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Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following has been shown to prevent osteoarthritis formation in Labrador retrievers
1) Regular physical therapy
2) Fish oil administration
3) Adequan injections
4) Restricted feeding/maintaining an appropriate body condition

A

Restricted feeding/maintaining an appropriate body condition

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2
Q

Which of the following treatments is associated with the greatest risk of serious side
effects for the individual canine patient?
● Adequan
● NSAIDs
● UC-II
● Gabapentin

A

● NSAIDs

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of neutering a Golden Retriever at 5
months of age?
● Accelerated physeal closure
● Delayed physeal closure
● Increased likelihood of developing orthopedic disease
● Increased likelihood of developing cancer

A

● Accelerated physeal closure

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4
Q

You are treating an animal athlete competing at a high-level. What joint support product
would you recommend to best support your patient?
● Systemic hyaluronan (intravenous)
● PSGAGs (intramuscular)
● Amino Acids (oral)
● Glucosamine (oral)

A

● PSGAGs (intramuscular)

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5
Q

When choosing an oral joint supplement for an equine athlete, which is the most
important consideration?
● Cost per treatment
● Bioavailability of the target ingredient
● Number of key ingredients in the product
● Research studies specific to the ingredient

A

Bioavailability of the target ingredient

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6
Q

Why is fitness and strength important in the equine athlete?
● Most injuries occur when stabilizing muscles fatigue
● It means less work for the rider
● It aids in trainability of the horse
● It is a required step for weight management

A

Most injuries occur when stabilizing muscles fatigue

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7
Q

Which would be your first choice for the prevention of osteoarthritis in a 6 year old
jumper?
● Sports medicine boots
● Body condition score of 4/9
● Daily oral joint supplement
● Therapeutic shoeing

A

Daily oral joint supplement

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8
Q

What are the 4 core dog vaccines

A

1) Rabies
2) Canine distemper
3) Canine Parvovirus
4) Canine adenovirus-2

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9
Q

What are the core cat vaccines

A

1) Rabies
2) Feline panleukopenia virus
3) Feline herpesvirus-1
4) Calicivirus

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10
Q

T/F Rabies is a core vaccine for dogs and cats

A

T

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11
Q

T/F Canine distemper vaccine is a core vaccine

A

T

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12
Q

T/F Canine parvovirus is a core vaccine

A

T

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13
Q

T/F Canine adenovirus-2 is a core vaccine

A

T

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14
Q

T/F Bordetella bronchiseptica is a core vaccine for dogs

A

F

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15
Q

T/F Leptospira is a core vaccine for dogs

A

F

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16
Q

T/F Feline panleukopenia is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

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17
Q

T/F Feline herpesvirus-1 is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

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18
Q

T/F Calicivirus is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

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19
Q

T/F feline leukemia virus vaccine is a core vaccine for cats

A

F

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20
Q

How often should preventative physical exams in adult dogs/cats be performed?

A

every 6 to 12 months

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21
Q

How regularly should annual heartworm testing occur?

A

annually

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22
Q

How often should fecal exams by centrifugation occur?

A

-at least 4 times during first year of life and at least 2 times per year in adults

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23
Q

How regularly should puppies and kittens see the vet?

A

every 3-4 weeks of life

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24
Q

How often should you give antihelminthic treatment to puppies and kittens?

A

at 2 weeks of age and repeated every 2 weeks until a regular broad-spectrum parasite control begins

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25
Q

A cat over 10 years old, might need to go to the vet every

A

6 months

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26
Q

When does FeLV antigenemia typically occur

A

<30 days

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27
Q

When are FIV antibodies typically developed

A

<60 days

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28
Q

What should be discussed at a puppy visit?

A

-Encourage appropriate socialization based on the individual
-Discuss establishing a feeding schedule and watering habits
-Educate on sensitive periods
-Educate on selecting appropriate trainers
-Address desensitization/grooming need
-Discuss bite inhibition
-Evaluate breed and size for targeted nutrition
-Crate training
-Look for congenital disorders
-Microchip
Discuss future exams
-Housing
-Toxin exposure
-Bite education
-Heartworm prevention should be tested and started on prevention at 7 months and retested every 12 months

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29
Q

Which vaccines can you give to Juliet DSH SF (unknown vax history and 45 days
pregnant)

A

Just give Rabies (most are killed vaccines)
○ FVRCP is hard to find not modified live → if you can find it then give it

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30
Q

What age should you vaccinate newborn cats

A

6 weeks of age

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31
Q

What are the clinical signs of Strangles

A

Abrupt pyrexia followed by pharyngitis and subsequent abscess formation in the
submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
1st signs = fever w/ lethargy 2 - 14 days post exposure (not yet contagious)
■ Persistent fever (up to 107.6F) - may persist until l.n. Abscesses rupture
○ Pharyngitis → reluctant to eat/drink, abnormally hold head, +/- nasal discharge,
soft/mucoid cough, pain, stridor, gagging → pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia →
pharyngeal compression
○ Lymphadenopathy - submandibular, retropharyngeal ± parotid & cranial cervical
■ Warm, diffuse swelling → serum ooze from skin → Abscesses = thick
fibrous capsule → rupture 7d-4 wks post infection → drainage of thick
purulent discharge
○ Empyema of guttural pouch → oral/nasal discharge
○ Obstructure of URT

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32
Q

Do younger or older animals show more severe Strangles clinical signs

A

younger

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33
Q

The use of fecal egg counts for ascarids is characterized by which of the following?
○ High specificity for dz
○ Moderate sensitivity
○ No correlation between fecal egg counts and number of worms in intestine
○ All the above

A

All the above

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34
Q

During a Strangles outbreak, would you recommend vaccinating other horses on the
property with the modified live vaccine to stimulate IgA and protect other horses faster?
○ True
○ False

A

False

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35
Q

What is not considered a clinical presentation of EHV-1?
○ Peritonitis
○ Neuro Disease
○ Resp Disease
○ Neonatal Death

A

Peritonitis

36
Q

What is not considered a challenge in an overweight horse?
○ Insulin Dysregulation/Insulin Resistance

○ Laminitis

○ PPID/Cushing’s

○ Osteoarthritis

A

PPID/Cushing’s
■ Being overweight doesn’t make an animal a cushings case, many
cushings animals have insulin resistance that ends up leading to
weight gain

37
Q

Ascarid therapy and prevention is best accomplished with deworming foals regularly
(every 2 months) with anthelmintics
○ True
○ False

A

False

38
Q

4 clinical signs of EHV-1

A

1) Neuro Disease - Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)- Hind end weakness & incoordination, leaning against wall/fences for
balance, urine dribbling or inability to urinate, down & unable to stand
2) Resp. Disease
3) Neonatal Death
4) Abortions

39
Q

Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)

A

Hind end weakness & incoordination, leaning against wall/fences for
balance, urine dribbling or inability to urinate, down & unable to stand

40
Q

What is the primary cause of calf mortality after day 3 of age?

A

Infectious agents

41
Q

What are the two biggest factors affecting the mass of immunoglobulin consumed by the
calf during feeding?

A

Quality and volume of colostrum fed

42
Q

What effect does spaying/neutering have on physeal closure

A

it delays physeal closure

43
Q

What is the appropriate BCS for maintaining a dog?

A

BCS 5/9

44
Q

What is the first step in intervening osteoarthritis in a canine patient

A

Prevention: breeding, nutrition, and timing of sterilization

45
Q

Steps to prevent osteoarthritis in canines

A

1) Prevention: breeding, nutrition, timing of sterilization
2) Surgery if underlying disease (Treatable)
3) Weight loss/control and exercise modification = very important in prevention and treatments
4) Drugs- especially NSAIDs
5) Fish Oil
6-8) Dasuquin/Cosequin, PSGAGS, Rehab
9) Joint inkections (PRP, HA, TA)
10) Surgery (arthrodesis/scopic debridement)

45
Q

FeLV vaccination timing and doses

A

If they are less than 16 weeks or greater than 16 weeks,
2 doses 304 weeks apart
revaccinate every 12 months after
Core vaccine for any cat <1 due to susceptibility

45
Q

What is the biggest consideration of nutraceuticals?

A

Bioavailability

46
Q

What are the nutraceuticals thhat you should consider bioavailability?

A

Platinum performance
Cosequin ASU
SmartPak
4Cyte
EquiThrive

47
Q

Adequan (Polysulfated Glycosaminoglycans)

A

A systemic pharmaceutical used for subacute degenerative joint disease
Moderately effective
does not protect against proteoglycan loss
No effect on subchondral bone or bone biomarkers
Less joint circumference enlargement and lameness, and greater carpal flexion compared to control group

48
Q

What are the clinical signs of Strangles

A

-Abrupt pyrexia (first)
-pharyngitis and abscess on submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
-Empyema of guttural pouch- oral and nasal discharge
-Obstructure of the URT

49
Q

How long can horses shed strangles

A

Nasal shedding persists for 2–3 weeks in most animals. Horses may be
infectious for at least 6 weeks after their purulent discharges have dried up.
Persistent guttural pouch infection may result in intermittent shedding for years.

50
Q

What is consistent with the blood work of horse with strangles

A

1) Hyperfibrinogenemia
2) Leukocytosis with neutrophilia

51
Q

What is the optimal sample for confirmation of S. equi infection

A

a needle aspirate from an enlarged or abscessed lymph node
negative PCR does not signify absence of infection since not isolated in early stages of disease

52
Q

How can you prevent S. equi infections

A

Limiting exposure
Biosecurity measures include: quarantine and screening of all new arrivals, appropriate disinfection and cleaning of potentially contagious equipment, and education of caretakers on proper hygiene

New arrivals should be isolated for at least 3 weeks

Additional screening for subclinical carriers by guttural pouch endoscopy, culture and PCR testing should be part of any screening program

53
Q

How long should new horse arrivals be isolated

A

3 weeks

54
Q

Should you give antibiotics in horses with lymph node abscessation?

A

NO

55
Q

Horse Cushings

A

usually an old horse where they lose weight

56
Q

Equine metabolic syndrome

A

could just be overweight but once they have been overweight for a long time and it affects their metabolism they then get insulin resistance.
Goal is to reduce body weight to correct insulin resistance- limit overall calories, limit soluble carbs,

57
Q

How should you manage Cushings disease in horse

A

get them on a diet, have them lose some weight, limit their sugar/starch intake, control hay and pasture intake

If they don’t have insulin resistance: quality nutrient since they metabolism is slowly down, quality protein (due to muscle atrophy) and add calories with fat

Provide calories with fat and fiber, provide quality protein

Equine senior if their teeth are wearing away

58
Q

When is it recommended that you control recommendation for breeding farms?

A

60 to 90 days
based on the prepatent period of 70 days or longer
use benzimidazoles

59
Q

Why should you not use ivermectin in foals?

A

because of resistance

60
Q

What precautions should be taken with reptile quarantine?

A

Reptile from unknown source or wild caught = 90 days
Reptiles from known institutions with well documented health history and no concerns = 14 days

61
Q

What causes Equine Rhinopneumonitis

A

EHV 1 and 4

62
Q

Almost all horses greater than 2 have been exposed to:

A

EHV 1 and 4

63
Q

What are the four clinical presentations of EHV (Rhinopneumonitis)

A

1) Neurological disease
2) Respiratory disease
3) Neonatal death
4) Abortion

64
Q

How is EHV spread

A

direct horse to horse contact
or through fomites

65
Q

What are the clinical signs of EHV

A

1) fever (precedes other clinical signs)
2) Respiratory disease
3) Abortion
4) Neurologic disease like Myeloencephalopathy (hind end weakness and incoordination, leaning against wall), urine dribbling, down and unstable to stand

66
Q

How do you treat EHV

A

urinary catheter, abdominal slings, and anti-inflammatory, anti-virals (Valacyclovir, Ganciclovir)

67
Q

How do you diagnose EHV

A

1) Nasopharyngeal swab
2) Blood- purple top tube
send for PCR or virus isolation

68
Q

How do you prevent EHV cases

A

-Isolate new horses returning for 3-4 weeks
-Keep pregnant mares away from others
-Isolate affected horsrs and take biosecurity measures
Vaccination (Not core vaccine)

69
Q

Horse core vaccines

A

Tetanus
Rabies
West Nile
EEEV/WEEV

70
Q

T/F EHV is a core equine vaccine

A

F

71
Q

What is the best way to measure colostrum quality and what are the goals

A

Brix refractometer and samples should be greater than 22%

72
Q

How does the composition of colostrum compare to the composition of milk

A

Colostrum has higher total solids, fat, and protein percentage than milk

73
Q

Is low calf STP a disease?

A

No, it doesnt require treatment but it predisposes calf to later disease development
increases likelihood of poor performance

74
Q

What are the components of colostrum

A

IgG: 85-90%
IgA: 5%
IgM: 7%

75
Q

When should the first colostrum feeding happen?

A

Within 1-2 hours of birth

76
Q

What quantity of colostrum is needed to be fed?

A

1 gallon or 300 gm Ig in the first feeding

77
Q

Why is it helpful to categorize data concerning populations of animals within herds when
developing management procedures that prevent disease?

A

To characterize the at risk population and determine the cut offs from groupings

78
Q

How long should birds be quarantined for

A

45 days

79
Q

Is quarantine or isolation areas more important

A

Quarantine

80
Q

What are the human clinical signs of Chlaymdia psittaci

A

fever, headaches, chills, pneumonia, incubation period is 5 to 14 days
mild/no symptoms to fatal

81
Q

What are the clinical signs of birds with Chlamydia psittaci

A

poor appetite, riffled appearance, eye/nose discharge, diarrhea, occasionally death, some birth may shed without any signs of disease

82
Q

How is Chlamydia psittaci spread to humans

A

inhale dust from dried bird droppings and handling infected birds in slaughterhouse

83
Q

Can you eliminate Salmonella in intestine of reptiles

A

NO

84
Q
A

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