of a specific antigen

A

Protein

655
Q

_________ in the nares of the respiratory system is part of the immune system..

A

Cilia

656
Q

A chemical that prevents or reduce the body’s normal reaction to disease

A

Immunosuppressants

657
Q

Spleenectomy

A

Surgical removal of the spleen

658
Q

Removal of tissue for examination

A

Biopsy

659
Q

Malignant neoplasm composed of bone

A

Osteosarcoma

660
Q

Cyte

A

Cell

661
Q

Oma

A

Tumor

662
Q

O/rrhea

A

Flow of

663
Q

Osis

A

Condition of

664
Q

Stomy

A

Creating a new surgical opening

665
Q

Penia

A

Decrease ,needs lack of

666
Q

Pathy

A

Disease

667
Q

Malacia

A

Abnormal softening

668
Q

Scope

A

Instrument for examining or observing

669
Q

Scopy

A

Looking or examining procedure

670
Q

Arthr/o

A

Joint

671
Q

Angi/o

A

Blood vessel

672
Q

Blephar/o

A

Eyelid

673
Q

Carcin

A

Cancer

674
Q

Cecal or Cec/o

A

Colon

675
Q

Chondr/o

A

Cartilage

676
Q

My/o

A

Muscle

677
Q

What direction is this?

What direction is this?
A

Cranial

678
Q

What direction is this?

What direction is this?
A

Rostral

679
Q

What direction is this?

What direction is this?
A

Distal

680
Q

What direction is this?

A

Ventral

681
Q

What direction is this?

A

Caudal

682
Q

What direction is this?

A

Dorsal

683
Q

What direction is this ?

A

Dorsal

684
Q

What direction is this?

A

Plantar

685
Q

What direction is this?

A

Palmar

686
Q

What is A?

A

Medial

687
Q

What is B?

A

Lateral

688
Q

What is A?

A

Distal

689
Q

What is B?

A

Proximal

690
Q

What’s A?

A

Cranium

691
Q

What’s B?

A

Vertebral column

692
Q

What’s C?

A

Pelvis

693
Q

What’s D?

A

Scapula

694
Q

What’s E?

A

Humerus

695
Q

What’s F?

A

Radius

696
Q

What’s G?

A

Carpus

697
Q

What’s H?

A

Ribs

698
Q

What’s I?

A

Patella

699
Q

What’s J?

A

Tibia

700
Q

What’s K?

A

Sternum

701
Q

What’s L?

A

Ulna

702
Q

What’s M?

A

Metacarpus

703
Q

What’s N?

A

Phalanges

704
Q

What’s P?

A

Fibula

705
Q

What’s Q?

A

Tarsus/ Hock

706
Q

What’s R/

A

Metatarsus

707
Q

What’s S?

A

Maxilla

708
Q

What’s T?

A

Mandible

709
Q

What’s U?

A

Clavicle

710
Q
A