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final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define Naturally acquired immunity

A

is gained through normal events such as illness

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2
Q

Define Artificially acquired immunity

A

is gained through immunization

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3
Q

Active immunity

A

results from exposure to antigen

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4
Q

passive immunity

A

results from addiction of others antibodies

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5
Q

where is natural immunity found

A

during pregnancy, mother IgG antibodies cross the placenta, breast milk contains secretory IgA

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6
Q

injection of —– containing antibodies

A

antiserum

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7
Q

what is antitoxin

A

is antiserum that protects against a toxin

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8
Q

Hyperimmune globulin

A

antibodies to specific disease

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9
Q

define immune globulin

A

IgG Fraction from many donors; variety of antibodies

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10
Q

define vaccine

A

IS prepared of pathogens or its products used to induce active immunity

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11
Q

what is herd immunity

A

develops when a critical portion of the population is immune to disease infectious agents unable to spread due to insufficient susceptible host

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12
Q

Attenuated vaccine

A

weakened form of pathogens, stronger immune response but may cause disease

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13
Q

inactivated vaccine

A

weaker immune response but cannot cause infections

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14
Q

advantages of attenuated vaccine

A

single dose usually induces long-lasting immunity due to microbe multiplying in body

can inadvertently immunize other by spreading

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15
Q

the disadvantage of the attenuated vaccine

A

can sometimes cause disease in immunosuppressed individuals

can occasionally every or mutant become pathogenic

generally not recommended for pregnant women

usually need to refrigeration

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16
Q

advantage of an inactive vaccine

A

cannot use infections or revert to pathogenic forms

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17
Q

the disadvantage of inactivated vaccine

A

no replication, so no amplification, several booster doses are usually needed

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18
Q

What is adjuvant

A

a substance that enhances immune response to antigens

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19
Q

what are toxoid vaccines

A

toxins treated to destroy toxic part, retain antigenic epitopes

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20
Q

what are subunit vaccines

A

consists of key proteins antigens or antigenic fragments from pathogens

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21
Q

what does an inactivated whole-agent vaccine contain

A

contains killed microorganisms or inactivated viruses

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22
Q

what is VLP vaccines

A

(Virus-like particles) empty capsids produced by genetically engineered organisms

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23
Q

what is not effective in young children

A

independent antigens

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24
Q

conjugated vaccines-

A

polysaccharides linked to protines

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25
Q

how do inactivated vaccines work

A

convert polysaccharides into T-dependant antigens

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26
Q

Nucleic acid-based vaccines

A

promising research underway

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27
Q

define epidemiology

A

is study of distribution and causes of disease in populations

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28
Q

what is communicable diseases

A

(contagious) transmitted from one host to another, such as measles cold an influenza, transmission may be direct or indirect

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29
Q

Non-communicable diseases

A

do not spread from host to host

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30
Q

What are attack rate

A

is percent of people who became ill in population after exposure to infectious agent

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31
Q

define incidence

A

is number of new cases/time/population

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32
Q

define prevalence

A

is the total number of cases at any time or for a specific period in a given population

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33
Q

define morbidity

A

is incidence of disease in a population

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34
Q

what is mortality

A

is the overall death in population

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35
Q

what is the case-fatality rate

A

is percentage of population that dies from a specific disease

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36
Q

what is an endemic disease

A

constantly present in population

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37
Q

what is sporadic

A

a few cases from time to time

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38
Q

define epidemic

A

an unusually large number of cases

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39
Q

what is an outbreak

A

is a group of cases at specific time an depopulation

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40
Q

a pandemic is…

A

global

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41
Q

what is the chain of infection

A
  1. reservoir of infectious agent
  2. portal of exit
  3. transmission
  4. portal of entry
  5. susceptible host
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42
Q

which of the following methods of disease transmission is the most difficult to control

A

Airborne

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43
Q

virulence

A

ability to cause disease

44
Q

likely environments

A

temperature
water and nutrient supply
radiation
availability of light and O2

45
Q

what does CDC mean

A

Centers for disease control and Prevention

46
Q

who is paul ehrlich

A

a german physician and a bacteriologist searched for the magic bullet

47
Q

what is chemotherapeutics

A

chemicals used to treat diseases

48
Q

who is alexander fleming

A

discovered penicillin in 1928

49
Q

most antibiotics come from microorganisms that normally live in the soil including

A

streptomyces and bacillus and penicillium and cephalosporin

50
Q

what is bacteriostatic

A

chemical inhibit bacterial growth

51
Q

-cidal

A

killing

52
Q

what is synergistic

A

combinations where one medication is enhanced

53
Q

bacterial cell walls are unique and contain

A

peptidoglycan

54
Q

What is Penicillin binding

A

PBPs catalyze the formation of peptide bridges between adjacent glycan strands disrupt cell wall synthesis

55
Q

What is Penicillin binding

A

PBPs catalyze the formation of peptide bridges between adjacent glycan strands disrupt cell wall synthesis

56
Q

whats is augmentin

A

contains amoxicillin
- and clavulanic acid a Beta-lactamase inhibitor

57
Q

what are the three inhibit protein synthesis

A

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines and macrolides

57
Q

what are the three inhibit protein synthesis

A

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines and macrolides

58
Q

whats does aminoglycosides bind to

A

irreversibly bind to 30S

59
Q

what does tetracyclin bind to

A

reversibly bind 30s

60
Q

what does macrolides bind to

A

reversibly binds to 50s

61
Q

whats is rifamycins

A

block prokaryotic RNA polymerase
effective against many gram+ and some gram -

62
Q

trimethoprim inhibits——-

A

enzyme in later steps

63
Q

first line antibiotics are given as—-

A

combination therapy

64
Q

the size of the zone of inhibition determines—

A

Whether strain is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant

65
Q

whats is the most common strain of penicillium

A

Penicillium chrysogenum

66
Q

what is the most common Ig antigen

A

IgG

67
Q

whats is multidrug-resistant M. tuberculosis

A

resist 2 favored first-line antibiotics

68
Q

how are the infections divided up

A

upper respiratory system and lower respiratory system

69
Q

what is pneumonia

A

lower respiratory tract, alveoli fill with fluids like pus and blood, inflammatory response to microbial infection, the leading cause of death due to infectious disease in the U.S

70
Q

pneumococcal pneumonia

A

accounts for approximately 60% of adult community-acquired pneumonia

71
Q

what caused pneumococcal pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumonia
-gram-positive

72
Q

what is Klebsiella pneumonia?

A

caused by Klebsiella pneumonia
gram-negative
incubation 1- 3 days

73
Q

Mycoplasmal pneumonia

A

known as walking pneumonia
caused by mycoplasma pneumonia
incubation 2 to 3 weeks

74
Q

influenza

A

Known as the flu
caused by orthomyxoviridae

75
Q

what is the most common HIV

A

HIV 1

76
Q

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

caused by staphylococcus aureus
found in newborns

77
Q

Varicella (chickenpox)

A

caused by varicella-zoster of herpesviral
enveloped
double-strand DNA virus
incubation 10 to 21 days

78
Q

Rubeola (measles)

A

caused by paramyxoviridae
enveloped
single strand RNA
incubation 10 to 12 days

79
Q

normal flora

A

mainly found in the oral cavity and intestines
esophagus have very little flora

80
Q

Dental caries (tooth decay)

A

caused by streptococcus mutans
short generally 12 to 48 hours incubation period

81
Q

Cholera

A

caused by vibrio cholera
incubation period of 12 to 48 hours

82
Q

HEP A

A

caused by non-enveloped, single-stranded RNA picornavirus, HAV
incubation 3 to 5 weeks

83
Q

HEP B

A

caused by enveloped double-stranded DNA hepadnavirus, HBV
incubation 10 to 15 weeks

84
Q

HEP C

A

Enveloped single-stranded RNA flavivirus HCV
incubation 6 to 7 weeks

85
Q

HEP D

A

caused by defective single-stranded RNA virus HDV
incubation 2 to 12 weeks

86
Q

HEP E

A

Non-enveloped single-stranded RNA calicivirus HEV
incubation 2 to 6 weeks

87
Q

-emia

A

the substance is circulating conditions are named after infectious agents

88
Q

what is involved in the cardiovascular system

A

heart blood vessels blood

89
Q

lymphatic system

A

lymph, lymph vessels, lymph nodes, lymphoid, tonsils appendix, and spleen

90
Q

Infective endocarditis (IE)

A

causes by normal microbiota of mouth or skin such as staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus epidermis, enterococci, streptococcus species and etc

91
Q

plague (Black Death)

A

caused by Yersinia pestis
spread through fleas
incubation 30 to 60 days

92
Q

cytotoxic T cells kill…

A

productively infected B cells that display viral antigens

93
Q

mono

A

Caused by epstein barr Virus
incubation 1 to 2 months

94
Q

pneumococcal meningitis

A

caused by streptococcus pneumonia
gram-positive

95
Q

Botulism

A

caused by Clostridium botulinum
A-B Toxins- b binds to the receptors on the motor nerve endings

96
Q

Rabies

A

Tingling or twitching around the entry site
Lyssaviruses

97
Q

UTI

A

Urinary tract infections most frequent healthcare-associated infections

98
Q

Urinary system

A

kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra

99
Q

HIV structure

A

enveloped virus; two copies of single-stranded RNA surrounded by protine capsid

100
Q

the three HIV protines

A

Reverse transcriptase (RT)
Protease (PR)
Integrase (IN)

101
Q

HIV disease attachment and entry…

A

attaches to CD4+ cells

102
Q

chlamydial infection

A

caused by chlamydia trachomatis
gram-negative
infections form- elementary body

103
Q

interacts with glycogen inclusions inside endocytic vesicle enlarges, become noninfectious….

A

reticulate body

104
Q

Bacterial Cystitis (Bladder infection)

A

caused by klebsiella, proteus and staphylococcus saprophytic

bio 215 (1 decks)

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