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Small Animal Med > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which org or agency accredits veterinary technology programs in the US?

A

AVMA

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2
Q

What are the eligible designations after passing the VTNE?

A

Certified
Registered
Licensed

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3
Q

Preventing employment related accidents and illness is under the enforcement of…

A

OSHA

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4
Q

Malpractice, aka…

A

Negligence

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5
Q

How many recommended and essential tasks are listed in the CVTEA handbook?

A

350

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6
Q

What is the most severe penalty a veterinary board may impose?

A

revocation of a license

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7
Q

To whom does a vet tech student apply to take the VTNE?

A

AAVSB

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8
Q

Animals used in research facilities and teaching institutions are registered by which government agency?

A

AWA (USDA)

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9
Q

ethical standards are _____ stringent than those required by law

A

just as, if not more so

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10
Q

Who has the ultimate decision making authority over the care provided to an owned animal?

A

Owner

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11
Q

The client observations are used to formulate which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?

A

subjective

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12
Q

What part of the SOAP would this fall into:
suspect otitis externa (ear infection)

A

Assessment

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13
Q

T or F, medical records can be written in any color ink desired

A

False

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14
Q

The results of a diagnostic test would be considered which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?

A

Objective

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15
Q

If a mistaken entry in a medical record has occurred, what is the method by which it is corrected?

A

the entry has a single horizontal line placed through it

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16
Q

Define the objective portion of the POMR

A

information gathered directly from the patient, PE, and diagnostic workup

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17
Q

Define the plan portion of the POMR

A

Sx, Dx to be performed, Tx, and meds dispensed

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18
Q

When taking hx, the interview should end with…

A

a summation of the client’s recitation

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19
Q

Appearing non judgemental about the client’s answers to the questions is…

A

a way to ensure that you get accurate information

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20
Q

Standing behind the exam table while taking a hx

A

distances you from the client, making you appear uncaring

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21
Q

How can you help owners recall a time frame?

A

link time to specific events such as holidays

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22
Q

What is the most common fitting mistake with gentle leader?

A

neck strap too loose

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23
Q

What are the sources for acquisition of our animals in the VT program?

A

Shelters/Humane societies
surrender
breed rescue

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24
Q

What is the first thing to do when getting ready to work with your PACT animal?

A

look at the medical record

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25
Q

What part is adjusted first on the gentle leader

A

the neck strap

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26
Q

Animals housed in the Vet Tech program are governed by…

A

the USDA

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27
Q

When do you use the red leads in the kennel area?

A

emergencies

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28
Q

A cat has a crouched body posture with tail tucked, pupils dilated, is hissing and growling at the back of the cage in the vet hospital. What body posture is it exhibiting?

A

Defensive Threat

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29
Q

Alvin, a mixed breed MN doesn’t like the UPS man. He will bare his teeth and raise his hackles when he sees him. His body is crouched with his tail tucked and his ears pinned back. He growls at him and tries to bite him when he approaches.
What body posture is he exhibiting?

A

Defensive threat

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30
Q

Dog will rollover and expose their underbelly, possibly urinating or defecating at that time.
What posture is this?

A

Submissive

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31
Q

Violet, the FS goldendoodle is lunging at the fence when small children are playing in the neighbor’s yard. She has her hackles raise, standing erect, barking, growling, and staring directly at the children as she lunges at the fence.
What posture is she exhibiting?

A

Offensive Threat

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32
Q

A dog with eyes & ear forward, head up, mouth closed, tail at 45 degrees and hackles down is exhibiting which body posture?

A

Alert

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33
Q

Dog jumps up with tail wagging and try to lick person/animal’s face. Cats don’t specifically exhibit but will have ears erect and head up with tail sometimes straight up and twitching.
What posture is this?

A

Greeting

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34
Q

Who performs pt assessment in vet practice?

A

VT

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35
Q

Who performs pt restraint in practice?

A

VA

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36
Q

Main reason inventory is so important in practice

A

significant expense for practice

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37
Q

What is the most important indicator for financial success of a practice?

A

Proftiability

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38
Q

A client’s judgement regarding the quality of medicine provided at a practice is based on

A

the level of service the client receives

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39
Q

Describe marketing for a vet practice

A

Any effort the practice makes to retain or obtain clients and make the practice more visible in the community

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40
Q

What is the most common selection criteria by clients when choosing a vet practice

A

location

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41
Q

Who performs sx?

A

Vet

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42
Q

Who performs basic animal husbandry in practice?

A

Kennel Attendant

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43
Q

It is best to base the employee’s pay on…

A

Performance

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44
Q

Who makes appointments in practice?

A

receptionists

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45
Q

Who is responsible for all activities of the practice and running the hospital in conjunction with the practice owner

A

Hospital administrator

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46
Q

A document that is a visual representation of how authority and responsibility flow between the various areas of the practice or practice staff

A

Organizational chart

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47
Q

Why is placement of the lab and pharmacy in a central location important?

A

They are often used for examining and treating both outpatients and hospitalized patients

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48
Q

What is the bets way to ensure all major pieces of equipment in a pracitce are cleaned and maintained on a regular basis?

A

assign each member of the team with a specific piece of equipment to clean and maintain

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49
Q

What is the main reason to hold regular employee evaluations?

A

improve the employee’s performance

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50
Q

complaints against vet practices are usually caused by….

A

ineffective communication

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51
Q

Increased competition, new tech, increasing malpractice threats and shifting client expectations have…

A

made effective management of a practice more complex

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52
Q

How many exam rooms should be available for each veterinarian working on a particular day?

A

2

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53
Q

What is a disadvantage of computerized medical records

A

computer generated records can lack medical details

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54
Q

lethargic, not eating well, reluctant to move are what part of the SOAP?

A

subjective

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55
Q

What is the signalment?

A

collective information that identifies an individual pt (species, breed, gender, repro status, age and color)

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56
Q

Abx prescribed, hypoallergenic diet, and follow-up appt are in what part of the SOAP?

A

Plan

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57
Q

cardiac insufficiency and hypotension are what part of the SOAP?

A

Assessment

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58
Q

HR, RR, MM are what part of the SOAP?

A

Objective

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59
Q

Awake, Alert, standing, wagging tail are what part of the SOAP?

A

Subjective

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60
Q

Major medical disorders experienced during a pt’s lifetime are listed to serve as an index to their medical record as…

A

master problem list

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61
Q

Tx, dx tests, and diet requested by Vet for hospitalized pt is found on the….

A

MAOR

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62
Q

temp, wt, CRT are on what part of the SOAP

A

Objective

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63
Q

Who owns the medical records

A

the hospital

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64
Q

T or F, According to the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act, an inventory of all controlled substance must be made on an annual basis

A

T

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65
Q

Hypothermia, altered mentation, inappropriate elimination and risk of infection are _______ according to the CT practice model

A

patient evaluation

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66
Q

URI is what part of the SOAP?

A

Assessment

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67
Q

Limited daily exercise, cold compresses to injury are what part of the SOAP?

A

Plan

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68
Q

An inactive med record is defined as…

A

A client who has not been seen by the practice in 3 years

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69
Q

AAHA endorses what form of record keeping for practices seeking certification?

A

POMR

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70
Q

What restraint tool simulates scruffing a cat?

A

clipnosis

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71
Q

who is legally responsible if a client gets injured in a vet practice by their own pet

A

Vet/practice owner

72
Q

What form of restraint filters a dog’s vision to help reduce anxiety?

A

calming cap

73
Q

What restraint tool can be used on an unattended animal to avoid being bit during procedures and facilitate cage removal?

A

E-collar

74
Q

What is enteral administration of a medication?

A

oral

75
Q

Which species is more likely to have loose SQ tissue

A

cat

76
Q

Aural administration of medication refers to

A

placement of medication in the ears

77
Q

What is the preferred method of ear cleaner administration at CSCC?

A

saturate a cotton ball with cleaner, then place cotton ball in the ear canal

78
Q

Parenteral refers to what for of medication administration?

A

Topical application

79
Q

What is the ungual process?

A

The quick
where the BV and nerve endings are located in the nail

80
Q

Negative Punishment

A

removing something pleasant or rewarding when an undesirable behavior occurs

81
Q

What learning theories are normally utilized together?

A

Counterconditioning and desensitization

82
Q

A large dog is brought in for a TNT. 1st attempt to restrain unsuccessful. Dog is then muzzled and held in lateral recumbency w/ add’l help while TNT.
What type of modification is this?

A

Flooding

83
Q

Positive Reinforcement

A

Giving something pleasant or rewarding immediately following desirable behavior

84
Q

When an animal is first learning a behavior, the rate of reinforcement should be…

A

100%

85
Q

Negative Reinforcement

A

avoiding an aversive stimulus by performing a desirable behavior

86
Q

When a dog is exposed to a thunderstorm tape at low volume that is gradually increased in volume overtime to diminish the dog’s rxn to the noise.
What modification type is this?

A

Desensitization

87
Q

We rewarded the puppy for jumping up on us when it was a baby. As it reaches adulthood, we now ignore them for jumping up on us by turning our back to them.
What modification type is this?

A

Extinction

88
Q

Positive Punishment

A

adding an aversive stimulus immediately after an undesirable behavior

89
Q

Shaping

A

positively reinforcing the movements that are offered by an animal in the direction or to achieve a predetermined end behavior

90
Q

Variable rate of reinforcement is given when the animal is performing the correct behavior ___ percent of the time

A

80

91
Q

Capturing

A

marking an interesting or unique behavior the animal naturally offers

92
Q

a cue can be added once an animal has successfully repeated a behavior…..

A

10-15 times

93
Q

Positive reinforcement should be given in what time frame after a correct behavior is exhibited?

A

1 second

94
Q

Conditioned reinforcer

A

when a unique sound is linked to a food reward

95
Q

When playing with a dog, the second its teeth contact your skin the owner should…

A

walk away from the dog

96
Q

FDA approved drug for tx of k9 cognitive dysfunction

A

anipryl

97
Q

Socialization period for kittens

A

2-7 weeks

98
Q

Cause of most problem behaviors within a clinic

A

fear

99
Q

FDA approved drug for tx of separation anxiety

A

chlomicalm

100
Q

Start of socialization period for puppies

A

4 weeks

101
Q

The process by which an association between 2 events is broken

A

extinction

102
Q

When do dogs become sexually and socially mature

A

6 months

103
Q

Counter conditioning

A

substitute an alternative behavior incompatible with the problem behavior

104
Q

The result of chronic fear/anxiety from which there is no escape

A

stress

105
Q

Result of changing dog hierarchy within the household

A

interdog aggression

106
Q

What is considered an emergency if directed at children?

A

predatory aggression

107
Q

2 cats staring at each other from 3 feet apart are exhbiting….

A

aggression

108
Q

learned helplessness results from….

A

flooding

109
Q

Exposing an animal frequently to nonthreatening stimuli (strangers, TNT, grooming and handling)
what process is this?

A

habituation

110
Q

Sudden withdrawal of reinforcement of a previously rewarded behavior can cause

A

frustration

111
Q

Do female dogs lift there leg to pee

A

yeah sometimes

112
Q
A
113
Q

How long is the neonatal period in puppies

A

2 weeks

114
Q

Idiopathic aggression

A

aggression that is unpredictable and severe, occurring in absence of stimuli

115
Q

A dog in the clinic is lip licking, yawing, and looking away from you.
What behavior is this?

A

anxious

116
Q

A cat’s body is arched, tail erect and ears flattened to its head is exhibiting….

A

fear aggression

117
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

changing an animal’s emotional response to a stimulus

118
Q

giving a dog a food reward after each nail trimmed is an example of….

A

operant conditioning

119
Q

What is the best way to treat fears

A

systematic desensitization

120
Q
A
121
Q

When 2 cats are interacting and 1 hisses, the hissing cat is exhibiting….

A

fear

122
Q

behaviors performed by 2 animals that include cheek and tail rubbing

A

affiliated behaviors

123
Q

respiratory sinus arrhythmia

A

HR that inc/dec with inspiration/expirations

124
Q

BCS with ribs not easily palpable, fat deposits over lumbar area and base of tail, obvious rounding of abdomen with no waist

A

7/9

125
Q

What are the 4 observations to evaluate hydration status

A

MMM, CRT, skin turgor, position of globe in orbit

126
Q

dry MM, CRT >2s, sunken globe indicates…

A

dehydration

127
Q

Ideal BCS

A

5/9

128
Q

Observing a pt in their surroundings prior to the PE will allow you to assess their

A

mentation and respiratory effort

129
Q

Causes for icteric MM

A

RBC destruction
hepatocellular dz
bile duct obstruction

130
Q

pyrexia is considered

A

elevated body temp d/t increased exercise or activity

131
Q

listening to HR and feeling femoral pulse at same time checks for

A

pulse deficits

132
Q

which peripheral lymph nodes shouldn’t be palpable unless there is inflammation, infection, or cancer?

A

axillary and inguinal

133
Q

auscultation triangle

A

location to listen to the lungs with a stethoscope

134
Q

the R HV heard best on the left side of the chest

A

pulmonary

135
Q

lymph node located behind the stifle

A

popliteal

136
Q

CRT assesses which condition?

A

perfusion/dehydration

137
Q

eyeball feels firm on palpation

A

glaucoma

138
Q

where is aural temp taken

A

ear

139
Q

precursor for periodontal dz

A

gingivitis

140
Q

petechiation in the pinna may be a sign of

A

thrombocytopenia

141
Q

pulmonary edema

A

abnormal fluid build up in the lung tissue

142
Q

Alopecia

A

hair loss

143
Q

Ileus

A

complete absence of intestinal motility

144
Q

Borborygmus

A

intestinal motility sound

145
Q

Stridor

A

inspiratory sound similar to soring

146
Q

Halitosis

A

bad breath

147
Q

Glycosuria

A

glucose in teh urine

148
Q

pleural effusion

A

increased fluid in teh thoracic cavity

149
Q

yellow MM indicate

A

icterus

150
Q

what is seen in a polydipsic cat?

A

increased drinking

151
Q

ataxia

A

incoordination

152
Q

Pruritic

A

itchy

153
Q

Colitis

A

inflammation of the large intestine

154
Q

Pupillary light reflex tests

A

CN II and III

155
Q

Stenotic nares are seen in

A

brachycephalic breeds

156
Q

Anisocoria

A

pupils of different sizes

157
Q

Entropion

A

rolling of the lower eyelid toward the eye

158
Q

Socialization period or sociability of a puppy decreases or ends at

A

12 weeks

159
Q

compulsive disorders in dogs are treated by

A

structured interaction and timulation plus teaching a settle command

160
Q

k9 behavior most frequently referred to a specialist

A

aggression

161
Q

fear of noise is modified by

A

classical counterconditioning and desensitization

162
Q

neutering aids with modifying….

A

aggression and inappropriate elimination

163
Q

puppies will normally outgrow _____ types of inappropriate elimination

A

submissive and excitement elimination

164
Q

what percent of dogs are euthenized at shelters

A

59%

165
Q

yelling and screaming at an aggressive dog increases the arousal level and risk of injury.
Which learning theory is demonstrated?

A

positive punishment

166
Q

Proper training involves

A

pos reinforcement and neg punishment

167
Q

clients with animals with behavior problems will seek advice from ___ first

A

vet

168
Q

how many litter boxes are recommended

A

1 more than # of cats

169
Q

most common cat behavior issue

A

inappropriate elimination

170
Q

feline behaviro issue most likely to be seen by a behavior specialist

A

aggression

171
Q

socialization period for kittens

A

up to 12 weeks

172
Q

cats scratch objects to

A

mark territory

173
Q

how many more pet owned cats are there than pet owned dogs in US

A

10 million

174
Q

what percent of how we empathize with our client (vocal) makes us credible and believable?

A

33%

175
Q

what percent of what the client sees (visual) makes us credible and believable

A

55%

176
Q

What percent of what we say (verbal) makes us credible and believable

A

7%

177
Q

How many households in the US have at least 1 cat

A

40%

Small Animal Med (1 decks)

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