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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the difference between observational and controlled experiments?

A

Observational takes advantage of natural variation in the independent variable.
Controlled is where the experimenter changes the values of treatments.

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2
Q

In an experiment where the scientists controlled the amount of heat applied to a liquid and measured the time it takes to evaporate 1000mL, which is the independent variable?

A

Amount of heat applied

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3
Q

The atomic number of an element is:

A

the number of protons

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4
Q

In an aqueous salt solution, salt is described as the:

A

Solute

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5
Q

Which of the following is hydrophobic?
A)cholesterol
B)starch
C)DNA
D)sucrose

A

A) Cholesterol

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6
Q

Which of the following represents a protein’s secondary structure?
A)Helices
B)Sequence pf amino acids
C)three-dimensional shape
D)association of polypeptides

A

A) Helices

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7
Q

Which of the following is a protein?
A)ATP synthase
B)Cholesterol
C)DNA
D)Lactose

A

A) ATP synthase

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8
Q

Photosynthesis takes place in which organelle?

A

Chloroplasts

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9
Q

Which of the following organelles does not have a membrane?
A)central vacuole
B)microfilament
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)Lysosome

A

B) Microfilament

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10
Q

The Na-K pump is an example of:
Facilitated diffusion
Passive diffusion
Active Transport
High blood pressure

A

Active Transport

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11
Q

What best describes an anabolic chemical reaction that requires added energy from ATP to occur?
Exergonic
Entropy
Endergonic
Spontaneous

A

Endergonic

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12
Q

Explain how a covalent bond is different from an ionic bond.

A

Covalent bonds occur between atoms that share a pair of valence electrons. Ionic bonds are attractions between anions & cations.

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13
Q

Explain what it is about carbon that allows it to make long chains while other elements don’t.

A

Carbon has four valence electrons so it can make 4 nonpolar covalent bonds. Other common elements in biological systems have more valence electrons and make fewer bonds.

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14
Q

Explain at least two ways that RNA is different than DNA.

A

RNA has A,C,G, and U as its four nucleotides whereas DNA has A, C, G, and T.
RNA is typically single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded

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15
Q

Describe the differences that distinguish prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.

A

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus, whereas prokaryotic cells do not.
Eukaryotic cells are typically much larger than prokaryotic cells

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16
Q

Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.

A

The plasma membrane, is a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

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17
Q

Describe what enzymes are and what they do.

A

enzymes are proteins that serve as biological catalysts. They speed up specific chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy.

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18
Q

Provide a brief explanation of the Endosymbiosis Theory.

A

Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells originated from symbiotic prokaryotes

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19
Q

Name the organelles of cytoplasm and summarize their functions.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum: functions in cell membrane synthesis and production of proteins and other molecules to be secreted from the cell.

Golgi apparatus: receives vesicles from the ER, the contents of which are further chemically processed, then it sends vesicles to their targets.

mitochondrion: sites of most ATP production

Chloroplast: where photosynthesis takes place

Vacuole: larger membrane-bound spaces separate from the cytosol

Lysosomes: digest the contents of other membrane-bound organelles.

Vesicles: transport substances around the cell.

Ribosomes: synthesizes proteins as directed by RNA

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20
Q

Define exergonic and endergonic and explain what it means that ATP serves as an energy coupling agent.

A

Exergonic reactions are chemical reactions that release free energy. Endergonic reactions are chemical reactions that require the addition of free energy to proceed.

The energy released from exergonic reactions can power endergonic reactions. ATP is a molecule in living systems that couples those two processes. The free energy from an exergonic reaction can be used to attach a phosphate group to a molecule of ADP, making an ATP. That molecule of ATP can release the energy stored in its phosphate bond to fuel an endergonic reaction.

Any exergonic reaction can be used to make a new ATP - provided an enzyme can mediate the reaction. And any ATP molecule can be used to power an endergonic reaction as long as an enzyme does it. ATP is the universal adaptor between various energy molecules and work done in cells.

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21
Q

Describe the structure of gap junctions. Where are they found, what are they made of?

A

Gap junctions are composed of integral membrane proteins called connexins, 6 of which are arranged in a ring to form a hemichannel. Clusters of hemichannels in the membrane of one cell are aligned with the hemichannels of an adjacent cell for gap junctions.

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22
Q

Which of the following takes place in the mitochondria?
Citric Acid Cycle
fermentation
glycolysis
photosynthesis

A

Citric Acid Cycle

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23
Q

What is segregated during mitosis?

A

sister chromatids

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24
Q

what is segregated during Meiosis 1?

A

Homologs

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25
Q

Which occurs in both cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
Electron transport chain
citric acid cycle
signal transduction

A

Electron transport chain

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26
Q

Which of the following is not a product of photosynthesis?
O2
C6H12O6
CO2
glucose

A

CO2

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27
Q

Where is chlorophyll found?

A

photosystems

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28
Q

What is epistasis?

A

a trait is controlled by multiple genes

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29
Q

Which is the cellular process that explains Mendel’s laws

A

Meiosis

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30
Q

Two genes that are close to each other on the same chromosome…

A

are linked

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31
Q

What is an example of reception?

A

ligand binds membrane proteins

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32
Q

DNA is replicated during:

A

S phase

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33
Q

How much ATP is produced per glucose molecule during aerobic respiration? How many are produced under anaerobic conditions?

A

Aerobic: 30-32 atp per glucose

Anaerobic 2-4 atp per glucose

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34
Q

summarize the reactants, products, and source of energy for photosynthesis

A

Co2+H20 -> glucose / G3P +O2

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35
Q

Describe how chromosomes are arranged differently in eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

Eukaryotes have multiple, linear chromosomes in a membrane-bound nucleus

Prokaryotes have a single, circular chromosome

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36
Q

Pea plants can reproduce by self-fertilization, one plant produces seeds for new plants. is this asexual or sexual preproduction? How do you know?

A

This is sexual reproduction because it involves fertilization, there are gametes produced by meiosis.

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37
Q

When Mendel crossed true-breeding pea plants with green seeds with those having yellow seeds, all the F1s were yellow. Explain why.

A

The true-breeding parents were each homozygous for the yellow and green alleles. All the F1s were heterozygous (one yellow allele, one green allele), and yellow is dominant

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38
Q

Explain the role of sex chromosomes in humans

A

sex chromosomes are chromosomes that determine the sex of an organism, whether it will develop ovaries to make eggs or testes to make sperm, or both. In humans two x chromosomes result in female while XY results in male

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39
Q

ATP Synthase

A

powered by H+ pump

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40
Q

Pyruvate

A

product of glycolysis, citric acid cycle

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41
Q

Rubisco

A

enzyme of carbon fixation

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42
Q

CAM PLANT

A

solves photorespiration

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43
Q

Kinase

A

phosphorylates protein

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44
Q

Ligand

A

binds to receptor

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45
Q

Kinetochore

A

spindle attachments at centromere

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46
Q

Diploid

A

two sets of chromosomes

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47
Q

Haploid

A

gamete

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48
Q

Dominant

A

phenotype of the heterozygote

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49
Q

recessive

A

expressed only as homozygote

50
Q

pleiotropy

A

one gene, multiple traits

51
Q

SRY

A

results in testies

52
Q

crossing-over

A

aster formation

53
Q

hemizygous

A

human male X genotype

54
Q

connexin

A

part of a hemichannel

55
Q

Antiparallel

A

DNA strands run in opposite directions

56
Q

semiconservative

A

original dna strand serves as a template for the new strand

57
Q

helicase

A

separates DNA strands at the replication fork

58
Q

Codon

A

3 nucleotides or mrna
coding part of primary transcript

59
Q

anticodon

A

part of trna

60
Q

intron

A

removed from primary transcript

61
Q

missense mutation

A

change in amino acid

62
Q

exon

A

coding part of primary transcript

63
Q

operator

A

binds the repressor at the promoter

64
Q

inducible operon

A

off unless it needs to be on

65
Q

oncogene

A

results in too much cell division

66
Q

Activator

A

binds to enhancer

67
Q

tumor-suppressor gene

A

stops cell division

68
Q

TAQ

A

DNA polymerase

69
Q

restriction endonuclease

A

cuts ds DNA

70
Q

histone

A

chromatin protein that dna wraps around

71
Q

In an experiment by Hershey and chase, they did two different treatments, one with phage grown with radioactive sulfur and one with radioactive phosphorus, explain why these two elements were used.

A

Sulfur is found in proteins but not nucleic acids, and phosphorous is part of nucleic acids but not proteins. There could be used to separately track the protein capsid and nucleic acid genomes of the phages in the experiment

72
Q

Which of the following is the correct complementary base-pairing?
guanine:cytosine
guanine:guanine
guanine:thymene
guanine:uracil

A

Guanine:Cytosine

73
Q

Which is not involved with the leading strand?
DNA POL 3
Okazaki fragment
primer
single-stranded binding protein

A

Okazaki fragment

74
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the process of transcription?
DNA
Ribosome
RNA polymerase
mRNA

A

Ribosome

75
Q

Which is not involved in the process of translation?
Ribosome
mrna
trna
RNA polymerase

A

RNA polymerase

76
Q

Which of the following is not an example of mRNA processing
poly-A tail
Tata Box
5’ cap
exon splicing

A

Tata box

77
Q

Which of the following is complementary to 5’-ATG GTG-3’
5’-CAC CAT-3’
3’-GTG GTA-5’
3’-GCA ACA-5’
5’-AUG GUG-3’

A

5’-CAC CAT-3’

78
Q

The trp operon is_____, which means it is________

A

repressible, on unless turned off

79
Q

What is the role of a proto-oncogene?

A

stimulate cell division

80
Q

which is located furthest upstream of a gene?
enhancer
intron
TATA box
promoter

A

Enhancer

81
Q

A prion is what type of biological molecule?

A

protein

82
Q

Which best describes reverse transcription?
protein to RNA
RNA to protein
RNA to DNA
DNA to RNA

A

RNA to DNA

83
Q

Which of the following produces “sticky ends”?
DNA Ligase
PCR
Restriction enzyme
sanger sequencing

A

restriction enzyme

84
Q

What is a gene? Explain what a gene is made of, what it does, and how it does it.

A

A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that code for a specific polypeptide. Polypeptides are used in proteins that are enzymes, structural elements, etc., of cells. Genotypes are DNA, and proteins result in phenotypes

85
Q

What is the central dogma of biology?

A

The information in double-stranded DNA is transcribed into single-stranded RNA, which is translated into polypeptides/proteins

86
Q

explain the difference between a point mutation and a frameshift mutation

A

a point mutation is a substitution of one nucleotide for another. for example A for a G. If this mutation occurs within the coding region of a gene, it would change a single codon and potentially change the resulting protein

a frameshift mutation results from an insertion or deletion of a nucleotide. not only does this change the codon where the mutation occurs but all the codons downstream will be changed because of the shift in the codon reading frame

87
Q

Explain what transcription factors are and what they do

A

Transcription factors bind at the promoter immediately upstream of the gene to get to a rna polymerase situated. Specific transcription factors have binding sites far upstream in the enhancer region. together they determine whether a specific gene will be expressed in a specific cell

88
Q

describe a way that viruses are known to violate the central dogma

A

two ways that viruses violate the central dogma are
whereas living cells have a genome of double-stranded dnd, viruses can have genomes of dna or rna, and it can be single or double stranded

many rna viruses are capable of reverse transcription, making dna from an rna template

89
Q

explain the difference between mutations and epimutations

A

mutation s are changes to the genome that lead to changes in phenotype. Specifically traditional mutations refer to changes in the nucleic acid sequence of a coding region or even changes in binding sites for transcription factors, that results in changes in gene expression and phenotype

epimutations specifically refer to changes in other components of chromatin structure that result in changes in gene expression, such as methylation of dna or histones or changes in how the dna is made in accessible by being condensed around histones. the dna nucleotide sequences remains unchanged, but phenotype is affected by changes to gene expression

90
Q

valence shell

A

shareable electrons

91
Q

proton

A

located in an atomic nucleus

92
Q

isomer

A

same formula, different structure

93
Q

hydrophilic

A

repels water

94
Q

hydrophilic

A

dissolves in water

95
Q

dehydration reaction

A

binds monomers

96
Q

hydrolysis

A

separates monomers

97
Q

nucleic acid

A

dna

98
Q

Amino acid

A

monomer of a polypeptide

99
Q

nuclear envelope

A

double membrane

100
Q

ribosome

A

site of protein synthesis

101
Q

hydrogen bond

A

attraction of partial charges

102
Q

microtubule

A

cytoskeleton

103
Q

vesicle

A

travels from ER to golgi

104
Q

hypotonic

A

less concentrated

105
Q

hypertonic

A

more concentrated

106
Q

Explain the difference between an observational experiment and a controlled experiment

A

The observational experiment takes advantage of a natural variation in the independent variable, whereas in controlled experiments, the experimenter manipulates the values of the treatments of the independent variable.

Controlled experiment is when the experimenter manipulates the values of the treatments of the independent variable

107
Q

Structure of Nucleic acids

A

5 carbon sugar
phosphate group
nitrogenous base: purines, pyrimidines

108
Q

Griffith 1928 experiment

A

Discovered that dead S strain of pneumonia could transform live R strain and have it cause disease

109
Q

Chargaff 1950

A

Isolated DNA and hydrolyzed nucleotides apart and showed that composition is different among organisms - A &T and C&G are in same proportion

110
Q

Hershey and Chase 1952

A

Demonstrated that bacteriophages pass on DNA, not proteins, into bacteria by radioactively marking DNA

111
Q

Watson, Crick, and Franklin 1952

A

Franklin used X-Ray crystallography showed double helix and watson and crick made 3d model of DNA

112
Q

Origin of replication

A

where strands separate to allow replication

113
Q

replication fork

A

at each end of bubble, expands away from origin

114
Q

Helicase

A

unzips strand at each fork ahead of it

115
Q

single-stranded binding proteins

A

keeps strands apart

116
Q

topoisomerase

A

stabilizes DNA as fork approaches

117
Q

DNA Polymerase 3

A

Enzyme that reads the template strand and adds nucleotides to 3’ end, elongation on 5’ to 3’ direction

118
Q

Primase

A

makes RNA primer for DNA pol 3

119
Q

DNA Pol 1

A

replaces Rna primer with dna

120
Q

DNA ligase

A

bonds two okazaki fragments together

121
Q

Chromosome structure of prokaryotes

A

single circular chromosome

122
Q

chromosome structure of eukaryotes

A

multiple linear chromosomes

Biology Final (1 decks)

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