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Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the somatic nervous system

A

innervates skeletal muscle

somatic nerve firing excites muscle activation

transmits sensations through sensory system while the motor system innervates the muscle with reflexive and voluntary movement

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2
Q

what is autonomic nervous system

A

innervates smooth involuntary muscle

functions to maintain consistency in the internal environment

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3
Q

what are peripheral nerves

A

tissue that is needed for normal functioning of voluntary muscle

includes sensory nerves, motor nerves, and mixed nerves

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4
Q

What is muscular weakness

A

lack of strength due to CSA, arrangement of fibres, fiber distribution, or disease

distal to neuromuscular junction

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5
Q

how do you assess muscular strength

A

single repetition maximum

manual muscle testing

hand-held dynamometers

modified sphygmomanometers

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6
Q

what is motor impairment

A

impairment of motion

can be due to
- upper motor neuron lesion
-nerve root lesion
- injury to peripheral nerve
-pathology to NMJ

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7
Q

What is a myotome

A

group of muscles that are predominantly supplied by a single nerve root

tested by putting joint in neutral position and applying a resisted isometric force 3 times for 5 seconds to test for fatigable weakness. if there is then myotome is neurologically damaged

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8
Q

What is the difference between upper and lower motor neuron syndrome

A

upper - includes lesions involving cortical spinal pathways (brain) - causes slowness of movement, impaired coordination, hyperactive reflexes, and spasticity

lower - damage to lower motor neuron cell bodies (nerve damage) - causes weakness, hyporeflexia, atrophy, and spasms

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9
Q

what is sensation

A

conscious perception of basic sensory input

paresthesia is abnormal sensation of pins n needles

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10
Q

what are the 4 sensory nerve fiber classes

A

1a - muscle spindles
1b - GTO
2 - pressure, touch, vibration
3 - temperature
4 - crude touch

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11
Q

What is the anterior spinothalamic tract

A

spinal tract for light touch and pressure

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12
Q

what is the DCML pathway

A

tract for proprioception, vibration, and fine touch

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13
Q

what is the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

spinal tract for pain and temperature

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14
Q

what is dermatome vs peripheral nerve

A

dermatome - area of skin supplied by a single nerve root

peripheral nerve - individual cutaneous nerve that supplies skin

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15
Q

What are the 5 grades for reflexes

A

0-absent
1-diminished (hyporeflexia)
2-average
3-exaggerated
4-clonus (hyperreflexia)

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16
Q

How do you test for clonus

A

extend the wrist or dorsiflex the ankle and apply a quick overpressure, a positive sign for clonus is more than 3 beats

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17
Q

WHat is an example of a cutaneous reflex

A

babinski

stroke lateral aspect of foot, if big toe extends and other toes fan out, there is disruption in the corticospinal tract

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18
Q

What is motor control

A

ability of CNS to control the neuromotor system in purposeful movement and postural adjustment by selective allocation of muscle tension

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19
Q

What is coordination

A

ability to execute smooth, accurate, and controlled movement involving multiple joints and muscles activated at the appropriate time and force

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20
Q

WHat is dexterity

A

skillful use of fingers during fine motor tasksw

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21
Q

what is agility

A

ability to rapidly and smoothly initiate, stop, or modify movements

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22
Q

What is balance

A

condition where all forces acting on the body are balanced so the COM is within the BOS

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23
Q

how does vision assist the motor system

A

focal vision - explicit, major role in localizing features in the environment , can develop visual agnosia which impairs the ability to recognize objects

ambient vision - implicit, using visual field to provide info on localizing features about the environment, can develop optic ataxia which impairs using visual info to guide hand

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24
Q

How does the vestibular system work

A

semicircular canals detect angular acceleration forces on the head

otolith organs detect linear acceleration and head orientation in reference to gravity

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25
What are the hierarchical levels of the central elements of control for the motor system
highest level - neocortex/basil ganglia - goal of movement and movement strategy middle level - motor cortex and cerebellum - controls sequences of muscle contractions to achieve goal lowest level - brainstem/ spinal cord - activation of motor neuron and interneuron pools that generate goal directed movement
26
WHat does the cerebellum do
regulation of movement, postural control, and muscle tone impairments can influence abilitty to execute smooth controlled movements
27
What are some deficits present with basal ganglia lesions
slowness of movement involuntary movement alterations in posture and muscle tone
28
Is there a correlation with strength and ROM with measures of stability?
yes
29
WHat happens to proprioceptive acuity threshold in older adults
it is larger
30
what are some impairments in coordination
dysdiadochokinesia - impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements hypotonia - decrease in muscle tone due to disruption of afferent input from stretch receptors dysmetria - inability to judge the distance or range of a movement dyssynergia - movement performed in a sequence of component parts rather than a single smooth activity
31
What is the finger to finger/finger to nose test
delay in movement initiation, dysmetria, and terminal tremor (due to alternating contractions of agonist and antagonist) are positive signs
32
What is the rebound test
resisted isometric contraction of elbow flexors, then examiner releases force. if patient cant stop movement when this happens, positive for rebound phenomenon
33
What are the support strategies to control COM
ankle strategy - shifting COM forwards and back by moving body at the ankles, commonly activated with low sway and small disturbances, calves and hamstrings active during forward sway and tib ant/ quads activated with back sway hip strategy - shifts in the COM by flexing or extending at the hips, recruited with larger movements and frequencies (greater than 1Hz), hip adductors and abductors activated to control lateral sway stepping strategy - realigns BOS under COM by using rapid steps or hops in the direction of the displacing force, if lateral destabilization individual sidesteps to move BOS, recruited to fast and very large perturbations
34
WHat are the seated postural control
grasping edge of seat lower extremity hooking (hooking leg around chair leg
35
what is dual task control
patient is asked to perform a task while maintaining postural control
36
What is the romberg test
patient stands with feet together with eyes open for 30s, then does it with eyes closed, if significant sway, failed test
37
what is the functional reach test
max reach one can reach forward while maintaining fixed base of support, no association between this and risk of falling
38
What is the berg balance scale
14 item scale that assesses for balance and risk of falls, 0-4 grading scheme with 0 being unable to complete and 4 being indepandantly completing task, it is a reliable outcome measure but cannot predict falls
39
What is the ICF model of health
attempts to provide a meaningful description of the components of health and its relationship to a person with the health condition
40
What are the components of function and disability
-body functions and structures - physiological functions of body systems -activity - execution of a task or action -Participation - involvement in life situations
41
what are the contexual factors of function and disability
environmental factors - external to the individual with an influence on performance personal factors - features of the individual such as age gender and race
42
What is basic activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living
ADL - fundamental skills that are required to independently care for oneself (categories include ambulating, personal hygene, feeding, dressing, continence, dressing, toileting) IADL - activities that allow an individual to live independantly in a community (categories include transport and shopping, managing finances, cleaning, communicating, meal prep, managing meds)
43
What are clinical indicators of cognative impairment
inability to do simple tasks difficulty in starting/finishing a task difficulty in switching from one task to the next
44
What are the components of a cognition assessment
orientation (asked person, place, and time) attention/alertness (patient asked to spell a word forwards and backwards) memory (ask patient to recall 3 items after 3-5 min or about a verifiable historical event) apraxia (asks patient to perform complex tasks)
45
WHat is the SF-36 questionnaire
36 item questionnaire about physical functioning, rolephysical, bodily pain, general health, vitality, social functioning, roleemotional, and mental health. lower scores on the test are a risk factor for hospital admissions and death
46
what is the barthel index
sum score across ADLs low scores are requiring dependancy
47
what is the functional independance measure
estimates level of assistance needed for patients to complete ADLs
48
What is gait speed
predictor of functional decline time one takes to walk a specific distance over a short distance
49
What is the TUG test
time taken to stand up from a chair, walk 3m, then turn around and walk back to the chair and sit down, no physical assistance
50
What are the advantages to a physical performance test
easy to administer not time consuming dont need expertise can be completed in multiple settings
51
What PPTs can predict injury
star excursion balance test closed kinetic chain upper extremity stability test seated 2 handed shotput
52
What is the functional movement score
tool that attempts to assess fundamental movement patterns of an individual tests the following: * Deep squat * Hurdle step * In-line lunge * Shoulder mobility * Active straight leg raise * Trunk stability push-up * Rotary stability
53
WHat are some limitations of PPTs
measures are based on reference norms and not sport specific measures are unidemensional (consider only one factor) dont use prospective data to create the tool (dont take cross-sectional studies into account)
54
what is relative risk
incidence of disease among exposed/incidence of disease among unexposed
55
what is the odds ratio
odds of exposure among individuals with disease/odds of exposure among individuals without disease
56
what are intrinsic risk factors
age, fitness, sex, biomechanics, etc
57
what are extrinsic risk factors
sports equipment environment other players training load
58
How is workload calculated
combo of internal/external work = sRPE x duration or HR x distance total external work = (power or velocity) x (duration or distance)
59
What are the characteristics of a good outcome measure
discriminate among patients/athletes at a point in time predict a subsequent event or outcome assess change over time
60
What are good psychometric properties
validity reliability MDC MCID
61
How can we validate a sport injury prediction tool
strong relationship should be demonstrated between test and injury risk test properties of marker must be validated intervention program given to targeted athletes should be more beneficial
62
how to create your own injury risk screening
Conduct a systematic search on the sport of interest * Find all prospective cohort studies that include risk factors on injury incidence (not prevalence) * Consider all internal and external risk factors * Create an assessment tool that incorporates the modifiable risk factors
63
how do we implement an injury risk screening
identify athletes at risk prerehab to address risk factors
64
What are the characteristics of walking
Heel strike no flight phase prolonged stance phase
65
What are the characteristics of jogging
limited hip flexion less plantarflexion less forward momentum greater verticle translation
66
What are the characteristics of running
mid-forefoot strike increased hip flexion increased plantar flexion
67
What are the characteristics of sprinting
forefoot strike forward lean minimal contact time increased flight time
68
What are some ROM deficits with runners
decreased hip internal rotation and decreased ankle dorsiflexion
69
What does manual muscle testing on runners consist of
quad weakness hip abduction weakness ankle plantarflexion weakness ankle eccentric eversion weakness
70
What does muscle length testing on runners consist of
testing of biarticulate muscles like the quads, hamstrings, and gastrocnemius
71
What are the special tests for runners
FADDIR Modified Thomas Test Knee to wall
72
What is the Q angle
quad angle between ASIS to patella and center of patella to tibial tubericle not associated with an increased risk for running related injuries
73
What is the navicular drop
distance navicular tuberosity moves from sitting to standing, used as an indicator of pronation associated with medial exercise-related leg pain
74
What are the components of the vertical ground reaction force
y-axis = VGRF x-axis = %STANCE first rise =loading rate first peak = heel strike (FZ1) second peak =pushoff (FZ2)
75
How is VGRF loading rate calculated
maximal vertical force by time to maximal vertical force
76
What are the 3 footstrike patterns
forefoot strike midfoot strike rearfoot strike
77
how does running cadence influence risk factors
slower cadence = risk of injury increased
78
What is some equipment used in running
Running shoes * Orthotics and inserts * Compression socks
79
Do foot orthotics prevent injuries
no, increases risk of medial tibial stress syndrome
80
what are some environmental factors that affect running
Running surface * Running terrain * Temperature * Altitude
81

BPK 303 (1 decks)

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