Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

bio 215 > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

Define Naturally acquired immunity

A

is gained through normal events such as illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Artificially acquired immunity

A

is gained through immunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Active immunity

A

results from exposure to antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

passive immunity

A

results from addiction of others antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where is natural immunity found

A

during pregnancy, mother IgG antibodies cross the placenta, breast milk contains secretory IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

injection of —– containing antibodies

A

antiserum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is antitoxin

A

is antiserum that protects against a toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hyperimmune globulin

A

antibodies to specific disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define immune globulin

A

IgG Fraction from many donors; variety of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define vaccine

A

IS prepared of pathogens or its products used to induce active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is herd immunity

A

develops when a critical portion of the population is immune to disease infectious agents unable to spread due to insufficient susceptible host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Attenuated vaccine

A

weakened form of pathogens, stronger immune response but may cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

inactivated vaccine

A

weaker immune response but cannot cause infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

advantages of attenuated vaccine

A

single dose usually induces long-lasting immunity due to microbe multiplying in body

can inadvertently immunize other by spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the disadvantage of the attenuated vaccine

A

can sometimes cause disease in immunosuppressed individuals

can occasionally every or mutant become pathogenic

generally not recommended for pregnant women

usually need to refrigeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

advantage of an inactive vaccine

A

cannot use infections or revert to pathogenic forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the disadvantage of inactivated vaccine

A

no replication, so no amplification, several booster doses are usually needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is adjuvant

A

a substance that enhances immune response to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are toxoid vaccines

A

toxins treated to destroy toxic part, retain antigenic epitopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are subunit vaccines

A

consists of key proteins antigens or antigenic fragments from pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does an inactivated whole-agent vaccine contain

A

contains killed microorganisms or inactivated viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is VLP vaccines

A

(Virus-like particles) empty capsids produced by genetically engineered organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is not effective in young children

A

independent antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

conjugated vaccines-

A

polysaccharides linked to protines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how do inactivated vaccines work
convert polysaccharides into T-dependant antigens
26
Nucleic acid-based vaccines
promising research underway
27
define epidemiology
is study of distribution and causes of disease in populations
28
what is communicable diseases
(contagious) transmitted from one host to another, such as measles cold an influenza, transmission may be direct or indirect
29
Non-communicable diseases
do not spread from host to host
30
What are attack rate
is percent of people who became ill in population after exposure to infectious agent
31
define incidence
is number of new cases/time/population
32
define prevalence
is the total number of cases at any time or for a specific period in a given population
33
define morbidity
is incidence of disease in a population
34
what is mortality
is the overall death in population
35
what is the case-fatality rate
is percentage of population that dies from a specific disease
36
what is an endemic disease
constantly present in population
37
what is sporadic
a few cases from time to time
38
define epidemic
an unusually large number of cases
39
what is an outbreak
is a group of cases at specific time an depopulation
40
a pandemic is...
global
41
what is the chain of infection
1. reservoir of infectious agent 2. portal of exit 3. transmission 4. portal of entry 5. susceptible host
42
which of the following methods of disease transmission is the most difficult to control
Airborne
43
virulence
ability to cause disease
44
likely environments
temperature water and nutrient supply radiation availability of light and O2
45
what does CDC mean
Centers for disease control and Prevention
46
who is paul ehrlich
a german physician and a bacteriologist searched for the magic bullet
47
what is chemotherapeutics
chemicals used to treat diseases
48
who is alexander fleming
discovered penicillin in 1928
49
most antibiotics come from microorganisms that normally live in the soil including
streptomyces and bacillus and penicillium and cephalosporin
50
what is bacteriostatic
chemical inhibit bacterial growth
51
-cidal
killing
52
what is synergistic
combinations where one medication is enhanced
53
bacterial cell walls are unique and contain
peptidoglycan
54
What is Penicillin binding
PBPs catalyze the formation of peptide bridges between adjacent glycan strands disrupt cell wall synthesis
55
What is Penicillin binding
PBPs catalyze the formation of peptide bridges between adjacent glycan strands disrupt cell wall synthesis
56
whats is augmentin
contains amoxicillin - and clavulanic acid a Beta-lactamase inhibitor
57
what are the three inhibit protein synthesis
aminoglycosides, tetracyclines and macrolides
57
what are the three inhibit protein synthesis
aminoglycosides, tetracyclines and macrolides
58
whats does aminoglycosides bind to
irreversibly bind to 30S
59
what does tetracyclin bind to
reversibly bind 30s
60
what does macrolides bind to
reversibly binds to 50s
61
whats is rifamycins
block prokaryotic RNA polymerase effective against many gram+ and some gram -
62
trimethoprim inhibits-------
enzyme in later steps
63
first line antibiotics are given as----
combination therapy
64
the size of the zone of inhibition determines---
Whether strain is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant
65
whats is the most common strain of penicillium
Penicillium chrysogenum
66
what is the most common Ig antigen
IgG
67
whats is multidrug-resistant M. tuberculosis
resist 2 favored first-line antibiotics
68
how are the infections divided up
upper respiratory system and lower respiratory system
69
what is pneumonia
lower respiratory tract, alveoli fill with fluids like pus and blood, inflammatory response to microbial infection, the leading cause of death due to infectious disease in the U.S
70
pneumococcal pneumonia
accounts for approximately 60% of adult community-acquired pneumonia
71
what caused pneumococcal pneumonia
streptococcus pneumonia -gram-positive
72
what is Klebsiella pneumonia?
caused by Klebsiella pneumonia gram-negative incubation 1- 3 days
73
Mycoplasmal pneumonia
known as walking pneumonia caused by mycoplasma pneumonia incubation 2 to 3 weeks
74
influenza
Known as the flu caused by orthomyxoviridae
75
what is the most common HIV
HIV 1
76
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
caused by staphylococcus aureus found in newborns
77
Varicella (chickenpox)
caused by varicella-zoster of herpesviral enveloped double-strand DNA virus incubation 10 to 21 days
78
Rubeola (measles)
caused by paramyxoviridae enveloped single strand RNA incubation 10 to 12 days
79
normal flora
mainly found in the oral cavity and intestines esophagus have very little flora
80
Dental caries (tooth decay)
caused by streptococcus mutans short generally 12 to 48 hours incubation period
81
Cholera
caused by vibrio cholera incubation period of 12 to 48 hours
82
HEP A
caused by non-enveloped, single-stranded RNA picornavirus, HAV incubation 3 to 5 weeks
83
HEP B
caused by enveloped double-stranded DNA hepadnavirus, HBV incubation 10 to 15 weeks
84
HEP C
Enveloped single-stranded RNA flavivirus HCV incubation 6 to 7 weeks
85
HEP D
caused by defective single-stranded RNA virus HDV incubation 2 to 12 weeks
86
HEP E
Non-enveloped single-stranded RNA calicivirus HEV incubation 2 to 6 weeks
87
-emia
the substance is circulating conditions are named after infectious agents
88
what is involved in the cardiovascular system
heart blood vessels blood
89
lymphatic system
lymph, lymph vessels, lymph nodes, lymphoid, tonsils appendix, and spleen
90
Infective endocarditis (IE)
causes by normal microbiota of mouth or skin such as staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus epidermis, enterococci, streptococcus species and etc
91
plague (Black Death)
caused by Yersinia pestis spread through fleas incubation 30 to 60 days
92
cytotoxic T cells kill...
productively infected B cells that display viral antigens
93
mono
Caused by epstein barr Virus incubation 1 to 2 months
94
pneumococcal meningitis
caused by streptococcus pneumonia gram-positive
95
Botulism
caused by Clostridium botulinum A-B Toxins- b binds to the receptors on the motor nerve endings
96
Rabies
Tingling or twitching around the entry site Lyssaviruses
97
UTI
Urinary tract infections most frequent healthcare-associated infections
98
Urinary system
kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra
99
HIV structure
enveloped virus; two copies of single-stranded RNA surrounded by protine capsid
100
the three HIV protines
Reverse transcriptase (RT) Protease (PR) Integrase (IN)
101
HIV disease attachment and entry...
attaches to CD4+ cells
102
chlamydial infection
caused by chlamydia trachomatis gram-negative infections form- elementary body
103
interacts with glycogen inclusions inside endocytic vesicle enlarges, become noninfectious....
reticulate body
104
Bacterial Cystitis (Bladder infection)
caused by klebsiella, proteus and staphylococcus saprophytic

bio 215 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions