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final Flashcards

1
Q

Penicillin effect against what bacteria

A

gram +

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2
Q

Penicillin main adverse effect is?

A

allergy

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3
Q

Cephalosporin is categorized into?

A

generation

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4
Q

What happens as the generation of cephalosporins increase?

A

increase effectiveness against gram negative bacteria
increase resistance to beta lactamase

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5
Q

What are you watching for when a pt has 3+ watery stools/24hrs

A

C.diff

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6
Q

Vancomycin used to treat?

A

MRSA and C.diff

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7
Q

Vancomycin adverse effect?

A

renal failure
ototoxicity
“Red Man Syndrome” (IV)
Thrombophlebitis

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8
Q

Tetracyclines are alternative to?

A

alternative to pcn

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9
Q

Tetracycline adverse effects

A

binds to calcium (developing teeth)
teratogenic

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10
Q

Macrolides are alternative to?

A

PCN

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11
Q

Macrolide adverse effects

A

CYP inhibitor
QT prolongation
GI upset
Superinfection

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12
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin not absorbed where?

A

in the GI tract, (must be given parenterally)

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13
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin IV dosed by?

A

weight

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14
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin NTI?

A

yes

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15
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin adverse effects

A

irreversible ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity

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16
Q

sulfamethoxazole and silver sulfadiazine adverse effects

A

stevens-johnson syndrome
allergy
renal damage is crystals form
teratogenic

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17
Q

Trimethoprim adverse effects

A

itching and rash - common
hyperkalemia
teratogenic

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18
Q

nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) adverse effects

A

Gi effects
avoid in last trimester
rare hypersensitivity reaction

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19
Q

first line TB drugs

A

isoniazid and rifampin

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20
Q

isoniazid adverse effects

A

peripheral neuropathy (common)
hepatotoxicity

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21
Q

Rifampin adverse effects

A

CYP enzyme inducer
harmless red orange color of bodily fluids
hepatotoxicity

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22
Q

Fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin) consideration - ANTB

A

dairy inhibits absorption

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23
Q

Fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin) adverse pain - ANTB

A

tendonitis/ achilles rupture
CYP enzyme inhbitor

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24
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) adverse effects - ANTB

A

ETOH - sever vomiting
Cyp enzyme inhibitor

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25
Q

Fluconazole (DIflucan) is what

A

antifungal for candida infections

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26
Q

what does amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) do

A

prevents bacteria from breaking down beta lactam ring

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27
Q

Cimetidine uses- histamine 2 receptor antagonist

A

ulcers
Gerd

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28
Q

Cimetidine adverse effects- histamine 2 receptor antagonist

A

BBB–> CNS disturbances
elderly
renal impairment

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29
Q

Omeprazole adverse effects- PPI

A

3 months: magnesium deficiency
12 months : osteoporosis
36 months: B12 deficiency

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30
Q

Sucralfate Mucosal protecting agent uses

A

acute or chronic ulcer treatment

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31
Q

Sucralfate Mucosal protecting agent adverse effects

A

no significant system adverse effects

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32
Q

antacids adverse effects

A

calcium and magnesium = constipation
magnesium = diarrhea

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33
Q

misoprostol prostaglandin analog adverse effects

A

teratogenic
diarrhea, abdominal pain

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34
Q

misoprostol prostaglandin analog uses

A

only approved for prevention of NSAID- induced gastric ulcers

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35
Q

docusate sodium (Colace) - laxative goal

A

produce soft stool in 1-3 days

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36
Q

lovastatin uses - GM-CoA reductase inhibitors

A

Hypercholesterolemia

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37
Q

lovastatin adverse effects

A

myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
hepatotoxicity
teratogenic

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38
Q

Colesevelam - bile acid sequestrant uses/used with

A

hypercholesterolemia - used with statins

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39
Q

Colesevelam adverse effects

A

GI
med interactions (take alone)

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40
Q

Ezetimibe does what

A

blocks absorption of cholesterol in small intesitne

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41
Q

fibrates: Gemfibrozil uses

A

TGL reduction, HDL increase nice side effect

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42
Q

Gemfibrozil adverse effects

A

GI, watch for gallstones
myopathy
hepatotoxicity
displaces warfarin from albumin

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43
Q

nitroglycerin uses

A

all forms of Angina

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44
Q

adverse effects of nitroglycerin

A

headache
orthostatic hypotension
reflex tachycardia

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45
Q

nitroglycerin interactions

A

other HTN drugs
erectile dysfunction drugs contraindicated
beta blockers/CCB: verapamil and diltiazem

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46
Q

beta blocker uses

A

stable/unstable angina
HTN
tachycardia
post MI
stage fright

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47
Q

beta blocker adverse effects

A

bradycardia
reduced cardiac output

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48
Q

Ranolazine - ranexa uses

A

stable angina
- does not reduced heart rate, blood pressure, or vascular resistance

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49
Q

Ranolazine - ranexa adverse effects

A

watch for ventricular dysrhythmias and HTN

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50
Q

Calcium channel blockers verapamil and diltiazem uses

A

stable and variant angina

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51
Q

stable angina treatment

A

organic nitrates
beta blockers
ccb

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52
Q

variant angina treatment

A

organic nitrates
ccb

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53
Q

unstable angina

A

organic nitrates
oxygen
beta blocker
anti-platelets

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54
Q

Heparin uses

A

prevent DVTS
okay with pregnancy

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55
Q

adverse effects of heparin

A

bleeding

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56
Q

heparin monitored with

A

aPTT = 40 seconds normal
on heparin = 60-80 seconds

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57
Q

if heparin overdose occurs give

A

protamine sulfate by IV injection

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58
Q

enoxaparin (Lovenox) - anticoagulant uses

A

prevents DVTs

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59
Q

benefits of lovenox

A

doesnt require aPTT monitor
can be used at home
fixed time dosing

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60
Q

warfarin (Coumadin) not used when

A

thrombotic emergencies

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61
Q

warfarin (Coumadin) used when

A

long term prevention of thrombosis

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62
Q

therapeutic INR of warfarin

A

2.0-3.0

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63
Q

must monitor what for warfarin

A

blood clotting

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64
Q

what food affect INR levels of warfarin

A

mayo
green leafy
canola and soybean oils

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65
Q

in case of overdose of warfarin do what

A

small doses of vitamin K

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66
Q

aspirin adverse effect

A

bleeding

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67
Q

antidote to aspirin overdose

A

sodium bicarb

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68
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix) is what

A

antiplatelet

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69
Q

Thrombolytic alteplace (aTP) uses

A

acute MI, stroke, PE

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70
Q

what is captopril and lisinopril?

A

ace inhibitor

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71
Q

what to watch for with ace inhibitors

A
  • first dose hypotension
  • cough (common)
  • hyperkalemia
  • teratogenic
  • once daily dosing
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72
Q

what are candesartan and olmesartan

A

angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

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73
Q

what to watch for with ARBs

A

same as ACEs but no cough

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74
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers examples

A

nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem

75
Q

nifedipine (Procardia) uses

A

HTN
angina
may be combine with a B-blocker to reduce reflex tachycardia

76
Q

nifedipine adverse effect

A

reflex tachycardia
flushing
dizziness/headache

77
Q

verapamil and diltiazem uses

A

HTN, angina, dysrhythmias

78
Q

verapamil and diltiazem adverse effects

A

constipation
bradycardia and heart blocks
flushing
dizziness/headache

79
Q

Hydralazine is what and is used for what

A

vasodilator
HTN

80
Q

hydralazine adverse effects

A

reflex tachycardia
fluid retention

81
Q

Minoxidil is what and used when

A

vasodilator
used when other anti HTN drugs don’t work

82
Q

minoxidil adverse effects

A

angina
reflex tachycardia
fluid retention
hypertrichosis

83
Q

sodium nitroprusside is what and given when?

A

vasodilator given IV for HTN emergencies

84
Q

sodium nitroprusside adverse effects

A

orthostatic hypotension
fluid retention
cyanide poisoning (liver disease)

85
Q

Clonidine is what

A

a centrally acting HTN drug

86
Q

Clonidine adverse effects

A

hypotension
drowsiness
xerostomia (dry mouth)
rebound HTN
risk for abuse

87
Q

treatment of respiratory acidosis

A

sodium bicarb

88
Q

treatment of respiratory alkalosis

A

breathe in exhaled CO2
benzo (sedation)

89
Q

trmt of metabolic acidosis

A

sodium bicarb

90
Q

tmt of metabolic acidosis

A

IVF 0.9% NS + KCL
infusion of hydrochloric acid `

91
Q

Furosemide (Lasix) is what and used for what

A

loop diuretic used when significant fluid excess exists

92
Q

furosemide (lasix) adverse effects

A

hyponatremia, hypokalemia
dehydration/hypovolemia/hypotension
avoid during pregnancy
PO and IV

93
Q

furosemide (lasix) interactions

A

digoxin
lithium
k-sparing diuretics

94
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is what and used for what

A

thiazide diuretic
HTN
moderate edema

95
Q

HCTZ adverse effects

A

hyponatremia, hypokalemia (less severe than loops)
hypovolemia (less severe than loops)
avoid during pregnancy
PO only

96
Q

HCTZ interactions

A

same as furosemide

97
Q

what is spironolactone and used for

A

potassium-sparing diuretic
HTN
edema
HF
tmt of primary hyperaldosteronism
Polycystic ovarian syndrome

98
Q

spironolactone adverse effects

A

gynecomastia
menstrual irregularities
impotence
hirsutism
deepening of voice

99
Q

what is triamterene and used for

A

HTN and edmea, added on to loop or thiazide to maintain potassium

100
Q

triamterene adverse effects

A

not well tolerated, n/v, leg cramps, dizziness

101
Q

what is mannitol and used for

A

osmotic diuretic
ICP
IOP

102
Q

adverse effects of mannitol

A

peripheral edema
headache
n/v
potential hypovolemia

103
Q

what is used to treat HF

A

diuretics, ACEs, BB, Digoxin

104
Q

Digoxin NTI range:

A

0.5-0.8 ng/mL

105
Q

Digoxin adverse effect

A

dysrhythmias
toxicity

106
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI’s)

A

Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto)

107
Q

Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto) used when

A

in place of ACE or ARB

108
Q

Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto) adverse effects

A

cough
angioedema
hyperkalemia
teratogenic

109
Q

adverse effects of Alpha 1 agonists

A

HTN
bradycardia
tissue necrosis

110
Q

beta 1 agonists activation where

111
Q

beta 1 agonists adverse effects

A

tachycardia
dysrhythmia
angina

112
Q

beta 2 agonist actvates where

113
Q

beta 2 agonists adverse effects

A

hyperglycemia
muscle tremors

114
Q

dopamine receptor activation low doses does what

A

dilation of renal blood vessels
improves GFR and urine output

115
Q

dopamine receptor activation high doses doses what

A

Beta 1 and alpha 1 effects
used for hemodynamic support

116
Q

dopamine receptor activation adverse effects in high doses

A

dysrhythmias/tachycardia
angina
tissue necrosis

117
Q

epinephrine receptor activates what? and used for what

A

all alpha and beta receptors
- anesthesia
- reverse AV heart block
- anaphylaxis

118
Q

alpha 1 blocker prototype:

119
Q

prazosin uses

A

Essential HTN
BPH
raynaud’s disease
reveral of overdose/toxicity

120
Q

prazosin adverse effects

A

orthostatic hypotension
reflex tachycardia
nasal congestion
inhibition of ejaculation

121
Q

non-selective alpha blocker

A

phentolamine

122
Q

phentolamine uses

A

pheochromocytoma
tissue necrosis

123
Q

phentolamine adverse effects

A

same as alpha 1 antagonists
significan reflex tachycardia

124
Q

beta 1 blocker uses

A

HTN
stable angina
tachycardia
post MI
migraines
stage fright
glaucoma

125
Q

beta 1 blocker adverse effects

A

bradycardia
reduced cardiac output
Av heart block

126
Q

beta 2 blocker uses

127
Q

adverse effects of beta 2 blockers

A

bronchoconstriction
inhibition of glycogenolysis

128
Q

1st gen beta blocker : proranolol uses/ effects

A

stage fright. angina, HTN, MI
beta 1 and 2 effects

129
Q

2nd gen beta blocker : metoprolol uses and effects

A

HTN, angina, MI, HF
beta 1 effects only

130
Q

3rd gen beta blocker: carvedilol uses and effects

A

HTN, angina, MI, HF
B1,B2, and A1 effects

131
Q

bethanechol is what and used for what?

A

muscarinic agonists, used for non-obstructive urinary retention and GERD

132
Q

adverse effects of bethanechol

A

bradycardia, hypotensions
SOB
increased salivation and GI motility

133
Q

muscarinic agonist considerations

A

advise to take 1 hr before or 2 hrs after meals
SLUDGE

134
Q

muscarinic antagonists used to treat / effects

A

OAB
bradycadria
eye disorder
motion sickness
asthma

can’t poem

135
Q

oxybutynin is what and used for what

A

muscarinic antagonist used for OAB tmt

136
Q

oxybutynin adverse effects

A

anticholinergic effects
don’t give with other anticholinergic drugs

137
Q

atropine is what used for what

A

muscarinic antagonists used for bradycardia, eye exams, cholinergic overdosse

138
Q

adverse effects of atropine

A

can’t poem

139
Q

ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) used for

A

inhaler for asthma
nasal spray for allergic rhinitis

140
Q

azelastine (Astelin) and Olopatadine (Patanase) are what with what adverse effects

A

intranasal antihistamines
nasal dryness, epistaxis, headaches

141
Q

fluticasone (Flonase) and mometasone (Nasonex) are what with what effects

A

intranasal glucocorticoids
most effective medication for allergic rhinitis
mild adverse effects : dry mucosa, epistaxis, headache

142
Q

adverse effects of decongestants

A

rebound congestions
restlessness, anxiety, insomnia
potential for abuse

143
Q

inhaled corticosteroid does what

A

controls inflammation, for prevention of attacks not PRN use

144
Q

adverse effects of glucocorticoids

A

mouth thrush
dysphonia
increase glucose level

145
Q

SABAs are what and used when

A

rescue inhalers
used PRN

146
Q

LABAs are what and used when

A

not a rescue inhaler! its a controller
must be combine with ICS

147
Q

Oral B2 agonists used for when and examples

A

only long term control - not for acute attack
albuterol, terbutaline

148
Q

insulin lispro is what duration

A

short duration

149
Q

lispro peaks when durates how long and is clear or cloudy

A

peaks 30 minutes, durates 6 hrs, clear suspension

150
Q

regular insulin is what duration

A

short duration

151
Q

regular insulin peaks when durates how long and looks how

A

peaks 1 hr, durates 10 hrs, clear suspension

152
Q

regular insulin is only insulin given IV true or false

153
Q

NPH is what duration

A

intermediate

154
Q

NPH peaks when, durates how long and looks how

A

peaks 6 hrs, durates 24 hrs , cloudy suspension

155
Q

can NPH be mixed with short acting insulins and how?

A

yes, clear before cloudy

156
Q

long duration insulins

A

glargine, and detemir
no peak
never IV

157
Q

ultra long

A

glargine (Toujeo)
degludec

158
Q

metformin adverse effects

A

gi effects
b12 deficiency
no hypoglycemia

159
Q

adverse effects of sulfonylurea glipizide

A

hypoglycemia
no alcohol

160
Q

TZD pioglitazone adverse ffects

A

fluid retention (bad for HF pts.)

161
Q

acarbose adberse effects

A

GI
monitor for anemia
monitor LFTs
hypoglycemia

162
Q

sitagliptin adverse effects

A

pancreatitis
N/V
belly pain

163
Q

canagliflozin adverse effects

A

increased urination
UTIs/fungal infections

164
Q

Glucagon-like Peptide 1 GLP-1 : exenatide

A

gi effects
hypoglycemia
pancreatitis
renal impairment

165
Q

levothyroxine treats what

A

hypothyroidism

166
Q

levothyroxine pt ed

A

take early AM on empty stomach
generic/brand consistency
regular lab monitoring
report thyrotoxic symptoms

167
Q

methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) treat what

A

hyperthyroidism

168
Q

methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) which one safer for preg

169
Q

addisons is an insufficiency of what treated how

A

adrenal hormone treated with glucocorticoids

170
Q

Levodopa : dopamine replacement considerations

A

food delays absorption (esp protein)
loss of effect common

171
Q

carbidopa/levodopa works as a and allows what

A

crossing guard and allows to give a lower dose of levodopa

172
Q

entacapone/levodopa/carbidopa does what

A

extends half life of levodopa

173
Q

pramipexole used when and adverse effects

A

alone in early stages
with levodopa/carbidopa in advanced
sleep attacks
ok to take with meals

174
Q

donepezil effects

A

cholinergic effects

175
Q

rivastigmine considerations

A

available as a patch
causes cholinergic effects

176
Q

memantine considerations

A

potentiated effect: donepezil and memantine

177
Q

interferon beta adverse effects

A

flu like symptoms
bone marrow suppression

178
Q

mitoxantrone adverse effects/considerations

A

IV infusion every 3 months
hepatotoxicity
bone marrow suppression
cardiotoxicity
teratogenic

179
Q

cyclobenzaprine for what

180
Q

baclofen, dantrolene, and diazepam for what

A

spasticity

181
Q

aspirin side effects

A

GI
renal impairment
salicylism syndrome

182
Q

ibuprofen adverse effects

A

renal impairment

183
Q

tylenol (acetaminophen) adv effects and antidote

A

liver failure / acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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