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AMT MLT Exam > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

This bacteria is seen in pregnant women and grows on MacConkey agar

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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2
Q

What is the order of Neutrophil maturation in bone marrow?

A

Myleoblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band, segmented Neutrophil

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3
Q

What are the current test for vascular factors

A

Capillary fragility and Bleeding Time

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4
Q

What test measures Coumadin therapy?

A

Prothrombin Time

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5
Q

What factors are measured by APPT?

A

Factors, 7, 8, 13, 5, 2 and Fibrinogen

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6
Q

What test is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (Clots)?

A

D-Dimer

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7
Q

Clinical manifestations of this disease will very with severity. It is also hereditary.

A

Von Willebrand Disease

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8
Q

This is 1) the physical closing of torn tissue 2) the biochemical release of factors to cause clots

A

Extravascular effects of coagulation

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9
Q

The majority of the antigens from A group are of which subgroup

A

A1

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10
Q

ABO antibodies are typically Ig____?

A

IgM

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11
Q

IgG does not show what?

A

Visible agglutation

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12
Q

Cross matching uses patient ______ and donor ______

A

serum, cells

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13
Q

The study of the classification processes?

A

Taxonomy

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14
Q

The main purpose of this marker is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy

A

CA15-3

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15
Q

This is the main marker for colorectal and pancreatic cancers

A

CA19-9

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16
Q

Gentamycin, Tobramycin, Amicakin, Kanamycin

A

Most common aminoglycoside ABX used on inpatients

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17
Q

This is derived from the iron containing heme portion of the blood

A

Bilirubin

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18
Q

This stain is used to detect and differentiate parasites like malaria

A

Giemsa Stain

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19
Q

This stain is used for granulocytes

A

Myeloperoxidase

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20
Q

This is used to differentiate acute lymphoid leukemia from malignant lymphoma

A

TdT

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21
Q

Thalassemia is a type of __________ anemia, morphologically

A

hypochromic and microcytic

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22
Q

Anemia where Cells are of normal size and normal color but low quantity of them

A

Normocytic, normochromic

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23
Q

Anemia where Cells are very bright in color

A

Hyperchromic

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24
Q

Anemia where cells that are very large

A

Macrocytic

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25
Q

Anemia where cells are thin and pale in color

A

Microcytic Hypochromic

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26
Q

How are anemias classified?

A

by underlying cause and changes in RBC morphology

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27
Q

3 underlying causes of anemias

A

Blood loss, increased RBC destruction, decreased RBC production

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28
Q

Group B phenotype is most common in what population

A

Asian

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29
Q

BP cuff for venipuncture should be inflated to what?

A

60-80

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30
Q

Staph Aures is resistant to what?

A

All PCNs

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31
Q

These enzymes are not a component of a standard polymerase chain reaction

A

Restriction enzymes

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32
Q

Triple phosphate crystals appear

A

Rhombus shaped “coffin lid”

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33
Q

This test differentiates Urobilinogen from Porphobilirubin

A

Watson-Swartz Test

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34
Q

Rapid screening test for porphobilirubin

A

Hoesch Test

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35
Q

Reverse typing for ABO antibodies uses patient____

A

Serum or plasma

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36
Q

Types of Hemolysis on blood plate

A

Breakdown on agar plate, can be alpha, beta or gamma

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37
Q

Alpha hemolysis on agar plate

A

Partial breakdown on Hb

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38
Q

Beta hemolysis on agar plate

A

Complete breakdown of Hb

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39
Q

Gamma hemolysis on agar plate

A

No breakdown on Hb

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40
Q

Dolichus biflorus is used to distinguish what?

A

Between A1 & A2 red cells

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41
Q

Gram stain steps

A

methanol fixation, stain with crystal violet, rinse, flood with iodine, rinse, decolor with alcohol, rinse, counter stain with Safranin, rise, dry, observe under oil emersion

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42
Q

What stain is used to differentiate malignant cells

A

Sudan Black

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43
Q

What are the 6 categories of phlebotomy injury?

A
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44
Q

This detects an abrupt change for 3 or more consecutive days

A

Shift

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45
Q

This detects increase in both low and high minimally accepted values

A

Dispersion

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46
Q

In SPE which bands travel the farthest

A

Albumin

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47
Q

Which enzyme is elevated in acute pancreatitis

A

Lipase

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48
Q

ALP is increased in what

A

Liver disease

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49
Q

What is stimulated by the hormones glucagon, cortisol, and thyroxine

A

Glucogenisis

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50
Q

what is the chief non-protein in the blood?

A

Urea Nitrogen

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51
Q

What mineral is essential for myocardial contraction

A

Calcium

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52
Q

What level is the reduction of oxaloacetate to malate dehydrogenase

A

AST

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53
Q

An old brain bleed will cause CSF fluid to look be what color?

A

Yellow

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54
Q

A traumatic tap will cause CSF fluid to look be what color?

A

Red

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55
Q

This agar has Hemin (X factor) and V factor for growth

A

Chocolate

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56
Q

The 5 antisera used to determine genotype are

A

Anti-C, Anti D, Anti-E, Anti-c, Anti-e

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57
Q

This is the test used to see how many fetal cells are in maternal circulation

A

Kleihauer - Betke Test

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58
Q

A secretor has what antigens

A

H

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59
Q

Stain for oval fat bodies

A

Sudan III

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60
Q

This is the binding of an antibody or complement to a red cell

A

Sensitization

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61
Q

Who was responsible for the Rh theory?

A

Weiner

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62
Q

Who is responsible for the ABO theory?

A

Lansteiner

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63
Q

What is the catalase test (reaction)?

A

The breakdown of Hydrogen peroxide to O2 and H20

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64
Q

This bacteria is found in urine and swarms on blood agar

A

Proteus Mirabilis

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65
Q

What are phylum cestodes known as?

A

Tapeworms

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66
Q

This bacteria is + on hippurate

A

Campylobacter Jenjuni

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67
Q

This type of anemia is characterized by inability to produce Hgb due to low iron and is microcytic

A

Iron deficiency

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68
Q

This type of anemia is characterized by RBCs being destroyed faster than they can be replaced. Sickle cell and Thalassemia are 2 of them

A

Hemolytic Anemia

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69
Q

Sickle cell anemia is caused by abnormal Hbg what?

A

Hemoglobin S

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70
Q

This type of anemia is characterized by the abnormal increase storage and utilization of iron during erythropoiesis?

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

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71
Q

What reaction is used as a strip test for Bilirubin

A

Diazo reaction

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72
Q

This ratio is used to access fetal lung maturity

A

L/S ratio

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73
Q

This is the dissociating of an antibody complex in a solution

A

Elution

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74
Q

What is MCV?

A

Mean Cell Volume - The average of RBC volume

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75
Q

What is MCH?

A

Mean Cell Hemoglobin - Average mass of Hemoglobin PER red cell

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76
Q

What is MCHC?

A

Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration -average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of PACKED red cells

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77
Q

What is RDW?

A

Red Cell Distribution Width - The coefficient of variation of red cell volume

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78
Q

These groups of anemias demonstrate mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia and result from a disorder in the synthesis of hemoglobin

A

Thalassemias

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79
Q

This is a test method used to detect cells that have been coated with antibodies

A

DAT

80
Q

Prothrombin time measures which pathway?

A

Extrinsic pathway

81
Q

What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X?

A

Prothrombin Group

82
Q

APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II and what

A

Fibrinogen

83
Q

What is the mathematical indicator for PT testing system for Vitamin K deficiencies?

A

ISI - International sensitivity index

84
Q

ELISA tests what response

A

Immune

85
Q

What term is used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens

A

Precipitation

86
Q

What is the source of the antibody for performing the forward group ABO/D typing?

A

Commercial antisera (Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-D)

87
Q

The purpose of the reverse group testing (ABO serum testing) is to detect what?

A

ABO antibodies

88
Q

A full dose of RhIG provides protection for up to how much D-positive red cells?

A

15mL

89
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is what?

A

A condition when a mother makes an antibody to red cell antigens from the fetus

90
Q

The immunodominant sugar for the B antigen is what

A

D-galactose

91
Q

Which test is used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo and uses the AHG reagent?

A

Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

92
Q

How long can FFP be stored if it was frozen within 8 hours of collection

A

1 year

93
Q

MacConkey Agar is what type of media?

A

differential and selective

94
Q

Which agar is used for the isolation of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and Shigella?

A

Hektoen Enteric Agar

95
Q

Normally sterile body fluids, bone and bone marrow and solid tissues should be examined for which pathogens?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Bacteroides spp, Enterobacteriaceae

96
Q

What medium is best for Mycobacterium tuber culosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

97
Q

What has a metallic sheen when grown on Eosin-methylene blue agar

A

E. Coli

98
Q

India ink stain is a rapid test for what

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

99
Q

Acid fast staining method using fluorochromes, auramine, and rhodamine is a rapid screening method for detection of what species of bacteria

A

Mycobacterium spp

100
Q

Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) inhibits growth of gram negative organisms except?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

101
Q

The interpretative categories of susceptible, intermediate and resistant are developed based on ?

A

extensive studies that correlate MIC

102
Q

Which of the following tests may be useful for differentiating Campylobacter jejuni from other organisms

A

Hippurate hydrolysis

103
Q

What is a high molecular weight glycoprotein that is normally secreated by the renal tubular epithelial cells

A

Tamm-Horsfall protein

104
Q

Bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen where?

A

Intestines

105
Q

What is the inactive state of a parasite?

A

Cyst

106
Q

What is a disadvantage of the zinc sulfate floatation method in fecal specimens?

A

Some helminth eggs do not concentrate well with the method

107
Q

What test is used for detection of group A Strep and influenza A

A

Optical immunoassay (OIA)

108
Q

What is a test system to assess platelet-related primary hemostasis with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time>

A

Closure Time

109
Q

What is selected as the method of choice by CLSI for measuring ESR?

A

Westergren method

110
Q

Which stain is the most sensitive and specific for granulocytes?

A

Myleoperoxidase

111
Q

Which stage of the neutrophil has a nucleus with fine chromatin nucleoli and agranular cytoplasm?

A

Myeloblast

112
Q

The Jendrassik-Grof and Evelyn-Malloy are most commonly used methods to measure what?

A

Bilirubin

113
Q

The most common method of illuminating specimens on a microscope?

A

Kohler Illumination

114
Q

What is 40 degrees Fahrenheit in Celsius

A

4

115
Q

Define directly proportional

A

When on value goes up by a certain percentage, the other goes up by the same percentage

116
Q

A differential shows a shift to the left with all stages of granulocyte maturation. What condition is this?

A

Chronic myelogenic leukemia

117
Q

This method is popular for waived, OTC testing

A

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

118
Q

Which combination of ABX could possibly be used for Tx if resistant to gentamicin?

A

Ampicillin and Streptomycin

119
Q

This bacteria is gram+, catalase +, coagulase +, Beta-hemolytic and occurs in clusters

A

Staphoccocus Aures

120
Q

This refers to the correctness of a test result

A

Accuracy

121
Q

The bacteria is Gram +, Catalase-, Alpha Hemoytic, Optochin + and occurs as diplococci and in chains

A

S.Pneumoniae

122
Q

This appear on red cells with G6PDH deficiency anemia

A

Heinz bodies

123
Q

These RBC inclusions will appear with b12 deficiency anemia

A

Cabot ring

124
Q

This marker is used to detect early reoccurrence of breast cancer in pts previously treated for it

A

CA27.29

125
Q

Tumor marker for ovarian cancer

A

CA125

126
Q

Selective media _____ growth of certain organisms

A

Inhibits

127
Q

Differential media ______between 2 or more groups

A

differentiates

128
Q

Blood agar used primarily for

A

Staphyloccus aureus and Streptococcus

129
Q

This antibody test is important because it detects antibodies that have attached to red cells either in vivo or in vitro but do NOT demonstrate visible agglutination in testing?

A

IgG

130
Q

Indirect immunofluorscent tests for ANA are based on the use of fluorescein-conjugated anti globulin and are extremely sensitive. If an individual has Sjögren’s syndrome, what flourscent pattern would you expect to see?

A

Nucleolar patterns

131
Q

What is the technique that uses conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope?

A

Direct Immunofluorescent assay (DAT)

132
Q

What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A?

A

Southern Blot

133
Q

What antibodies of the ABO blood group system typically cause rapid hemolysis of red cells is an incompatible unit of blood is transfused?

A

IgM

134
Q

The substance in which a solute is dissolved?

A

Solvent

135
Q

The most common method of illuminating specimens on a microscope is?

A

Koehler illumination

136
Q

5 situations that may result in a difficult vein puncture

A

IV lines, edema, scarring or burn patients, dialysis patients, mastectomy patients

137
Q

Which of the following instruments ionizes the target molecules then separates and measures the mass to charge ratio?

A

Mass spectrometry

138
Q

In what manner is the uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration?

A

Directly proportional

139
Q

The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known physical constant

A

Calibration

140
Q

What refers to the reproducibility of test results?

A

Precision

141
Q

What is released from the platelets as they adhere to the margins of the injury on the wall of a blood vessel? It promotes local, direct, biochemically stimulated narrowing of the torn blood vessel and of a locally intact blood vessel in the same vicinity of the injury?

A

Serotonin

142
Q

Prothrombin time measures what pathway

A

Extrinsic

143
Q

Current tests for platelets

A

Platelet count, platelet aggregation assays, platelet adhesion, and clot retraction

144
Q

The mononuclear phagocytes that are important in the defense against microorganisms, including mycobacteria, fungi, bacteria, protozoa and viruses are?

A

Monocytes and macrophages

145
Q

Which erythrocyte index is used to calculate rdw?

A

MCV

146
Q

Which development stage of the megakaryocyte is 25-50 um in diameter and has abundant acidophillic cytoplasm and a large multi-lobed nucleus?

A

Granular megakaryocyte

147
Q

Which stage of neutrophil has a nucleus with fine chromatin nucleoi and a granular cytoplasm

A

Myeloblast

148
Q

When a monocyte leaves the blood and enters the tissue it matures into what cell?

A

Macrophage

149
Q

As the neutrophil matures the characteristics that help distinguish the cell also change. Which neutrophil has reddish purple primary granules, also called nonspecific or azurphillic granules

A

Promyelocyte

150
Q

What macrocytic anemias are the result of vitamin b12 or folic acid deficiency or a combination of both?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

151
Q

Alteration in shape which include sherocytes, schistocytes, sickle cells, drepanocytes, ovalocytes, and target cells is called what

A

Piokilocytosis

152
Q

What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles such as microchondria and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes?

A

Prokaryotes

153
Q

Which happens regarding C-reactive protein following injury

A

Can increase 1000 times

154
Q

This marker is most useful in ovarian and endometrial cancers

A

CA125

155
Q

The main purpose of this marker is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy

A

CA15-3

156
Q

This is the fifth most abundant Cation in the body

A

Magnesium

157
Q

This is a significant increase in the plasma concentrations of urea and creatinine, in kidney insufficiency, what is the medical term for this?

A

Azotemia

158
Q

Which cardiac bio marker is freely filtered by the kidney which allows levels to return to normal 18 to 30 hours after the AMI

A

Myoglobin

159
Q

This is the ability of foreign material to bond to or interact and cause an immune response. It is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule and chemical composition of the substance?

A

Antigenicity

160
Q

A heterogeneous group of disorders that have in common increased storage of iron, especially in the mononuclear phagocytes system are

A

Sideroblastic anemias

161
Q

Morphologically anemias are generally classified as

A

Normochromic-normocytic, macrocytic, hypochromic-microcytic

162
Q

An inflammation sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassay is

A

C- reactive protein

163
Q
A

Eosinophil

164
Q
A

Macrophage

165
Q
A

Platelets

166
Q
A

Monocyte

167
Q

Nucleus is 2-5 lobes
No nucleoli
Cytoplasm is orange
Many small granules

A

Neutrophil

168
Q
A

Basophil

169
Q

These are 10-30xs larger than rbcs
Have multi-lobed nucleus
Have increased cytoplasm, light blue and no granules
Nucleoli are absent

A

Megakaryocyte

170
Q

2-3Xs larger than an RBC
Round nucleus with immature chromatin (not clumped)
Nucleoli present but less prominent
Cytoplasm faint blue with easy to stain granules

A

Promyleocyte

171
Q

Round nucleus with chromatin evenly distributed
2-4 nucleoli
Blue cytoplasm with NO granules

A

Myleoblast

172
Q

This term refers to abnormal variation of RBC size, and what are they

A

Anisocytosis

173
Q

This term refers to abnormal RBC Color variations , and what are they

A

Chromia

174
Q

This term refers to abnormal variations in RBC shapes

A

Pokilocytosis

175
Q

What are RBC inclusions

A

Pieces of material within a red cell, can indicate different disease states

176
Q

Hemoglobin is clustered in the center of this abnormal cell, seen in thalassemias and post-splenectomy

A

Target cell

177
Q

Seen mostly in thalassemia and iron deficiency anemias

A

Microcytic RBC

178
Q

The abnormal red cells are mostly seen in vitamin b12 and folate deficiency anemias, liver disease and chemotherapy pts

A

Macrocytic RBCs

179
Q

MCV of 85.0 fL and MCHC of 33.0 g/dL are indicative of what type of cells?

A

Normocytic, normochromic

180
Q

In fat catabolism what is produced first?

A

Acetoacetic Acid

181
Q

A Western blot is used to separate and detect what?

A

RNA

182
Q

The most common microscope in cellular biology that has the ability to distinguish between living and dead cells is?

A

Flourescent

183
Q

In what phase of the ESR process is a rouleaux formed?

A

Aggregation phase

184
Q

What are the precursors of platelets

A

Megakaryocytes

185
Q

What cells can Myeloblast so become?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, monophils, and monocytes (which become macrophages)

186
Q

Normal crystals found in alkaline urine

A

Triple phosphate, ammonium birate, calcium carbonate and amorphous phosphates

187
Q
A

Lucene crystals

188
Q
A

Amorphous crystals

189
Q
A

Ca Oxalate crystals

190
Q
A

CA phosphate crystals

191
Q
A

Uric acid crystals

192
Q
A

Cholesterol crystals

193
Q
A

Triple phosphate crystals

194
Q
A

Tyrosine crystals

195
Q
A

Acyclovir crystals

196
Q
A

Cystine crystals

AMT MLT Exam (1 decks)

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