Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

emt final > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?

A. Sublingual
B. Intraosseous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Transcutaneous

A

D. Transcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:

A. Intranasal route
B. Inhalation route
C. Sublingual route
D. Transdermal route

A

A. Intranasal route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minimum to a 4-month old infant?

A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

A

B. 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:

A. Pills
B. Tablets
C. Caplets
D. Capsules

A

D. Capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):

A. Suspension
B. Solution
C. Elixir
D. Gel

A

A. Suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

A. Pallor
B. Dizziness
C. Wheezing
D. Hypotension

A

C. Wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

A. Severe vomiting
B. Liver laceration
C. Excessive sweating
D. Repeated diarrhea

A

B. Liver laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the __________ artery.

A. Radial
B. Carotid
C. Femoral
D. Brachial

A

D. Brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What medication form does oral glucose come in?

A. Gel
B. Liquid
C. Suspension
D. Fine powder

A

A. Gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should:

A. Open his airway and assess his breathing status
B. Perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment
C. Assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality
D. Apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries

A

A. Open his airway and assess his breathing status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:

A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Severe bradycardia
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Congestive heart failure

A

C. Ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

A. Not able to swallow without choking
B. Experiencing a right hemispheric stroke
C. Unable to produce or understand speech
D. Usually conscious but has slurred speech

A

C. Unable to produce or understand speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
A. Aphasia
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysphasia
D. Dysphagia

A

B. Dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

A. Protect her airway from aspiration
B. Keep her supine and keep her warm
C. Rapidly transport her to the hospital
D. Give her high-flow supplemental oxygen

A

A. Protect her airway from aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

A. Contact medical control
B. Take standard precautions
C. Quickly access the patient
D. Notify law enforcement

A

B. Take standard precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Skeletal muscle is often referred to as this type of muscle because of it’s striped appearance:

A. Involuntary
B. Striated
C. Smooth muscle
D. Cardiac muscle

A

B. Striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal breathing has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Regular rhythm/pattern of inhalation and exhalation
B. Regular rise and fall of both sides of the chest
C. Muscle retractions
D. Movement of the abdomen

A

C. Muscle retractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying maintaing adequate blood flow to the body?

A. An effectively pumping heart
B. An intact system of blood vessels
C. Adequate blood in the vasculature
D. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

A

D. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant:

A. Will most likely be thrown over the steering column
B. Remains in motion until acted upon by an external force
C. Will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle
D. Is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard

A

B. Remains in motion until acted upon by an external force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:

A. The diaphragm descends
B. Abdominal contents descend
C. Intrathoracic pressure decreases
D. The intercoastal muscles contract

A

D. The intercoastal muscles contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
B. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
C. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

A

D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A. Retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium
B. Eliminating toxic waste products from the body
C. Removing sodium and water from the body
D. Accommodating large amount of blood volume

A

C. Removing sodium and water from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reassesment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

A. Reassessing the nature of illness
B. Taking another set of vital signs
C. Repeating the primary assessment
D. Reviewing all treatment performed

A

C. Repeating the primary assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

A. Alveoli
B. Trachea
C. Bronchi
D. Capillaries

A

A. Alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Pulmonary veins

A

D. Pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Brain stem
D. Cerebral cortex

A

B. Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by:

A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting
C. Muscular contraction
D. Spontaneous rupture

A

B. Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. Substance abuse
D. Alzheimer’s disease

A

C. Substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

At what age do children begin developing self-esteem?

A. 3 to 4 years
B. 4 to 8 years
C. 6 to 12 years
D. 12 to 18 years

A

C. 6 to 12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maturation of the reproductive system usually takes place during:

A. Early adulthood
B. Preschool
C. Middle adulthood
D. Adolescence

A

D. Adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where should you palpate for a pulse in an infant?

A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Carotid
D. Femoral

A

B. Brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The most rapid increase in language occurs during this stage development:

A. Toddlers
B. Pre-School Age
C. Adolescents
D. School Age

A

B. Pre-School Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The major bones in the wrist and hand include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Carpals
B. Metacarpals
C. Phalanges
D. Metatarsal

A

D. Metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many vertebrae are in the coccygeal region of your vertebrae?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 7
D. 12

A

B. 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

All of the following are classifications of aspirin EXCEPT:

A. Platelet aggregation inhibitor
B. Antipyretic
C. Anti-Inflammatory Agent
D. Sympathomimetic

A

D. Sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:

A. Crepitus
B. Rhonchi
C. Korotkoff sounds
D. Subcutaneous emphysema

A

D. Subcutaneous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

With a good mask-to face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to __ % inspired oxygen.

A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100

A

C. 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and you partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your most appropriate action?

A. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence
B. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients
C. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients
D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag

A

D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Type 1 diabetes:

A. Is typically treated with medications such as metformin
B. Typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age
C. Is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body
D. Is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL

A

C. Is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

A. Ecstasy
B. Oxycodone (Percocet)
C. Amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine)
D. Crack cocaine

A

B. Oxycodone (Percocet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should:

A. Consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient’s behavior
B. Avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas
C. Check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes
D. Carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patients behavior

A

A. Consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When a female has reached menarche:

A. She is capable of becoming pregnant
B. She can no longer produce an ovum
C. She usually requires hormone therapy
D. Menstrual periods become less frequent

A

A. She is capable of becoming pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Urticaria is the medical term for:

A. Hives
B. Burning
C. Swelling
D. A wheal

A

A. Hives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental, it would be MOST important to determine:

A. If he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress
B. Approximately how much water the patient drank that day
C. If there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions
D. The name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin

A

A. If he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

A. Tachycardia
B. Hypothermia
C. Hypotension
D. Slurred speech

A

A. Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient’s son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease 6 months ago. The patient’s speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should:

A. Transport the patient to a psychiatric facility
B. Inquire about the possibility of head trauma
C. Conclude that the patient’s blood sugar is high
D. Allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes

A

B. Inquire about the possibility of head trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?

A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active
B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy
C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past
D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain

A

B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly
B. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis
C. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face
D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin

A

A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

A. Patient’s mental status
B. Rate of the patient’s pulse
C. Presence of a medical identification tag
D. Rate and depth of breathing

A

D. Rate and depth of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

A. Knows the location of the closest hospital
B. Is aware of the patient’s age and gender
C. Is aware of the substance that is involved
D. Knows why the patient overdosed on the drug

A

C. Is aware of the substance that is involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:

A. Traumatic brain injury
B. Seizure
C. Drug and alcohol abuse
D. Functional disorder

A

D. Functional disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _____ pounds per square inch (psi).

A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 3,000

A

C. 2,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to:

A. Maintain stabilization of the spine at all times
B. Move the patient as quickly as you possibly can
C. Extricate the patient with one coordinated move
D. Apply a vest-style device before moving the patient

A

A. Maintain stabilization of the spine at all times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A team if EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient’s closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should:

A. Repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient’s arm
B. Ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting
C. Disregard the team leader’s request and contact medical control for guidance
D. Advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting

A

D. Advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A. 4
B. 7
C. 13
D. 5

A

B. 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than __ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:

A. The patient’s respirations are deep during the early stages of shock
B. Blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock
C. Multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock
D. Irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion

A

B. Blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

A. A drug overdose
B. Respiratory arrest
C. Severe chest trauma
D. A cardiac dysrhythmia

A

B. Respiratory arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?

A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen
B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure
C. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure
D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction

A

D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

A. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance
B. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance
C. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance
D. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

A

A. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as:

A. Knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs
B. Willfully using a therapeutic drug to trat a medical illness
C. Unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol
D. Misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

A

D. Misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

_________ is what you can see of a person’s response to the environment.

A. Affect
B. Behavior
C. Neurosis
D. Psychosis

A

B. Behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:

A. Vagina
B. Uterus
C. Cervical os
D. Fallopian tube

A

D. Fallopian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A. Most cells will function normally without glucose
B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin
C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen
D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells

A

C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

A. The bee venom itself
B. Adrenaline and histamines
C. Leukocytes and and epinephrine
D. Histamines and leukocytes

A

D. Histamines and leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

An EMTs primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

A. Administer the appropriate antidote
B. Recognize that a poising occurred
C. Administer 25 g of activated charcoal
D. Contact poison control immediately

A

B. Recognize that a poising occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A 4-year-old girl fell from a second-story balcony and landed on her head. She is unresponsive, has slow, irregular breathing; and has a large hematoma to the top of her head; and is bleeding from her nose. You should:

A. Immediately perform a full-body scan to detect other injuries, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once
B. Apply a pediatric-sized cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via pediatric nonrebreathing mask, and prepare for immediate transport
C. Manually stabilize her head, open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, insert an airway adjunct, and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device
D. Suction her airway for up to 10 seconds, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, apply a pediatric-sized cervical collar, and administer oxygen via pediatric nonrebreathing mask

A

C. Manually stabilize her head, open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, insert an airway adjunct, and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The L in the mnemonic TICLS when assessing the pediatric patient refers to:

A. Look or gaze
B. Lesions
C. Laceration
D. Limpness

A

A. Look or gaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following is not in the foot?

A. Tarsals
B. Metacarpals
C. Talus
D. Calcaneus

A

B. Metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

This bone lies on the lateral side of the lower leg:

A. Fibula
B. Tibia
C. Humerus
D. Femur

A

A. Fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

This backup system of the body that helps to control respiration when the oxygen level falls.

A. Respiratory drive
B. Hypoxic drive
C. Residual volume
D. Respiratory system

A

B. Hypoxic drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

This equation is a useful tool in determining blood pressure in children ages 1-10 years old.

A. 70 + (2xchild age in years)= lowest expected systolic BP
B. 80 + (2xchild age in years)= lowest expected systolic BP
C. 70 + (2xchild age in months)= lowest expected BP
D. 70 + (1xchild age in years)= lowest expected BP

A

A. 70 + (2xchild age in years)= lowest expected systolic BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When dealing with an airway obstruction in a pediatric patient signs of a severe airway obstruction are all of the following except:

A. Inability to speak or cry
B. Respiratory difficulty with stridor
C. Crying
D. Cyanosis

A

C. Crying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

To be a great EMT, strive for:

A. Retraining
B. Foundational knowledge
C. Management work
D. The chance to replace an EMR

A

B. Foundational knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

A. Obtain updated vital signs
B. Reassess your interventions
C. Repeat primary assessment
D. Confirm medical Hx findings

A

C. Repeat primary assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

A. 24%
B. 35%
C. 44%
D. 52%

A

C. 44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A. Data gathering
B. Data interpretation
C. Planning
D. Team communications

A

A. Data gathering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?

A. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation
B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion
C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion
D. Blood pressure is usually not measurable in children younger than 3 years of age

A

D. Blood pressure is usually not measurable in children younger than 3 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

A. Nasal cannula
B. Nonrebreathing mask
C. Bag-mask device
D. Mouth-to-mask device

A

B. Nonrebreathing mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:

A. Apical pulse
B. Systolic pressure
C. Diastolic
D. Pulse pressure

A

B. Systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:

A. Everyone fails
B. That person is fired
C. Management will be changed
D. Pay is withheld

A

A. Everyone fails

82
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

A. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report
B. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level
C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format
D. Providing the handoff report only to a physician

A

C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format

83
Q

This specific viral illness of newborns and toddlers is often caused by RSV and leads to inflammation of the bronchioles.

A. Bronchiolitis
B. Pertussis
C. Pneumonia
D. Epiglottis

A

A. Bronchiolitis

84
Q

Refusal or failure of the part of the parent or caregiver to provide life necessities is known as:

A. Abandonment
B. Neglect
C. Abuse
D. Mistreatment

A

B. Neglect

85
Q

The ______ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.

A. Coccyx
B. Sacrum
C. Thorax
D. Ischium

A

B. Sacrum

86
Q

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

A. Continuum of care
B. Standard of care
C. Scope of practice
D. Patient care advocacy

A

A. Continuum of care

87
Q

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

A. Cyanosis
B. Headache
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypotension

A

B. Headache

88
Q

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries
C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries
D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide

A

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries

89
Q

The structure located superior to the larynx is called the:

A. Epiglottis
B. Carina
C. Cricoid ring
D. Thyroid cartilage

A

A. Epiglottis

90
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?

A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma
B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries
C. The exact location of a patient’s injuries can be determined by the MOI
D. A significant MOI usually results in patient death of permanent disability

A

B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries

91
Q

You arrive on scene to a house where the patient is lying in his living room unconscious and unresponsive. You have been called by his neighbor. What form of consent does this fall under?

A. Expressed
B. Implied
C. Informed
D. Involuntary

A

B. Implied

92
Q

The ___________ is most commonly defined by state law and outlines the care you are legally able to provide for the patient.

A. Scope of practice
B. Standard of care
C. Protocol
D. Standard operating guidelines

A

A. Scope of practice

93
Q

A proactive process of development capitalizing on strengths and addressing challenges is called:

A. Evaluation
B. Medical care standards
C. Just culture
D. Continued quality improvement

A

D. Continued quality improvement

94
Q

_______ is the capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from distress:

A. Eustress
B. Wellness
C. Resilience
D. Adaption

A

C. Resilience

95
Q

Using various communication techniques and strategies to encourage patients to express how they are feeling and to achieve a positive relationship with the patient is known as:

A. Non-verbal communication
B. Therapeutic communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Electronic communication

A

B. Therapeutic communication

96
Q

Central pulses include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Carotid
B. Femoral
C. Radial
D. Apical

A

C. Radial

97
Q

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lung through the:

A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Myocardial valve

A

C. Pulmonary veins

98
Q

This term is identified between birth and 1 month old.

A. Infant
B. Toddler
C. Neonate
D. Newborn

A

C. Neonate

99
Q

What is your adult dose of Epinephrine 1:000?

A. 0.30 mg IN
B. 0.30 mcg IM
C. 0.30 mg/kg IM
D. 0.30 mg IM

A

D. 0.30 mg IM

100
Q

Consistent adherence to a code of honest behavior is:

A. Empathy
B. Integrity
C. Sympathy
D. Diplomacy

A

B. Integrity

101
Q

This term means farther from the trunk:

A. Distal
B. Dorsal
C. Inferior
D. Posterior

A

A. Distal

102
Q

What is your pediatric dose for epinephrine?

A. 0.15 mg/kg IM
B. 0.15 mcg IM
C. 0.15 mg IM
D. 0.3 mg IM

A

C. 0.15 mg IM

103
Q

A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically transmits them on a second frequency is a:

A. UHF
B. Portable radio
C. Repeater
D. VHF radio

A

C. Repeater

104
Q

An individual’s responsibility to provide patient care is his/her:

A. Scope of practice
B. Duty to act
C. Standard of care
D. Professional standard

A

B. Duty to act

105
Q

Denial, anger/hostility, bargaining, and depression are four of the five stages of grief. Which of the following is a stage of grief?

A. Assumption
B. Acceptance
C. Accusation
D. Alarm

A

B. Acceptance

106
Q

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

A. The EMTs prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched
B. Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness
C. Ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms
D. Determining the underlying cause of a patients medical condition based on signs and symptoms

A

B. Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness

107
Q

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Appendix
D. Gallbladder

A

A. Liver

108
Q

The most significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stoke is:

A. Severe stress
B. Hypertension
C. Heavy exertion
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

B. Hypertension

109
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver
B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized
D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal

A

C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized

110
Q

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:

A. Between 8 and 10 years of age
B. Between 11 and 16 years of age
C. Between 18 and 23 years of age
D. Between 25 and 28 years of age

A

B. Between 11 and 16 years of age

111
Q

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A. Moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature
B. Extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems
C. Severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment
D. Allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction

A

B. Extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems

112
Q

A simple pneumothorax:

A. Is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma
B. Often has a nontraumatic case
C. Heals on its own without any treatment
D. Is caused by penetrating chest trauma

A

A. Is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma

113
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types if collisions in a typical impact in a motor vehicular crash?

A. Collision of the passenger against the interior of the car
B. Collision of the internal organs against the body’s solid structures
C. Collisions of two passenger bodies within the same vehicle
D. Collision of a car against another car, a tress, or another object

A

C. Collisions of two passenger bodies within the same vehicle

114
Q

When documenting a patient’s description of his or chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:

A. Use medical terminology
B. Use the patient’s own words
C. Underline the patient’s quotes
D. Document his or her own perception

A

B. Use the patient’s own words

115
Q

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:

A. A thrombus
B. An aneurysm
C. An embolism
D. Atherosclerosis

A

B. An aneurysm

116
Q

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

A. Cystitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Cholecystitis

A

A. Cystitis

117
Q

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:

A. Once the patient’s baseline vital signs are known
B. After the primary assessment has been completed
C. Upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment
D. As soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint

A

B. After the primary assessment has been completed

118
Q

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A. Immune system
B. Endocrine system
C. Respiratory system
D. Cardiovascular system

A

A. Immune system

119
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct?

A. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin
B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings
C. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced
D. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection

A

B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings

120
Q

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should:

A. Perform a neurologic exam
B. Palpate his radial pulses
C. Administer high-flow oxygen
D. Apply ice to the hematoma

A

C. Administer high-flow oxygen

121
Q

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A. Allows flexion of the neck
B. Provides respiration
C. Connects the scapulae together
D. Allows movement of the head

A

D. Allows movement of the head

122
Q

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the:

A. Systolic blood pressure exclusively
B. Ability of the blood to effectively clot
C. Ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen
D. White blood cells’ ability to fight infection

A

B. Ability of the blood to effectively clot

123
Q

An abdominal evisceration:

A. Is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma
B. Should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings
C. Often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss
D. Occurs when organs protrude through an open wound

A

D. Occurs when organs protrude through an open wound

124
Q

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement to the left chest wall. You should:

A. Request a paramedic to decompress the chest
B. Make note of it and continue your assessment
C. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask
D. Apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask

A

C. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask

125
Q

Force acting over a distance is the definition of:

A. Work
B. Latent energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Potential energy

A

A. Work

126
Q

The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the:

A. Venules
B. Vena cava
C. Arterioles
D. Capillary arteries

A

C. Arterioles

127
Q

The cricoid cartilage:

A. Lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck
B. Is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea
C. Is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage
D. Lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck

A

B. Is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea

128
Q

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:

A. C1 and C2
B. C3 and C4
C. C1, C2, C3
D. C3, C4, C5

A

D. C3, C4, C5

129
Q

When a person is exposed to a cold environment:

A. Sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict
B. Blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body
C. The skin become flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation
D. Peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin

A

D. Peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin

130
Q

Which of the following nerves carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?

A. Motor
B. Central
C. Sensory
D. Somatic

A

C. Sensory

131
Q

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height?

A. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work by bringing the body to a stop
B. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact
C. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact
D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop

A

D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop

132
Q

Perfusion is most accurately defined as the:

A. Effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls
B. Ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure
C. Circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs
D. Effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body’s cells

A

C. Circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs

133
Q

As a woman approaches menopause:

A. Her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity
B. She cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels
C. She usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding
D. Her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly

A

A. Her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

134
Q

The criteria to be credentialed/licensed and employed as an EMT include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Successful competition of state recognized exam
B. Successful completion of state recognized practical exam
C. Successful completion of defensive driving/CDL course
D. Successful completion of BLS/CPR certification

A

C. Successful completion of defensive driving/CDL course

135
Q

The way infectious disease is spread is known as:

A. Transmission
B. Exposure
C. Contamination
D. Direct contact

A

A. Transmission

136
Q

The type of consent given when the patient specifically acknowledges that he or she wants you to provide care or transport is:

A. Informed
B. Expressed
C. Implied
D. Involuntary

A

B. Expressed

137
Q

All of the following are exampled of open ended questions EXCEPT:

A. What’s wrong today?
B. Have you eaten anything today?
C. What did you have for breakfast today?
D. Can you tell me about your medical history?

A

B. Have you eaten anything today?

138
Q

In medical terminology, a suffix usually indicates all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Procedure
B. Condition
C. Direction
D. Disease

A

C. Direction

139
Q

Proper __________ is the simplest yet most effective wat to control diseases transmission:

A. Handwashing
B. Disinfecting
C. Decontamination
D. Deodorizing

A

A. Handwashing

140
Q

The spread of HIV and Hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced back to:

A. Blood splatter
B. Refusal to wear a mask
C. Improper donning/doffing PPE
D. Careless handling of sharps

A

D. Careless handling of sharps

141
Q

AAOS prepared and published the first EMT textbook in 1971; what colorful name was given to this text?

A. Orange
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Red

A

A. Orange

142
Q

The term “behavioral crisis” is MOST accurately defined as:

A. A sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member
B. A situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior
C. A medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning
D. A period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with

A

B. A situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior

143
Q

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:

A. Thins and begins to separate
B. Becomes engorged with blood
C. Diverts blood flow to the vagina
D. Shed and is expelled externally

A

B. Becomes engorged with blood

144
Q

Insulin functions in the body by:

A. Producing new glucose as needed
B. Enabling glucose to enter the cells
C. Increasing circulating blood glucose
D. Metabolizing glucose to make energy

A

B. Enabling glucose to enter the cells

145
Q

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

A. Urticaria and angioedema
B. Watery eyes and localized itching
C. Expiratory stridor and tachycardia
D. Hypertension and swollen hands

A

A. Urticaria and angioedema

146
Q

Heroin is an example of a(n):

A. Opioid
B. Hypnotic
C. Cholinergic
D. Sympathomimetic

A

A. Opioid

147
Q

The lower jawbone is called the:

A. Zygoma
B. Maxillae
C. Mandible
D. Mastoid

A

C. Mandible

147
Q

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person:

A. Becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him or herself or others
B. Experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month
C. Exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance
D. Experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation

A

A. Becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him or herself or others

147
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:

A. Cerebellum and brain
B. Brain and spinal cord
C. Cerebrum and meninges
D. Meninges and spinal cord

A

B. Brain and spinal cord

148
Q

Hypovolemic shock occurs when:

A. The clotting ability of the blood is enhanced
B. Low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion
C. The patient’s systolic BP is less than 100 mmHg
D. At least 10% of the patient’s blood volume is lost

A

B. Low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion

148
Q

What is the approximate blood volume if an 80kg adult male?

A. 5.25 L
B. 6.0 L
C. 6.25 L
D. 6.50 L

A

B. 6.0 L

149
Q

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, except:

A. Pupillary constriction
B. Increase in heart rate
C. Shunting of blood to vital organs
D. Dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle

A

A. Pupillary constriction

150
Q

Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, except:

A. Tachypnea
B. Hematemesis
C. Localized pain
D. Chest wall ecchymosis

A

B. Hematemesis

151
Q

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would most likely be observed in a patient with:

A. Retinitis
B. Contact lenses
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Brain injury

A

D. Brain injury

152
Q

The ______ nerves supply the diaphragm.

A. Vagus
B. Costal
C. Phrenic
D. Intercostal

A

C. Phrenic

153
Q

The _______ nervous system consist of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

A. Central
B. Somatic
C. Autonomic
D. Peripheral

A

D. Peripheral

154
Q

When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should deliver each breath:

A. Over a period of about 2-3 seconds
B. While watching for adequate chest rise
C. Every 2 to 3 seconds (20 to 30 breaths/min)
D. Quickly to ensure adequate ventilation

A

B. While watching for adequate chest rise

155
Q

Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route?

A. Sublingual (SL)
B. Intravenous (IV)
C. Subcutaneous (SC)
D. Intramuscular (IM)

A

B. Intravenous (IV)

156
Q

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

A. Apply pressure to the brachial artery
B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist
C. Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen
D. Wrap the towel with pressure bandages

A

B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist

157
Q

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?

A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen
B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

A

C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

158
Q

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

A. In patients who are intubated
B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly
C. When you deliver minimal tidal volume
D. When the airway is completely obstructed

A

B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly

159
Q

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?

A. Orally
B. Inhaled
C. Injected
D. Sublingually

A

D. Sublingually

160
Q

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston device for chest compressions is:

A. The minimal training required to correctly operate the device
B. The elimination of rescue fatigue that results from manual compressions
C. The elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient
D. Its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size

A

B. The elimination of rescue fatigue that results from manual compressions

161
Q

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A. Disorder of glucose metabolism
B. Abnormally high blood glucose level
C. Mass of excretion of glucose by the kidneys
D. Lack of insulin production in the pancreas

A

A. Disorder of glucose metabolism

162
Q

Hemoptysis is defined as:

A. Vomiting blood
B. Coughing up blood
C. Abnormal blood clotting
D. Blood in the pleural space

A

B. Coughing up blood

163
Q

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?

A. Flail chest
B. Aortic rupture
C. Extremity fractures
D. Forehead lacerations

A

B. Aortic rupture

164
Q

The eyeball itself is referred to as the:

A. Orbit
B. Sclera
C. Globe
D. Cornea

A

C. Globe

165
Q

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?

A. Dismounted seats
B. Steering wheel collapse
C. Intrusion into the vehicle
D. Deployment of the airbag

A

D. Deployment of the airbag

166
Q

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious you should:

A. Assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate
B. Squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient
C. Attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient
D. Direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask

A

C. Attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient

167
Q

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

A

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

168
Q

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period if time so that:

A. Blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles
B. Blood returning the body can fill the atria
C. The impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers
D. The SA node can rest and generate another impulse

A

B. Blood returning the body can fill the atria

169
Q

When assessing a pediatric patient for capillary refill, how quickly should normal color return after you release?

A. Within 5 seconds
B. Within 3 seconds
C. Within 2 seconds
D. Within 4 seconds

A

C. Within 2 seconds

170
Q

The best way to listen for breath sounds in a pediatric patient is to listen:

A. On all lobes of the back
B. On both sides of the chest at the level of the armpit
C. On the front of the pts chest
D. On front and back of the pt

A

B. On both sides of the chest at the level of the armpit

171
Q

How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region of your spine?

A. 12
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4

A

C. 5

172
Q

Into what age range to toddlers and preschoolers fit?

A. 1-6 years
B. 2-8 years
C. 2-7 years
D. 0-5 years

A

A. 1-6 years

173
Q

The head accounts for approximately ____ of the neonate’s weight at birth.

A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%

A

C. 25%

174
Q

What is your adult dose of activated charcoal?

A. 50g PO
B. 50mg PO
C. 25-50mcg PO
D. 25g PO

A

A. 50g PO

175
Q

The leaf-shaped flap covers the larynx during swallowing then lifts open to allow for air passage during breathing.

A. Trachea
B. Epiglottis
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Cricoid cartilage

A

B. Epiglottis

176
Q

The grapelike structures in your lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged are known as:

A. Cricothyroid membrane
B. Alveoli
C. Epiglottis
D. Pleura

A

B. Alveoli

177
Q

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be most suspicious that this patient has experienced a:

A. Massive hemothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Pericardial tamponade
D. Laceration of the aorta

A

D. Laceration of the aorta

178
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the use of an AED in children is correct?

A. If the patient is less than 1 year of age, an AED is preferred over a manual defibrillator
B. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the case of their cardiac arrest
C. AEDs can be used safely on infants and children by using pediatric pads and an energy reducer
D. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation

A

C. AEDs can be used safely on infants and children by using pediatric pads and an energy reducer

179
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock?

A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation
B. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection
C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
D. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstruction

A

C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

180
Q

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. he is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:

A. Transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route
B. Consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack
C. Repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control
D. Request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away

A

C. Repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control

181
Q

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan) in a suspected narcotic overdose?

A. Slow respirations
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Extreme agitation

A

A. Slow respirations

182
Q

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when its:

A. is used to treat a multitude of conditions
B. May cause harm or has no positive effect
C. Produces actions other than the desired ones
D. Is used to treat a specific medical condition

A

B. May cause harm or has no positive effect

183
Q

Which of the following is an example of a trade (brand) name of a drug?

A. Tylenol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Furosemide
D. Nitroglycerine

A

A. Tylenol

184
Q

If your patient is alone and unresponsive, in order to obtain some form of medical hx, you should:

A. Survey the scene for medication containers or medical devices
B. Go through the patients wallet
C. Search through the patients bedroom drawers for hidden illegal drugs
D. Ask people in the neighborhood

A

A. Survey the scene for medication containers or medical devices

185
Q

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder

A

C. Pancreas

186
Q

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or “labeling” a patient who frequently calls EMS is:

A. Overlooking a potentially serious medical condition
B. Making the entire EMS system look unprofessional
C. Demeaning or humiliating the patient and his or her family
D. Discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future

A

A. Overlooking a potentially serious medical condition

187
Q

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mmHg, and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:

A. Acute hypoglycemia
B. A ruptured cerebral artery
C. A complex partial seizure
D. An occluded cerebral artery

A

B. A ruptured cerebral artery

188
Q

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:

A. Enters the systemic circulation
B. Flows into the pulmonary arteries
C. Has a high concentration of oxygen
D. Was received directly from the aorta

A

B. Flows into the pulmonary arteries

189
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct?

A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels
B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive
C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals
D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive

A

A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels

190
Q

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:

A. Back is bent forward at the hips
B. Hands are held close to the legs
C. Shoulder is aligned over the pelvis
D. Force is exerted straight down the spine

A

A. Back is bent forward at the hips

191
Q

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

A. Visualization of the vocal cords
B. Placement of the endotracheal tube
C. Suction under the direct laryngoscopy
D. Preoxygenation with BVM

A

D. Preoxygenation with BVM

192
Q

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should:

A. Avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously
B. Ensure that his or her head is in the hyperextended position
C. Avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected
D. Firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak

A

A. Avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously

193
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Muscle

A

D. Muscle

194
Q

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:

A. Kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over
B. Extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible
C. Bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power
D. Avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than 5 minutes

A

A. Kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over

195
Q

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:

A. The study of drugs that are produced illegally
B. The study of how medications affect the brain
C. The study of drugs and their actions on the body
D. The study of drug excretion from the human body

A

C. The study of drugs and their actions on the body

196
Q

Shock is the result of:

A. Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body
B. The body’s maintenance of homeostasis
C. Temporary dysfunction of a major organ
D. Widespread constriction of the blood vessels

A

A. Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

197
Q

After ____ minutes without oxygen, permanent brain damage is possible.

A. 1 to 2
B. 4 to 6
C. 6 to 10
D. 2 to 4

A

B. 4 to 6

emt final (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions