Final Flashcards
What clinical examination confirms that a scoliosis is
structural rather than functional?
a. Adam test
b. Stork test
c. Spinal Palpation
d. Static postural assessment
a. Adam test
You see an anteater sign. What pattern of tarsal coalition does this represent?
a. Talonavicular
b. Calcaneocuboid
c. Talocalcaneal
d. Calcaneonavicular
d. Calcaneonavicular
Your patient has 2/5 strength of the wrist flexors. What nerve root?
C7 nerve root
What imaging modality is the gold standard for the
evaluation of bone density?
a. MRI
b. Bone scan
c. CT
d. DEXA
e. Radiographs
d. DEXA
The distal femurs demonstrate and Erlenmeyer flask
deformity.The patients T-score is +2.0. What is the first
item on your differential?
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle Cell
d. Cushings Disease
a. Osteopetrosis
Rickets and hyperparathyroidism coexist in what
condition?
a. Hypervitaminosis D
b. Ehlers Danlos
c. Hypophosphatasia
d. Renal osteodystrophy
d. Renal osteodystrophy
What is the name of the system for grading skeletal
maturation based on the iliac apophysis
a. Cobb
b. Riser
c. Greulich and Pyle
d. Nash-Moe
b. Riser
A new mom presents with SI pain. There are triangular
Fock of sclerosis in a bilateral asymmetric distribution.
What is the diagnosis?
a. PI Ilium
b. Ankylosing Spondylitis
c. Osteitis Condensans ilii
d. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Osteitis Condensans ilii
A 35 year old underwater welder presents with a stippled
lesion in the medullary cavity of the proximal humeral
metaphysis. The lesion has a serpiginous contour. Which
should be the first item on your differential?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Enchondroma
c. Medullary Infarct
c. Medullary Infarct
Which condition should you suspect when a PA chest
radiograph reveals a pectus excavating and a 4-5cm
thoracic aorta?
a. Marfan syndrome
b. Klippel Feil syndrome
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Progressive systemic sclerosis
a. Marfan syndrome
You suspect your patient has a non-emergent abdominalaortic aneurysm. What is the most appropriate imaging
follow-up?
a. MRI w/ contrast
b. Doppler with ultrasound
c. CT angiogram
d. Radiographs
b. Doppler with ultrasound
Which arthritis, when untreated, has the greatest
association with Osteonecrosis?
a. Progressive systemic sclerosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
What imaging tool is the definitive diagnostic test for
complex regional pain syndrome?
a. SPECT Scanning
b. 3 phase bone scan
c. MRI w/ contrast
d. Radiographs
b. 3 phase bone scan
What is the minimum Meyerding grade for bilateral facet
dislocation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
c. 3
Which injuries are associated with child abuse? SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY
a. Skull fractures
b. Rib fractures
c. Metaphyseal corner fractures
d. Multiple fractures in various stages of healing
e. No correct answer listed
a. Skull fractures
b. Rib fractures
c. Metaphyseal corner fractures
d. Multiple fractures in various stages of healing
Which MRI pulse sequence is most sensitive for edema?
a. T1
b. Proton density
c. STIR
d. T2
c. STIR
A geographic lytic expansile lesion is present in the distalfemoral metaphysis of a 32yo patient. There is a short zoneof transition, no periosteal reaction, no matrix pattern andno soft tissue mass. The lesion grows directly to thetrochlear groove. What is the diagnosis?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. GCT
c. Fibrous Dysplasia
d. Plasmacytoma
b. GCT
Intoxication with which mineral is associated with gout?
a. Lead
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Tin
a. Lead
An 8 year old presents with 5 weeks of ankle pain.
Radiographs reveal a geographic lytic lesion in the
medullary cavity of the distal tibial metaphysis. There is noperiosteal reaction, no matrix calcification and no softtissue mass. Past medical history is remarkable for
pneumonia 8 weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
a. SBC
b. Brodies Abscess
c. Enchondroma
d. Chondroblastoma
b. Brodies Abscess
What condition is a well established cause of
Osteonecrosis?
a. Marfan Syndrome
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Anabolic steroid treatment
d. Caisson disease
d. Caisson disease
Your patient has torticollis. Radiographs reveal globular
calcification immediately inferior to the anterior arch of
C1. What is the diagnosis?
a. Idiopathic torticollis
b. Atlantoaxial rotary subluxation
c. Unilateral facet dislocation
d. Hydroxyapatite deposition disease
Hydroxyapatite deposition disease
What is the biggest clinical concern in a patient with a
degenerative spondylolisthesis?
a. Radiculopathy
b. Instability
c. Fracture
d. Central Stenosis
Central Stenosis
Which condition is hall marked by bony horns growing
off the posterior aspect of the ilia?
a. Congenital dysraphism
b. Osteoonychodystrophy
c. Cleidocranial dysostosis
d. Renal osteodystrophy
Osteoonychodystrophy
Which portion of the SI joints best demonstrates the
erosive changes of ankylosing spondylitis?
a. Lower/sacral
b. Upper/Iliac
c. Upper/sacral
d. Lower/iliac
c. Upper/sacral
What is the radiographic latent period for osteomyelitis of the distal radius?
a. 7-10 days
b. 14-17 days
c. 1-3 days
d. 21+ days
a. 7-10 days
Which feature helps distinguish hemophilia from JCA?
a. Ballooning of the epiphysis
b. Increased intercondylar notch
c. Osteopenia
d. Uniform joint space loss
b. Increased intercondylar notch
What is the MRI findings for a hemangioma?
a. High T1, High T2
b. High T1, Low T2
c. Low T1, Low T2
d. Low T1, High T2
a. High T1, High T2
Why does a cervical spine burst fracture have a higher rate
of neurologic compromise than a lumbar spine burst
fracture?
a. Inherent size of spinal canal
b. The flexion/distraction mechanism
c. More columns are disrupted
d. The presence of the spinal cord
d. The presence of the spinal cord
Which findings are more common in thalassemia than insickle cell anemia? MARK ALL THAT APPLY 1-4.
a. Hair on end skull
b. Osteonecrosis
c. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
d. H-shaped vertebra
e. No correct answer listed
a. Hair on end skull
c. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
Which organism is the most common to cause
osteomyelitis in a user of IV heroin?
a. P. Aeruginosa
b. E. coli
c. S. aureus
d. Y. pestis
c. S. aureus
A 53 year old underwater welder presents with a
stippled medullary lesion in the proximal humeral
metaphysis. What should be the first item on the
differential diagnosis list?
a. Medullary infection
b. Enchondroma
c. Chondrosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
Which is the primary diagnostic criteria for Scheuermann
disease?
a. 3 segments with 5 degrees of wedging
b. Hypomobility of the thoracic spine
c. Numerous schmorls nodes
d. 30 degrees or greater thoracic kyphosis
a. 3 segments with 5 degrees of wedging
What is the most common organism to cause
osteomyelitis?
a. Y. Pestis
b. P. aeruinosa
c. P. carnii
d. S. Aureus
d. S. Aureus
Which cervical spine manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis
is the most clinically significant?
a. Increased ADI
b. Pencil sharpened spinous processes
c. Disc space loss
d. Stair step deformity
a. Increased ADI
Your patient has positive Ottawa criteria for the knee.
Radiographs reveal an obliquely oriented radiolucent
line in the patella, with corticated margins. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Bipartite patella
b. Osteochondritis dissecans
c. Vertical patellar fracture
d. Chondromalacia patella
a. Bipartite patella
Which of these conditions represents an absolute
contraindication to HVLA manipulation of the spine and
extremities?
a. Ehlers Danlos
b. Achondroplasia
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Cervical ribs
Ehlers Danlos
Which condition does NOT have generalized osteopenia as a radiographic finding?
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Osteomalacia
a. Osteopetrosis
Multiple geographic lytic lesions with hazy internal
calcification is present in the proximal femurs, with an
accompanying bilateral shepherds crook deformity in a
52yo. What is the diagnosis?
a. Paget’s disease
b. Enchondromatosis
c. Blow out METS
d. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
a. Paget’s disease
Which finding in the hands and feet is strongly suggestive
of acromegaly?
a. Spade tufts
b. Arachnodactyly
c. Trident hand
d. Supernumerary epiphysis
a. Spade tufts
AP and lateral bilateral knee views on a 20yo demonstrate excessive bowing of the femurs and tibiae. Mild generalized osteopenia is noted. In the distal tibiae, there are radiolucent lines extending approximately 1/3 of the way through the bone. What is the diagnosis?
a. Osteomalacia
b. Paget’s disease
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Rickets
A. Osteomalacia
Which type of Modic change is characterized by high T1
and low T2 signal on MRI
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
d. 2
On a 12yo patient, the AP ankle demonstrates a fracture through the tibial epiphysis, running into the growth plate. On the lateral view there is a metaphyseal fracture of the tibia, also running into the growth plate. What type of salter Harris fracture is described?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
e. 3
a. 4
A bone is noted extending from the Lamina of C5 to the
greater angle of the scapula. This is seen in frequent
association with which condition?
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Klippel Feil syndrome
d. TOS
c. Klippel Feil syndrome
Which of the 5 cervical lines is the most reliable to
determine the presence of a spondylolisthesis?
a. Anterior body line
b. Posterior body line
c. Spinous tip line
d. Spinolaminar line
e. Prevertebral soft tissues
b. Posterior body line
Which feature aids in distinguishing Myositis Ossificans
from osteosarcoma?
a. Zonal phenomenon
b. Attachment to bone
c. Soft tissue ossification
d. Biopsy
a. Zonal phenomenon
Soft tissue infection with clostridium perfringens will
demonstrate which of the 4 radiographic densities?
a. Water
b. Fat
c. Air
d. Metal
e. Bone
c. Air
Your patient has decreased sensation along the lateral
aspect of the leg, running anterior to the lateral malleolus, and extending along the dorsum of the foot. Which disc herniation(s) would be consistent with the finding? MARK ALL THAT APPLY 1-6 ANSWERS.
a. L4/L5 foraminal
b. L4/L5 subarticular
c. L5/S1 foraminal
d. L3/L4 subarticular
e. L5/S1 subarticular
f. L3/L4 foraminal
b. L4/L5 subarticular
c. L5/S1 foraminal
What is the most likely location in the musculoskeletal
system for tuberculosis to disseminate?
a. Knee
b. Skull
c. Shoulder
d. Spine
d. Spine
A football player presents with severe neck pain, after
tackling an opponent while leading with his helmet.
Radiographs reveal anterior wedging of C6, as well as
convex posterior body margin. What is the diagnosis?
a. Compression fracture
b. Extension teardrop fracture
c. Burst fracture
d. Flexion teardrop fracture
a. Compression fracture
Your patient has a 23 degree right convexity from T1-T6
and a 34 degree left convexity from T6-T11. What term
would be applied to this finding?
a. Double structural
b. Double idiopathic
c. Double primary
d. Double major
c. Double primary
There is a fracture fragment at the anterior inferior body margin of C6. What is the mechanism of injury?
a. Rotation
b. Flexion
c. Lateral flexion
d. Extension
B. Flexion
Your patient presents with back pain 2 weeks after
abdominal surgery. Radiographs are normal. What is the best follow up imaging?
a. CT
b. CT with contrast
c. MRI with contrast
d. MRI
C. MRI w contrast
The idea behind imaging decision making is to decrease
population radiation dose as much as possible. What is the
term applied to this concept?
a. AMAP
b. ALARA
c. SCIWORA
d. ROFL
b. ALARA
In what paragraph of the radiology report would the
following statement go: A rib is noted arising from C7 onthe left?
a. A
b. BC
c. S
a. A
Which condition has Wormian bones and osteopenia as
the primary findings?
a. Cleidocranial dysplasia
b. Melorheostosis
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Frontal radiographs demonstrate a short segment, high
angles scoliosis. Which of these would you expect to find in the apical region?
a. Lateral hemivertebra
b. Posterior scalloping
c. Tall vertebra
d. Twisted ribbon ribs
a. Lateral hemivertebra
What is the threshold for translational instability in the
lumbar spine?
a. 2.0mm
b. 2.5mm
c. 3.0mm
d. 3.5mm
e. 4.0mm
f. 4.5mm
g. 5.0mm
f. 4.5mm
A 14 year old patient has a left lumbar scoliosis.
Radiographs reveal a sclerotic right pedicle of L2. What is the etiology of the scoliosis?
a. Idiopathic
b. Developmental
c. Tumor-related
d. Functional
b. Developmental (pedicle agensis leads to contra sclerosis)
Which radiographic appearance is most suggestive of
chronic osteomyelitis?
a. Geographic lytic lesions
b. Laminated periosteal reaction
c. Permeative Osteolysis
d. Wavy solid periosteal reaction
d. Wavy solid periosteal reaction
Select all conditions with posterior vertebral body
scalloping as a feature?
a. Achondroplasia
b. AAA
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. No correct answer listed
a. Achondroplasia
According to the most up to date evidence based
information, what is the best imaging to determine the
presence of an active fatigue fracture of the pars
interarticularis?
a. SPECT
b. CT
c. Oblique radiographs
d. MRI
a. SPECT
What is the term applied to pain associated with a
lumbosacral transitional segment?
a. Clasp knife syndrome
b. Klippel Feil syndrome
c. Bertolotti syndrome
d. Maigne syndrome
c. Bertolotti syndrome
What condition has an epiphyseal osteochondroma as a feature?
a. Brahma bull
b. Maffucci syndrome
c. Trevor disease
d. Osteochondromatosis
c. Trevor disease
Numerous hyperpigmented cutaneous Macule’s with a
smooth outer border are consistent with what condition?
a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Paget disease
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. Conradi Hunermann Disease
c. Neurofibromatosis
What is the term applied to the bone demonstration
permeative Osteolytic in osteomyelitis?
a. Sequestrum
b. Involucrum
c. Sinus
d. Cloaca
b. Involucrum
Select 2 conditions which both have generalized
osteoporosis and Osteonecrosis as features?
a. Marfans
b. Cushings
c. Acromegaly
d. Sickle cell anemia
b. Cushings
d. Sickle cell anemia
What imaging follow up should be preformed on patients with neck pain and a congenital fusion?
a. Diagnostic ultrasound
b. Computed tomography
c. Flexion/extension radiographs
d. MRI with contrast
c. Flexion/extension radiographs
What would you include on the differential for a clavicle
in 2 separate prices, both ends having smooth well rounded corticated margins?
a. No correct answer listed
b. HPT
c. Non-union fracture
d. PTOC
e. Cleidocranial dysplasia
e. Cleidocranial dysplasia
A vascular necrosis of the lunate is associated with which of the following?
a. Lunate dislocation
b. Scapholunate dissociation
c. Negative ulnar variance
d. Fischer fracture
e. No correct answer listed
c. Negative ulnar variance
Which metabolic arthritis is associated with “crowned
dens syndrome”?
a. HADD
b. Gout
c. Ochronosis
d. CPPD
d. CPPD
A 14 year old track athlete presents with complaints of
“patellar tendinitis”. Radiographs demonstrate
fragmentation of the apex of the patella. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Sinding Larsen Johansson
b. Van neck
c. Blount
d. Osgood schlatter
A. Sinding Larsen Johansson
When involving the cervical spine, which condition is
frequently associated with dysphasia?
a. DISH
b. Facet DJD
c. SCM
d. OCI
a. DISH
Which of these would be a cause of a functional scoliosis?
a. Neurofibromatosis Type 1
b. Leg length inequality
c. Cerebral palsy
d. Moderate DJD
b. Leg length inequality
Following a FOOSH injury, your patient has numbness of the thumb, index and middle fingers. What injury do you suspect?
a. Scaphoid fracture
b. Lunate dislocation
c. Cole’s fracture
d. Gamekeeper injury
b. Lunate dislocation
A 13 year old running athlete presents complaining of
progressively worsening leg pain. Radiographs reveal
cortical thickening in the tibial diaphysis. There are no
other abnormalities. Which do you suspect?
a. Fatigue fracture
b. Torus fracture
c. Insufficiency fracture
d. Stress fracture
a. Fatigue fracture
The L2 vertebral body is wedged anteriorly. The posterior body margin is concave.The posterior elements are intact. There is a step defect in the anterior body cortex. What is the diagnosis, and is this acute or old?
a. Chance fracture
b. Compression fracture
c. Acute
d. Burst fracture
e. Old
b. Compression fracture
Which conditions should be included in a widened medial hip joint space in a pediatric patient?
a. SCFE
b. Septic Arthritis
c. LCP
d. Osteoid osteoma
e. No correct answer listed
c. LCP
You suspect acromegaly. What imaging should be ordered
a. MRI with pituitary protocol
b. CT of the brain
c. MRI of the brain with contrast
d. Lateral skull radiographs
a. MRI with pituitary protocol
Your patient has unilateral sacroiliac irregularity and
sclerosis, and also complains of hand pain and stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Enteropathic arthritis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
What is the most common geographic lytic lesion in the foot?
a. Non-ossifying fibrous
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Enchondroma
d. Enchondroma
An AP and frog leg hip radiograph on an 8 year old
reveals sclerosis, flattening and fragmentation of the
femoral head. What is the diagnosis?
a. SCFE
b. Kholers
c. Chandlers
d. Legg Calve Perthes
d. Legg Calve Perthes
The technetium 99-MDP used in bone scintigraphy is
taken up by which type of bone cell?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoblasts
You note conduit wall calcification in the 3 view hand
radiograph of your patient, What is the underlying cause?
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Complex regional pain syndrome
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Reynaud phenomenon
c. Atherosclerosis
A 7 year old patient has an eccentric, geographic lytic
lesion in the distal tibial metaphysis. There is a narrow
zone of transition, ground glass matrix, no soft tissue mass. The x-ray was taken because the child has twisted their ankle. What is the diagnosis?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Non-ossifying fibrous
c. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Fibrous xanthoma
c. Fibrous cortical defect
Which imaging modality does not utilize ionizing
radiation?
a. Bone scan
b. Ultrasound
c. Radiographs
d. Computed tomography
b. Ultrasound
A 54 year old patient has a 3cm blastic lesion in the
sacrum. The lesion is found to be warm on bone scan. What is the diagnosis?
a. Blastic METS
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Enostoma
d. Osteoma
c. Enostoma
Which is associated with shoulder impingement
syndrome?
a. Bankart fracture
b. Humeral pseudotumor
c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
d. Os acromiale
d. Os acromiale
Knee radiographs in a 32 year old reveal intracapsular effusion, as well as destruction of the subarticular cortex at the trochlear groove. What is the diagnosis?
a. PVNS
b. Septic arthritis
c. Primary SCM
d. GCT
D. GCT
What is the most common wrist fracture in a 65 year old
patient with a FOOSH injury
a. Torus
b. Colle’s
c. Scaphoid
d. Fischer
b. Colle’s
A subarticular lucent cleft is noted in the top of the
femoral head. What stage of AVN does this indicate?
a. Avascualr
b. DeformitY
c. Revascularization
d. Repair/remodeling
c. Revascularization
There is an anterior translation of C1 with an ADI
measuring 7mm. What has would you include in your
differential diagnosis?
a. Down syndrome
b. Jefferson fracture
c. Os Odontoideum
d. Odontoid Agenesis
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
f. No correct answer listed
a. Down syndrome
b. Jefferson fracture
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
You detect an ivory vertebra in a 61 year old. There is no anterior scalloping. There is no vertebral enlargement. The cortex is normal thickness. What is the first item on your differential?
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Idiopathic
c. Paget’s disease
d. Metastatic disease
d. Metastatic disease
Lumbar radiographs reveal generalized osteopenia,
widened bilateral SI joints and several soft tissue
calcification. A rheumatoid panel is negative. What is the diagnosis?
a. Acromegaly
b. Scleroderma
c. Enteropathic arthritis
d. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism
Lumbar radiographs on a 38 year old demonstrate a
missing pedicle at L2 on the right. The contralateral pedicle is mildly enlarged. Which should be the first diagnosis on the differential list?
a. Agenesis
b. Myeloma
c. Diastematomyelia
d. Metastasis
a. Agenesis
There is motheaten osteolysis with a wide zone of
transition in the right ilium in a 57 year old female. There is no periosteal reaction, matrix pattern or soft tissue mass.
Select the correct differential.
a. Metastatic disease, multiple myeloma, lymphoma
b. Metastatic disease, lymphoma, multiple myeloma
c. Multiple myeloma, lymphoma, metastatic disease
d. Multiple myeloma, metastatic disease, lymphoma
Metastatic disease, multiple myeloma, lymphoma
AP and frogleg radiographs on a 5 year old patient
demonstrate a small femoral head, a steeply inclined
shallow acetabulum and a superolateral femoral
displacement. What is the diagnosis?
a. SCFE
b. SONK
c. LCP
d. DDH
d. DDH
A pediatric patient has bulbous costochondral junctions. Which condition do you suspect?
a. Chondrodysplasia punctata
b. Hemophilia
c. Rickets
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Hemophilia
A skiers thumb is a disruption of which ligament?
a. Radial collateral ligament at the MCP
b. Ulnar collateral ligament at the MCP
c. Radial collateral ligament at the IP
d. Ulnar collateral ligament at the IP
b. Ulnar collateral ligament at the MCP
The laminae of L5 are present however do not unite posteriorly, which is the most appropriate conclusion?
a. Spondyloschiesis
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Congenital block vertebra
d. Omovertebral bone
e. Clasp knife deformity
b. Spina bifida occulta
Which of the following are an absolute contraindication to adjusting the upper cervical spine? Select all that apply.
a. Os Odontoidium
b. Os terminale of bergman
c. Pathologically increased ADI
d. Agenesis of the odontoid
e. C2-3 block vertebra
a. Os Odontoidium
c. Pathologically increased ADI
d. Agenesis of the odontoid
Which of the following is the most common form of hemiverteba?
a. Ventral
b. Lateral
c. Dorsal
d. Superior
e. Inferior
b. Lateral
Which of the following is the most likely conclusion when 1 vertebral segment has 3 pedicles?
a. Ventral hemivertebra
b. Dorsal hemivertebra
c. Lateral hemivertebra
d. diastomatomyelia
e. klippel-feil syndrome
c. Lateral hemivertebra
Which of the following is not associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome?
a. Congenital block vertebra greater than 2 vertebral levels
b. Omovertebral bone
c. Plantar calcaneal enthesopathy
d. Urological abnormalities
e. Sprengels deformity
c. Plantar calcaneal enthesopathy
Which of the following is often associated with diastomatomyelia?
a. Butterfly vertebra
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Ventral hemivertebra
d. Dorsal hemivertebra
a. Butterfly vertebra
Which of the following is considered a variant of a schmorls node?
a. Butterfly vertebra
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Ventral hemivertebra
d. Dorsal hemivertebra
e. Limbus bone
e. Limbus bone
Which of the following is associated with Turner’s syndrome? Select all that apply.
a. Madelung Deformity
b. Omovertebral bone
c. Sprengels deformity
d. brachymetacarpia
e. stylohyoid ligament ossification
a. Madelung Deformity
d. brachymetacarpia
. Bilateral ribs are articulating with a vertebra near the CT junction with transverse processes oriented superiorly, which of the following is most appropriate? Select all that apply.
a. Cervical ribs
b. Thoracic ribs
c. Normal finding
d. Lumbar ribs
e. Pathological finding
b. Thoracic ribs
c. Normal finding
. Eagle’s syndrome is associated with which of the following?
a. Spondyloschiesis
b. Stylohyoid ligament ossification
c. Posterior ponticulum
d. Omovertebral bone
e. Cervical ribs C7
b. Stylohyoid ligament ossification
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided articulation and right sided spatulation without articulation nor fusion, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
E. 4
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided fusion and right sided spatulation without articulation nor fusion, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
D. 3A
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided fusion and right sided spatulation with articulation, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
4
Which of the following is the most common rib anomaly?
a. Srb’s anomaly
b. Lushka’s bifurcated rib
c. Missing rib
d. Twisted ribbon ribs
e. Partial agenesis of the first rib
b. Lushka’s bifurcated rib
Which of the following is characteristic of, or associated with congenital hip dysplasia? Select all that apply.
a. Superolateral dislocation of the femur
b. Shallow acetabulum
c. Osacetabuli
d. Putti’s triad
e. Large femoral capital epiphysis
a. Superolateral dislocation of the femur
b. Shallow acetabulum
d. Putti’s triad
Which of the following tarsal coalitions has been associated with an anteater nose appearance?
a. Talocalcaneal
b. Naviculocuneiform
c. calcaneocuboid
d. calcaneonavicular
e. cuboid-cuneiform
d. calcaneonavicular
An osseous fragment is visualized at the superolateral aspect of the patellas bilaterally, which is the most likely conclusion?
a. Transverse patellar fractures
b. Stellate patellar fractures
c. Vertical patellar fractures
d. Bipartite patellae
e. Typical patellae appearance
d. Bipartite patellae
A ballet dancer has been experiencing pain at the posterior aspect of the left ankle while practicing, which of the following is the most likely finding upon conventional radiographic exam of the ankle?
a. Fractured cuneiform
b. Os supranaviculare
c. Os subfiblare
d. Ostibialeexternum
e. Os trigonium
e. Os trigonium
A bony growth is visualized proximal to the elbow upon radiographic examination, the growth is pointing toward the elbow. ~~~~~~~is the most likely diagnosis and ~~~~~nerve is most commonly affected?
a. Pedunculated osteochondroma, ulnar
b. Supracondylar process, radial
c. Supracondylar process, median
d. Pedunculated osteochondroma, median
e. Pedunculated osteochondroma, radial
c. Supracondylar process, median
Which of the following is the most common carpal coalition?
a. lunotriquetral
b. scapholunate
c. scaphotrapezium
d. trapeziotrapezoid
e. lunocapitate
a. lunotriquetral
Which of the following are best visualized on the lateral projection of each respective body region? Select all that apply.
a. Horizontal Sternal fracture
b. Horizontal coccyx fracture
c. Horizontal sacral fracture
d. Jones fracture
e. Vertical patellar fracture
a. Horizontal Sternal fracture
b. Horizontal coccyx fracture
c. Horizontal sacral fracture
. Which of the following is the view of the knee in which a Lipohemarthrosis can be visualized?
a. AP
b. Medial oblique
c. Cross table lateral
d. lateral
e. merchant
c. Cross table lateral
