Final Flashcards

1
Q

process requiring energy

A

active transport

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2
Q

tranport across a cell membrane by a carrier

A

facilitated diffusion

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3
Q

ADME characteristics, or how th ebody affects the xenobiotic

A

toxicokinetics

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4
Q

reaction with the toxicological receptor, or how the xenobiotic affects the body

A

toxicodynamic

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5
Q

Reduces the bioavailability of a xenobiotic

A

first pass effect

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6
Q

The process in which compounds are modified into metabolited that are more toxic than the parent compound is called ___

A

bioactivation, toxification, metabolic activaiton

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7
Q

The most important enzyme for the phase I biotransformation reaction is ___

A

CYP450

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8
Q

___ is a genetically-determined response to a toxicant that doesn’t follow a dose response relationship and doesn’t require prior sensitization

A

idosyncrasy

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9
Q

the ___ fraction of the toxicant exerts toxicity

A

unbound, free

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10
Q

The process of carcinogenesis requires often more than one mutation and is therefore considered a ___ process

A

multistep

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11
Q

the process of carcinogenesis requires activation of ___ and inactivation of ___ genes

A

proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes

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12
Q

the four stage in the process of carcinogenesis are:

A

initiation, promotion, progression, metastasis

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13
Q

The ___ trimester is the most sensitive period of fetal development, and the fetus is most susceptible to toxicants during this time

A

first

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14
Q

___ is an OSHA regulated male reproductive toxicant that causes oligospermia

A

DBCP

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15
Q

Both the ___ and ___ of exposure to a reproductive toxicant affects the toxic response

A

dose, timing

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16
Q

All of the following are mechanisms for toxicity to the red blood cell except: (decreased RBC survival, changes in RBC function, Decreased RBC production, Increased RBC production

A

increased RBC production

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17
Q

Mechanism of action for lead

A

Decreased RBC production leading to sideroblastic anemia

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18
Q

Mechanism of action for arsine gas

A

decreased RBC survival due to hemolysis

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19
Q

Mechanism of action for trinitrotoluene

A

Decreased RBC production due to aplastic anemia AND/OR oxidative hemolysis

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20
Q

Mechanism of neurotoxicity:

A

neuronopathy, axonopathy, myelinopathy, transmission toxicity,

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21
Q

For gases, ___ best predicts the region of the respiratory system affected

A

water solubility

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22
Q

for particulate, ___ is the best predictor for respiratory region affected

A

size

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23
Q

The stratum corneum is the primary barrier to skin absorption. what is the proper order of permeability from Least to MOST permeable

A

soles, palms, scrotum, forehead, abdomen

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24
Q

Characteristics of Zone 3 of the liver acinus that makes it more susceptible to chemical injury than zone 1 and 2 include what?

A

oxygen-depleted blood supply, more cytochrome P450 enzymes, least glutathione

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25
Q

What are the two primary reasons why the live is a target for chemical-induced injury?

A

the liver is the primary site for biotransformation in the body
Location means the liver makes first contact with ingested substances

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26
Q

What part of the kidney is most susceptible to toxic injury?

A

proximal tubules

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27
Q

Why is the kidney sensitive to nephrotoxins?

A

-Large blood flow delivers xenobiotic to the kidney
-Xenobiotic transporters move xenobiotics into the kidney, particularly in the proximal tubules
-Metabolizing enzymes bioactivate xenobiotics
-Solutes, including toxic agents, are concentrated during urine production

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28
Q

What is the unique effect of methylene chloride/dichloromethane

A

metabolized to carbon monoxide

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29
Q

what is the unique effect of carbon tetrachloride

A

Zone 3 hepatic necrosis

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30
Q

What is the unique effect of trichloroethylene

A

Degreaser’s Flush

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31
Q

What is the pesticide class that is responsible for most reported poisonings, including both occupational and non-occupational poisonings

A

pyrethrin and pyrethroid insecticides

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32
Q

___ cholinesterase is relatively stable over time within the same individual, and therefore is used for baseline determinations in occupational biomonitoring for cholinesterase inhibitors. ___ cholinesterase is more labile and is used to monitor recovery from a cholinesterase inhibitor exposure

A

RBC (erythrocyte)
Plasma

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33
Q

Solvents:

A

n-hexane, methyl n-butyl ketone, general effect of all solvents, trichloroethylene, ethylbenzene

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34
Q

Neurologic effect with chronic exposure to n-hexane

A

peripheral neuropathy

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35
Q

neurological effect with chronic exposure to methyl n-butyl ketone

A

peripheral neuropathy

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36
Q

general effect of all solvents

A

Chronic encephalopathy

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37
Q

neurologic effect with chronic exposure to trichloroethylene

A

cranial neuropathy (especially trigeminal)

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38
Q

neurologic effect with chronic exposure to ethylbenzene

A

hearing loss

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39
Q

___ and ___ are toxic gases formed from metals than can cause massive intravascular hemolysis

A

arsine, stibine

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40
Q

Silver exposure related disease

A

argyria

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41
Q

Cadmium exposure related disease

A

Itai-itai disease/pathologic fractures

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41
Q

Tin exposure related disease

A

stannosis (benign pneumoconiosis

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41
Q

Arsenic exposure related disease

A

acrocyanosis or blackfoot disease

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42
Q

Nickel exposure related disease

A

allergic contact dermatitis

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42
Q

Lead exposure related disease

A

wrist drop

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42
Q

___ radiation has sufficient energy to eject one or more electrons from an atom or molecule. ___ radiation has enough energy to make atoms in a molecule vibrate, but not enough to remove electrons

A

ionizing, non-ionizing

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43
Q

What does Roentgen measure?

A

exposure

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44
Q

What does radiation absorbed dose (rad) measure

A

absorbed dose

45
Q

what does gray measure (Gy)

A

absorbed dose

46
Q

what does Sievert (Sv) measure

A

dose equivalent dose and effective dose

47
Q

what does rem measure

A

dose equivalent dose and effective dose

48
Q

what does Curie measure

A

activity

49
Q

what does becquerel measure

A

activity

50
Q

What class of lasers require medical monitoring?

A

class 3B
class 4

51
Q

Biomonitoring metabolite of benzene

A

phenol

52
Q

biomonitoring metabolite of toluene

A

hippuric acid

53
Q

biomonitoring metabolite of styrene

A

mandelic acid

54
Q

Simple asphxiants

A

carbon dioxide, methane, argon, nitrogen

55
Q

chemical asphyxiants

A

carbon monoxide, phosphine, cyanide, hydrogen sulfide

56
Q

What is absorbed dose a function of?

A

Frequency, Intensity, and Duration of and exposure
No exposure means no dose
No dose means no effect

57
Q

What must be present for a dose to be received?

A

plausible route of exposure

58
Q

Does proximity to a chemical mean exposure?

A

No, a confirmed/plausible route of internalization must be present

59
Q

Toxicokinetics?

A

Study of the effect of the body on the substance (ADME, studies the changes over time)

60
Q

What is a TD50? LD50? ED50?

A
61
Q

What is a NOAEL? LOAEL?

A
62
Q

What is a deterministic response vs. a stochastic response?

A
63
Q

What factors make a xenobiotic more likely to cross membranes?

A
64
Q

What is an elimination half-life?

A
65
Q

What happens to elimination half-life with repeated over-exposure?

A
66
Q

Which xenobiotic is more potent

A
67
Q

Name the phase II reactions? Which do not result in a significant increase in hydrophilicity?

A
68
Q

True or False. Hepatic metabolism makes xenobiotics less toxic. Explain yourself

A
69
Q

Describe the “linear no-threshold” concept for carcinogens

A
70
Q

Name the traditional phases of carcinogenesis. Which are reversible?

A
71
Q

What is IARC

A
72
Q

When do pregnant persons become aware they are pregnant?

A

5-6 weeks gestational age

73
Q

When would a chemical hazard be most likely to produce significant harm to fetal development?

A

3-8 weeks gestational age

74
Q

When would be the best time to inform a worker of reproductive hazards in their workplace?

A
75
Q

Is an employer required to protect/employ pregnant (or potentially pregnant) workers in a manner different than they would an employer that cannot become pregnant?

A
76
Q

the four agent that OSHA has directed as a reproductive hazard

A

ethylene oxide, lead, dibromochloropropane (DBCP), ionizing radiation

77
Q

What is the difference between a reproductive and developmental hazard?

A
78
Q

Describe the clinical effects on offspring associated with thalidomide use

A
79
Q

name two historical compounds associated with decreased sperm counts

A
80
Q

when should a worker be informed of reproductive or developmental hazards in their workplace? why?

A
81
Q

When giving someone nitrostat, why must you maintain a nitrite free interval of 8-10 hours everyday?

A
82
Q

A farmer develops respiratory distress one day after inspecting green grain in a silo. What is the toxicant?

A
83
Q

Among nitroglycerin (NTG) workers, what is “Monday morning headache”?

A
84
Q

Why do we check G6PD status on active duty personnel?

A
85
Q

why would an infant given well water turn blue

A
86
Q

what toxicants are associated with bladder cancer

A
87
Q

Describe the pathophysiology mechanism of methemoglobinemia

A
88
Q

excessive use of nitrous oxide places the user at risk of what conditions

A
89
Q

What condition may result in greater susceptibility to bladder cancer due to aromatic amine exposure

A
90
Q

A farmer develops respiratory distress one day after inspecting green grain in a silo. What is the toxicant and what delayed condition are they at risk for?

A
91
Q

Among nitroglycerin (NTG) workers, why would heart attacks happen on Sunday afternoon?

A
92
Q

Name the mechanisms through which halogenated hydrocarbons can be lethal

A
93
Q

What toxicants were in agent orange

A

2,4-D
2,4,5 TCP
Uncouplers I think

94
Q

Name two former uses of carbon tetrachloride

A

Dry fluid, fire extinguisher

95
Q

Describe the unique toxicities of trichloroethylene

A
96
Q

Describe the unique toxicities of methylene chloride

A
97
Q

describe the unique toxicities of vinyl chloride

A
98
Q

What are the common clinical effects of chlorinated hydrocarbons

A

What toxicant(s) were in Agent Orange

99
Q

Describe the toxicities of carbon tetrachloride

A
100
Q

What causes Degreaser’s Flush

A
101
Q

Toxicants associated with hepatic angiosarcoma

A
102
Q

Describe the cardiotoxicity of halogenated hydrocarbons

A

sensitization to catecholamines

103
Q

Describe the cholinergic toxidrome

A
104
Q

describe concerns about use of DDT

A
105
Q

what’s the most likely clinical effect of a pyrethrin

A
106
Q

what class of insecticides are you most likely to encounter in residential/commercial areas?

A
107
Q

Describe monitoring for organophsosphates

A
108
Q

What cancer(s) are associated with benzene

A
109
Q

Name two unique toxicities of toluene

A
110
Q

Describe n-hexane neuropathy

A
111
Q

Describe effects of simultaneous ingestion of ethanol and methanol

A
112
Q

Describe systemic effects of phenol

A
113
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin

A
114
Q

Describe the mechanism of action and clinical effects of tetrodotoxin

A
115
Q
A