Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Prev Med > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following has been shown to prevent osteoarthritis formation in Labrador retrievers
1) Regular physical therapy
2) Fish oil administration
3) Adequan injections
4) Restricted feeding/maintaining an appropriate body condition

A

Restricted feeding/maintaining an appropriate body condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following treatments is associated with the greatest risk of serious side
effects for the individual canine patient?
● Adequan
● NSAIDs
● UC-II
● Gabapentin

A

● NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of neutering a Golden Retriever at 5
months of age?
● Accelerated physeal closure
● Delayed physeal closure
● Increased likelihood of developing orthopedic disease
● Increased likelihood of developing cancer

A

● Accelerated physeal closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You are treating an animal athlete competing at a high-level. What joint support product
would you recommend to best support your patient?
● Systemic hyaluronan (intravenous)
● PSGAGs (intramuscular)
● Amino Acids (oral)
● Glucosamine (oral)

A

● PSGAGs (intramuscular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When choosing an oral joint supplement for an equine athlete, which is the most
important consideration?
● Cost per treatment
● Bioavailability of the target ingredient
● Number of key ingredients in the product
● Research studies specific to the ingredient

A

Bioavailability of the target ingredient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is fitness and strength important in the equine athlete?
● Most injuries occur when stabilizing muscles fatigue
● It means less work for the rider
● It aids in trainability of the horse
● It is a required step for weight management

A

Most injuries occur when stabilizing muscles fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which would be your first choice for the prevention of osteoarthritis in a 6 year old
jumper?
● Sports medicine boots
● Body condition score of 4/9
● Daily oral joint supplement
● Therapeutic shoeing

A

Daily oral joint supplement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 core dog vaccines

A

1) Rabies
2) Canine distemper
3) Canine Parvovirus
4) Canine adenovirus-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the core cat vaccines

A

1) Rabies
2) Feline panleukopenia virus
3) Feline herpesvirus-1
4) Calicivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F Rabies is a core vaccine for dogs and cats

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F Canine distemper vaccine is a core vaccine

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F Canine parvovirus is a core vaccine

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F Canine adenovirus-2 is a core vaccine

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F Bordetella bronchiseptica is a core vaccine for dogs

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F Leptospira is a core vaccine for dogs

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F Feline panleukopenia is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F Feline herpesvirus-1 is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F Calicivirus is a core vaccine for cats

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F feline leukemia virus vaccine is a core vaccine for cats

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How often should preventative physical exams in adult dogs/cats be performed?

A

every 6 to 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How regularly should annual heartworm testing occur?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How often should fecal exams by centrifugation occur?

A

-at least 4 times during first year of life and at least 2 times per year in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How regularly should puppies and kittens see the vet?

A

every 3-4 weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How often should you give antihelminthic treatment to puppies and kittens?

A

at 2 weeks of age and repeated every 2 weeks until a regular broad-spectrum parasite control begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A cat over 10 years old, might need to go to the vet every
6 months
26
When does FeLV antigenemia typically occur
<30 days
27
When are FIV antibodies typically developed
<60 days
28
What should be discussed at a puppy visit?
-Encourage appropriate socialization based on the individual -Discuss establishing a feeding schedule and watering habits -Educate on sensitive periods -Educate on selecting appropriate trainers -Address desensitization/grooming need -Discuss bite inhibition -Evaluate breed and size for targeted nutrition -Crate training -Look for congenital disorders -Microchip Discuss future exams -Housing -Toxin exposure -Bite education -Heartworm prevention should be tested and started on prevention at 7 months and retested every 12 months
29
Which vaccines can you give to Juliet DSH SF (unknown vax history and 45 days pregnant)
Just give Rabies (most are killed vaccines) ○ FVRCP is hard to find not modified live → if you can find it then give it
30
What age should you vaccinate newborn cats
6 weeks of age
31
What are the clinical signs of Strangles
Abrupt pyrexia followed by pharyngitis and subsequent abscess formation in the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes 1st signs = fever w/ lethargy 2 - 14 days post exposure (not yet contagious) ■ Persistent fever (up to 107.6F) - may persist until l.n. Abscesses rupture ○ Pharyngitis → reluctant to eat/drink, abnormally hold head, +/- nasal discharge, soft/mucoid cough, pain, stridor, gagging → pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia → pharyngeal compression ○ Lymphadenopathy - submandibular, retropharyngeal ± parotid & cranial cervical ■ Warm, diffuse swelling → serum ooze from skin → Abscesses = thick fibrous capsule → rupture 7d-4 wks post infection → drainage of thick purulent discharge ○ Empyema of guttural pouch → oral/nasal discharge ○ Obstructure of URT
32
Do younger or older animals show more severe Strangles clinical signs
younger
33
The use of fecal egg counts for ascarids is characterized by which of the following? ○ High specificity for dz ○ Moderate sensitivity ○ No correlation between fecal egg counts and number of worms in intestine ○ All the above
All the above
34
During a Strangles outbreak, would you recommend vaccinating other horses on the property with the modified live vaccine to stimulate IgA and protect other horses faster? ○ True ○ False
False
35
What is not considered a clinical presentation of EHV-1? ○ Peritonitis ○ Neuro Disease ○ Resp Disease ○ Neonatal Death
Peritonitis
36
What is not considered a challenge in an overweight horse? ○ Insulin Dysregulation/Insulin Resistance ○ Laminitis ○ PPID/Cushing's ○ Osteoarthritis
PPID/Cushing's ■ Being overweight doesn't make an animal a cushings case, many cushings animals have insulin resistance that ends up leading to weight gain
37
Ascarid therapy and prevention is best accomplished with deworming foals regularly (every 2 months) with anthelmintics ○ True ○ False
False
38
4 clinical signs of EHV-1
1) Neuro Disease - Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)- Hind end weakness & incoordination, leaning against wall/fences for balance, urine dribbling or inability to urinate, down & unable to stand 2) Resp. Disease 3) Neonatal Death 4) Abortions
39
Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)
Hind end weakness & incoordination, leaning against wall/fences for balance, urine dribbling or inability to urinate, down & unable to stand
40
What is the primary cause of calf mortality after day 3 of age?
Infectious agents
41
What are the two biggest factors affecting the mass of immunoglobulin consumed by the calf during feeding?
Quality and volume of colostrum fed
42
What effect does spaying/neutering have on physeal closure
it delays physeal closure
43
What is the appropriate BCS for maintaining a dog?
BCS 5/9
44
What is the first step in intervening osteoarthritis in a canine patient
Prevention: breeding, nutrition, and timing of sterilization
45
Steps to prevent osteoarthritis in canines
1) Prevention: breeding, nutrition, timing of sterilization 2) Surgery if underlying disease (Treatable) 3) Weight loss/control and exercise modification = very important in prevention and treatments 4) Drugs- especially NSAIDs 5) Fish Oil 6-8) Dasuquin/Cosequin, PSGAGS, Rehab 9) Joint inkections (PRP, HA, TA) 10) Surgery (arthrodesis/scopic debridement)
45
FeLV vaccination timing and doses
If they are less than 16 weeks or greater than 16 weeks, 2 doses 304 weeks apart revaccinate every 12 months after Core vaccine for any cat <1 due to susceptibility
45
What is the biggest consideration of nutraceuticals?
Bioavailability
46
What are the nutraceuticals thhat you should consider bioavailability?
Platinum performance Cosequin ASU SmartPak 4Cyte EquiThrive
47
Adequan (Polysulfated Glycosaminoglycans)
A systemic pharmaceutical used for subacute degenerative joint disease Moderately effective does not protect against proteoglycan loss No effect on subchondral bone or bone biomarkers Less joint circumference enlargement and lameness, and greater carpal flexion compared to control group
48
What are the clinical signs of Strangles
-Abrupt pyrexia (first) -pharyngitis and abscess on submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes -Empyema of guttural pouch- oral and nasal discharge -Obstructure of the URT
49
How long can horses shed strangles
Nasal shedding persists for 2–3 weeks in most animals. Horses may be infectious for at least 6 weeks after their purulent discharges have dried up. Persistent guttural pouch infection may result in intermittent shedding for years.
50
What is consistent with the blood work of horse with strangles
1) Hyperfibrinogenemia 2) Leukocytosis with neutrophilia
51
What is the optimal sample for confirmation of S. equi infection
a needle aspirate from an enlarged or abscessed lymph node negative PCR does not signify absence of infection since not isolated in early stages of disease
52
How can you prevent S. equi infections
Limiting exposure Biosecurity measures include: quarantine and screening of all new arrivals, appropriate disinfection and cleaning of potentially contagious equipment, and education of caretakers on proper hygiene New arrivals should be isolated for at least 3 weeks Additional screening for subclinical carriers by guttural pouch endoscopy, culture and PCR testing should be part of any screening program
53
How long should new horse arrivals be isolated
3 weeks
54
Should you give antibiotics in horses with lymph node abscessation?
NO
55
Horse Cushings
usually an old horse where they lose weight
56
Equine metabolic syndrome
could just be overweight but once they have been overweight for a long time and it affects their metabolism they then get insulin resistance. Goal is to reduce body weight to correct insulin resistance- limit overall calories, limit soluble carbs,
57
How should you manage Cushings disease in horse
get them on a diet, have them lose some weight, limit their sugar/starch intake, control hay and pasture intake If they don’t have insulin resistance: quality nutrient since they metabolism is slowly down, quality protein (due to muscle atrophy) and add calories with fat Provide calories with fat and fiber, provide quality protein Equine senior if their teeth are wearing away
58
When is it recommended that you control recommendation for breeding farms?
60 to 90 days based on the prepatent period of 70 days or longer use benzimidazoles
59
Why should you not use ivermectin in foals?
because of resistance
60
What precautions should be taken with reptile quarantine?
Reptile from unknown source or wild caught = 90 days Reptiles from known institutions with well documented health history and no concerns = 14 days
61
What causes Equine Rhinopneumonitis
EHV 1 and 4
62
Almost all horses greater than 2 have been exposed to:
EHV 1 and 4
63
What are the four clinical presentations of EHV (Rhinopneumonitis)
1) Neurological disease 2) Respiratory disease 3) Neonatal death 4) Abortion
64
How is EHV spread
direct horse to horse contact or through fomites
65
What are the clinical signs of EHV
1) fever (precedes other clinical signs) 2) Respiratory disease 3) Abortion 4) Neurologic disease like Myeloencephalopathy (hind end weakness and incoordination, leaning against wall), urine dribbling, down and unstable to stand
66
How do you treat EHV
urinary catheter, abdominal slings, and anti-inflammatory, anti-virals (Valacyclovir, Ganciclovir)
67
How do you diagnose EHV
1) Nasopharyngeal swab 2) Blood- purple top tube send for PCR or virus isolation
68
How do you prevent EHV cases
-Isolate new horses returning for 3-4 weeks -Keep pregnant mares away from others -Isolate affected horsrs and take biosecurity measures Vaccination (Not core vaccine)
69
Horse core vaccines
Tetanus Rabies West Nile EEEV/WEEV
70
T/F EHV is a core equine vaccine
F
71
What is the best way to measure colostrum quality and what are the goals
Brix refractometer and samples should be greater than 22%
72
How does the composition of colostrum compare to the composition of milk
Colostrum has higher total solids, fat, and protein percentage than milk
73
Is low calf STP a disease?
No, it doesnt require treatment but it predisposes calf to later disease development increases likelihood of poor performance
74
What are the components of colostrum
IgG: 85-90% IgA: 5% IgM: 7%
75
When should the first colostrum feeding happen?
Within 1-2 hours of birth
76
What quantity of colostrum is needed to be fed?
1 gallon or 300 gm Ig in the first feeding
77
Why is it helpful to categorize data concerning populations of animals within herds when developing management procedures that prevent disease?
To characterize the at risk population and determine the cut offs from groupings
78
How long should birds be quarantined for
45 days
79
Is quarantine or isolation areas more important
Quarantine
80
What are the human clinical signs of Chlaymdia psittaci
fever, headaches, chills, pneumonia, incubation period is 5 to 14 days mild/no symptoms to fatal
81
What are the clinical signs of birds with Chlamydia psittaci
poor appetite, riffled appearance, eye/nose discharge, diarrhea, occasionally death, some birth may shed without any signs of disease
82
How is Chlamydia psittaci spread to humans
inhale dust from dried bird droppings and handling infected birds in slaughterhouse
83
Can you eliminate Salmonella in intestine of reptiles
NO
84

Prev Med (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions