Final Flashcards

1
Q

Emergency medication for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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2
Q

For blood pressure you would use a ____ dose of dopamine.

A

High Dose

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3
Q

What drug would you use for orthostatic hypotension?

A

Midodrine

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4
Q

What drugs would you use for MG?

A

“stigmines”

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5
Q

Why would you use pyridostigmine?

A

No unwanted CNS effect

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6
Q

What medication would you use in a cholinergic crisis?

A

Atrophine

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7
Q

What are the two drugs for alzheimers? Which inhibits Ache?

A

Donepezil*, memantine

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8
Q

What drug do we use for urinary retention?

A

Bethanechol Chloride

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9
Q

What is the purpose of Levodopa-Carbadopa?

A

Increase dopamine to treat parkinson’s disease.

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10
Q

Which combo drug for Levo-Carb is highly protein bound, inhibits COMT and AE is rhabdo?

A

Tolcapone

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11
Q

What is atrophine?

A

muscarinic agonist

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12
Q

Which drug would you use for urine spasticity?

A

Oxybutynin

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13
Q

What drugs would you use for IBS?

A

Lina, Lupi, Dicyclomine Hydrochlorine

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14
Q

What is a “pril” what are two main side effects?

A

ACE-I; hyperkalemia, ace cough

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15
Q

What are “sartans” , how many doses would you take for CHF?

A

ARBs; bind to angio II, 2 doses

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16
Q

What are “dipine” drugs, what dont they effect? What is the main concern?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker, HR, Hypotension

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17
Q

What is the suffix for beta-blockers? What do they treat. Black box warning?

A

“olol” HTN, glaucoma, dysrhythmia ; tiltrate over 14 days

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18
Q

Which drugs would you administer for a hypertensive crisis?

A

Nitroprusside, Hydralazine

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19
Q

What are the two sodium channel blockers? Why aren’t they used?

A

Quinidine, lidocane ; worsen dysrhytmia

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20
Q

What is an adverse effect of potassium channel blockers? What are the 4 drugs. When are they indicated?

A

Pulmonary/Hepatic Toxicity;
Sotalol, ibutilide, amiodarone, dofetilide
IV tachy

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21
Q

Which emergency drug converts SVT to NSR by depressing AV conduction?

A

Adenosine

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22
Q

What kind of drug is nitroglycerin? How long does it take to absorb?

A

Nitrate ; rapid 1-4min

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23
Q

What drug is used for first-line angina?

A

Ranolazine

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24
Q

Which drug is a potent vasoconstrictor used for shock? What labs to monitor?

A

Norepi ; ALT, AST

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25
Q

What drug is used for extraversion?

A

Phentolamine

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26
Q

What drug is a cardiac glycoside? TI? Common side effect?

A

Digoxin, .8-2ng/mL , yellow/green visual disruptions

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27
Q

What is the antidote for Digoxin?

A

Digifab

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28
Q

By increasing Ca++ in the heart, this drug decreases pre/afterload.

A

Milrinone

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29
Q

When is Nesiritide contraindicated?

A

SBP < 90

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30
Q

Which drug allows ventricular filling?

A

Ivabradine

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31
Q

Which lab value would you run for Heparin? What is the antidote for Heparin?

A

aPTT
Protamine Sulfate

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32
Q

Which lab value would you run for Warfarin? What is the antidote for Warfarin?

A

INR/PT
Vitamin K

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33
Q

What is the antidote for Dabigatron?

A

Idarucizumab

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34
Q

What is clopidogrel contraindicated in?

A

PUD

35
Q

What dose of Aspirin is used for prevention of thrombi?

A

81mg

36
Q

Which anti-platelet is used for intermittent claudication?

A

Cilostazol

37
Q

Which thrombolytic destroys clots post PE, CVA?

A

Altepase

38
Q

What is the purpose of a statin? When to administer? Side effect?

A

Decrease LDL, VLDL ; 80% in stool
HS
Myalgia’s , rhabdo

39
Q

Which dyslipidemic decreases absorption of drugs and fat soluble vitamins?

A

Cholestyramine

40
Q

Which drug increases HDL and is contraindicated in gallbladder disease?

A

Fibrates

41
Q

Which drug is used for familial hypercholesterima?

A

Alirocumab

42
Q

What are poeitin drugs are used for? When are they contraindicated?

A

Increasing HGB, HCT by inducing erythrocytes
In normal renal function or HGB <12g

43
Q

What is Filgrastim used for?

A

Stim WBC in neutropenia

44
Q

What drug would you use for anemia?

A

Ferrous
z-track
between meal ; not with milk, egg, or antiacid

45
Q

What is the most potent diuretic? When would you use this med? How many ml/min should you push?

A

Furosemide
PE, CHF - desired rapid effect
20ml/min

46
Q

Which diuretic is used first line for HTN?

A

“Thiazide”
Hydrochlororthiazine
Metolozone

47
Q

Used for HD, liver ascites and hyperaldosterone, what drug is potassium sparing? What kind of diet? Onset? Black box?

A

Spirolactone
Low K+
tumorigenic

48
Q

Which diuretic is osmotic, used to decrease h2o and electrolyte reabsorption? What is it to treat?

A

Mannitol
Intraocular/Intracranial pressure

49
Q

What is the antidote for mannitol?

A

Hyaluronidase

50
Q

This diuretic is used for glaucoma, acts at the aqueous humor and AE is metabolic acidosis.

A

Acetazolamide

51
Q

Which drugs are decongestants? What do they do? Black box?

A

Pseudoephedrine, Oxymetazoline
Vasoconstriction
Rebound congestion, only use 3-5 days

52
Q

Which drug is an expectorant?

A

Guanifenesin

53
Q

This mucolytic is used for cystic fibrosis and is an antidote for acetaminophen OD.

A

Acetylcysteine

54
Q

What do antihistamines treat?

A

Symptoms not hypersensitivity

55
Q

Which drug is a H1 antagonist for allergies?

A

Diphenhydramine
!CNS depression - watch older adult

56
Q

Why would Fexofenadine or Cetirisine be perfered over an H1 antagonist?

A

bind peripherally, dont cross BBB
safer in older adults

57
Q

Which drug would you use for an acute asthma attack?

A

Albuterol

58
Q

What should you ask a patient before prescribing Theophylline?

A

Do you smoke?

59
Q

Which drug do you need to rinse your mouth after use? Why?

A

Belcomethazine - cotricosteroid
Can cause candidia

60
Q

What is the black box for montelukast?

A

Neuropathic events

61
Q

Which drug is a mast cell stabilizer used for prophylaxis?

A

Cromolyn

62
Q

What is the black box for Omalizumab?

A

anaphylaxis

63
Q

Which insulin can be administered IV?

A

Regular

64
Q

Which drug antidiabetic is the first choice for type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin
Treat PCOS
Does not cause hypoglycemia
BB >80
Hold 48hr pre/post contrast

65
Q

What is the black box warning for Rosiglitaxone?

A

CHF, MI

66
Q

Which diabetic drug limits insulin release to balance insulin? AE effects?

A

Sitagliptin, upper respiratory effects

67
Q

Which diabetic drug has a black box warning for severe hypoglycemia when used with insulin?

A

PRAMLINITIDE

68
Q

Which drug excretes the right amount of insulin? What is the black box warning?

A

Exenatide; thyroid cancer

69
Q

What should the nurse use caution with when administering Canagliflozin?

A

Hypotension, dizziness

70
Q

Which drug is anorexiant by slowing norepi and seratonin?

A

Phentermine

71
Q

What is the purpose of Orlistat?

A

decrease 30% of fat and the absorption of calories
AE: incontinence

72
Q

Which drug neutralizes gastric acid?

A

Mylanta

73
Q

Which drug blocks HCL? What is an adverse effect?

A

Cimetide
Arrhythmia

74
Q

Which drug is the most potent to treat peptic ulcer disease by preventing gastric acid release? When should you take it?

A

Omeprazole
ACHS

75
Q

Which two drugs inhibit mucosal damage from NSAID’s?

A

Misoprostal - abortionifact
Sucralfate

76
Q

What are the two treatments for H. Pylori?

A

Triple - amoxicillian+ clarithromycin - acid reliever
Quad - bismuth

77
Q

When should you not administer Promethazine? What are adverse effects?

A

Children under 2, sub q
CNS depressants, liver failure

78
Q

What is purpose of hydroxyzine?

A

Block histamine CTZ

79
Q

Which drug does not produce drowsiness? what is AE effect?

A

Ondansetron
Prolonged QT wave

80
Q

What drug would you use for someone who is undergoing chemotherapy? Why?

A

Aprepitant
Treated delayed n/v

81
Q

Which laxative is bulk-forming, needing a full glass of water with administration, and takes 12-24hr to work?

A

Psyllium

82
Q

What drug is a cathartic that irritated the GI mucosa to produce a rapid response works in 6-12 hours?

A

Bisacodyl

83
Q

When would you use a saline catharitic?

A

bowel prep, takes 30-60 minutes
! electrolyte imbalance

84
Q

What is the purpose of using diphenoxylate with atropine as an antidiarrheal?

A

slows peristalsis 45-60min
! infectious cause