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final Flashcards

1
Q

what is structuralism

A
  • The analysis of the mind in terms of its basic elements
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2
Q

what is structuralism

A
  • The analysis of the mind in terms of its basic elements
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3
Q

contributor to structuralism

A
  • 1879: Wandt and Titchener – 1st experimental psych lab
  • Studied the basic elements of consciousness : sensations
  • Criticised for being subjective
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4
Q

what is functionalism

A
  • Understanding the adaptive purpose of our thoughts, feelings and behaviour
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5
Q

contributor to funcitonalism

A

 William James (1842-1910)
 Used both theoretical and empirical methods
 Modern evolutionary psychology

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6
Q

contributors to behaviourism

A

• 1910: Pavloviam conditioning (physiologist)
- Sound (tone) that was previously associated iwht food can elicit salivation
• 1911: THorndikes law of effect
- Responses followed by a satisfying consequences are likely to recur, those followed by unsatisfying consequences are less likely to recur
• Watsom (1878-1958)
- The proper subject matter of psychology is behaviour, ot unobservable inner consciousness
- Little ablbert study
• Skinner (1904-1990)

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7
Q

what is cognitivism

A
  • Studies mental processes, including perception, thinking, memory and judgment
     1960s dissfaction with view that mental life was irrelevant
     Thinking has a powerful influence on behaviour
     Computer metaphor
     Some leading figures include Niesser, Piaget, Broadbent
     Experimental methods used o tinder unobserved mental processes
     Remains the dominant framework in psychology
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8
Q

what is motivation

A

= the driver of directed behaviours; particularly out wants and needs

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9
Q

early perspectives of motivation

A

• Psychodynamic Perspective (Freud) – theorised behaviours motivated by unconscious and conscious desires, which are not in unison
- Three theoretical construts of psyche
 iD: unconscious, instinicual, irrational drices, eors and Thanatos
 superego: morally responsible drives, operates at preconscious awareness
 ego: conscious, rational mind, ensures id and superego drives manifest appropriately

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10
Q

historical measure for motivation

A
  • Thematic apperception tests (TATs) claim to measure unconscious desires
  • Longitudal study 1950-1962
  • Method
     TAT responses assessed four social motives: achievement, power, affiliation and intimacy motivation
     Self-report survey of motives (e.g. “is achievement important to you”)
     Psychosocial adjustment: income, job promotion and enjoyment, marriage satisfaction, drug use, days off sick etc.
  • Results:
     Achievement (assessed by TAT) more predictive of long term entrepreneurial success htan self-report)
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11
Q

explain drive reduction theories

A
  • Formulated in 1940s
  • Thirst, hunger and sexual frustration drive us to reduce the averseness of these states
  • Some drives are hierarchical – thirst satisfaction > hunger satisfaction
  • Motivated to maintain psychological homeostasis (or equilibrium
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12
Q

explain yerkes dodson law

A
  • Arousal affects strength of drives (Yerkes-Dodson, 1908)
  • Inverted U-shaped curve represents relationship between arousal level and performance quality (zajonic, 1965)
  • Professional athletes perform between with an audience, novice athletes perform better without an audience (Zajonc, 1965)
  • Under-arousal causes ‘stijmulus hunger’ – a drive for stimulation
  • ‘stimulus-hunger’ may be satisfied in numerous ways (e.g. chatting with friends, watching TV, fidgeting etc.)
  • Under-arousal can increase curiosity (berlye, 1960)
  • Sensory deprivation experiments – induced under arousal (Zuckerman and Hopkins, 1966)
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13
Q

explain clashign drives

A
  • Approach-approach conflict – e.g. dinner versus concert?
  • Avoidance-avoidance conflict – e.g. failing exam versus studying for exam
  • Approach-avoidance conflict – e.g. approaching attractive person versus fear of rejection
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14
Q

explain incentive theories

A
  • Drive reduction (DRT) inadequare; we repeatedly engage in behaviours despite satisfaction of drives
  • Incentive theories build on DRT – driven by positive goals
  • Incentive theories further differentiate between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation
  • Intrinsic motivation can be devalued by extrinsic reinforcements (Lepper, Greene and Nisbett, 1973)
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15
Q

explain sexual motivation

A
  • Libido, human sexual desire, drive for sexual activity and pleasure (Regan and Berscheid, 1999)
  • Physiological drivers of libido include testosterone and a protein (DRD4) related to neurotransmitter dopamine
  • ## Link between genes and self-reported sexual desire – 19% had DRD4 variation linked with increased sexual desire
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16
Q

what are reasons men have higher libido

A

Evidenc suggests men have stronger libido than women because men:

  1. Desire sex more freqwuently and experience more arousal (hiller 2005)
  2. Have more variety and number of sexual fantasies (lietenbery and henning, 1995)
  3. Masturbate more frequently ( Oliver and Hyde 1993)
  4. Want more sexual partners (buss and Schmitt 1993)
  5. Want to have sex earlier than women in relationships (spreecher, barbee and schwartz, 1995)
    - But variability within and between sexes exists
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17
Q

explain the sexual response cycle

A
  • Pionerring research by Masters and Johnson in mid-1950s into human sexual reosonse
  • Human sexual reponse cycle has 4 phases (Kaplan 1977)
    1. Desire phase
    2. Excitement/plateau phase
    3. Orgasm ohase
    4. Resolution phase
  • Feelings of love fro ones partner and connection with ones partner predicts sexual satisfaction (Young et al. 2000)
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18
Q

acronym for goal setting:

A
  1. S pecific
  2. M easurable
  3. A ction-oriented (not outcome)
  4. R ealistic
  5. T ime-based
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19
Q

explain bandura and ceryones 1983 study on goals and effect of feedback

A
  • Participants engage in strenuous exercise cross-trainer task for 5 mins, three different times during study:
    1. Baseline: no instruction given by experimenter beforehand
    2. 2nd rouxnd: received 1 of 4 types of instruction from experimenter afterwards
    3. 3rd round: no instruction given by experimenter beforehand
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20
Q

what does “fat” mean

A

“fat” – referring to the amount of white fat cells stores on a persons body (we have more when we consume more energy (calories) than we expend

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21
Q

what are the BMI categories

A

18-25, 25-30 is overweight and 30+ obese

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22
Q

what are the two modes the body has of energy storage

A
  • A short-term store using glucose (less important for intake)
  • A long term store using fat (more important for intake)
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23
Q

how do changes in body fat affect appetite

A
  • Fat cell secrete a hormone called leptin
  • More fat= more leptin, supressing appetite
  • Less fat = less leptin, allowing food intake to increase
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24
Q

what part of the brain helps to stop eating

A

 Ventromedial nucelus (stop eating)

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25
Q

what part of the brain helps to start eating

A

 Lateral hypothalamus (start eating)

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26
Q

what part of the cortex is responsible for impulsiivity

A

frotnal

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27
Q

what part of the cortex is responsible for interoception

A

insula

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28
Q

explain how does portions vary

A

• people tend to eat what is Infront of them
- If you have a large plate you will east more than if you have a small one
- If you are given a larger serving you will eat more
- Average portions sizes have increased in recent times
• Mean portion sizes in the US are on average 25% larger than in France
- So are the plate sizes, recipe book portions, and even guidebooks focus more on portion size in the US than in France
- A candy bar in Philadelphia was 41% large than the same candy bar sold in paris
- A soft drink was 52% larger and a hot dog was 63% larger
- A carton of yoghurt was 82% larger

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29
Q

when and how much we eat is driven by….

A
  • When and how much we eat seems to be mainly driven by environmental factors that we ar not usually aware of – mindless eating – environment/brain
  • Biological factors are probably only important at the extremes (starvation? gross over-indulgence) – body/brain
  • Consiuos control of food intake probably only plays a small role – self-brain
  • Conclusion: the brain ultimately controls how much we eat, so when control of eating breaks down, this is a brain-related problem
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30
Q

Binge eating disorder

A
  • repeated binges – no compensation – in 9-18% obese people
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31
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • dietary restriction (and/or purging) intense fear of weight gain, disturbance of body image – in 0.5-2% of women
  • no single cause
  • significant genetic components (obsessive compulsive traits – perfectionism, rigidity), common appearance at menarche coincides with a major redistribution of body fat creating a ‘window of vulnerability’
  • stress, adverse life events, cultural emphasis on thinness also play a role
  • difficult to treat and most lethal of all psychiatric disorders (5-10% lifetime mortality)
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32
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A
  • binge eating with compensation, adverse self-evaluation – in 1-3% of women
  • multi-factorial but far easier to treat than AN
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33
Q

Muscle dysmorphia

A
  • body dysmorphia disorder subclass
  • centred around building more muscle – preoccupated with body being too small or insufficiently muscular
  • more commen in men (2.2% vs. 1.4% in women)
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34
Q

Orthorexia nervosa

A
  • not formally recognised
  • not in DNA – 5th Ed – but becoming more recognised
  • obsession with “healthful/proper/clean eating”
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35
Q

what is the funciton of leanriing

A

It helps us to adapt to changing conditions in the world.

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36
Q

definition of learning

A

“a relatively permanent change in behavioural potentiality that occurs as a result of reinforced practice” (Kimble, 1961)

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37
Q

define associative learning

A
  • Associative learning: result of learning to associate one stimulus with another
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38
Q

what are the costs of leanrin gq

A
  1. there is delayed reproductive effort and/or success
  2. increased juvenile vulnerability
  3. increased parental investment in young
  4. Greater complexity of the nervous system: learning requires complex CNS  requires high energy costs to main and serve nerve tissue. Brains use 20% metabolic energy but is only 2% of the body’s weight learning abilities cost energy
  5. developmental fallibility: trial and error vs. instinct danger of learning wrong info. instincts guard against that
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39
Q

what are the types of leanring

A
  1. NOTICING AND IGNORING – sensitisation and habituation
    - need to notice important events but learn to ignore events that occur repeatedly without consequence
  2. LEANRING WHAT EVENTS SIGNAL – classical conditioning
    - need to learn when something is about to happen so that we can prepare for it
  3. LEARNING ABOUT THE CONSEQUENCES OF OUR BEHAVIOUR – operant conditioning
    - need to lean the results of our behaviours to avoid making mistakes and repeat behaviours that produce positive outcomes; learn when and how to act
  4. LEARNING FROM OTHERS – observational learning
    - need to learn from the results of the behaviours of others as well
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40
Q

what is habituation

A

decline in the tendency to respond to an event that has become familiar through repeated presentation; can be short or long term

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41
Q

what is the simplest form of learning

A

habituation

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42
Q

when does senstistation

A

o SENSITATIONS OCCURS WHNE OUR REPONse ot an event increases rather than decreases with repeated exposure
- often we become sensitised to repeqated loud noises and our reaction becomes more intense and prolonged e.g. baby crying

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43
Q

what is classical condnitonig

A

CLASSICAL CONDITIONING: a form of learning in which animals come to respond to a previously neutral stimulus that has been paired with another stimulus that elicits an automatic response
 we learn that a stimulus predicts the occurrence of a certain event and we respond accordingly

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44
Q

explain pavlovs discovery regarding classical conditoning

A

• Ivan Pavlov’s primary research was the digestion of dogs – however he observed the dogs seemed to be anticipating the meat powder and responded to the stimuli that signalled the foods arrival

  1. started with a neutral stimulus (NS, one that did not elicit any particular response) – Pavlov used a metronome
  2. he paired the neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus (UCS, a stimulus that elicits an automatic reflexive response) e.g. meat powder and the reflexive response was the unconditioned response (UCR, an unlearned response to an unconditioned stimulus occurring without prior conditioning)
  3. Pavlov continued to pair conditioned stimulus (CS, previously NS that, through repeated pairings with US, now causes a CR) and UCS – observed the metronome elicited a response – salivation = conditioned response (CR, a response previously associated with a non-neutral stimulus that comes to be elicited by a neutral stimulus)
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45
Q

what is acquisition

A

the learning phase during which a conditioned response is established

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46
Q

explain acquisition

A

o As the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus are paired over and over again, the conditioned response increases progressively in strength
o backward conditioning – UCS is present before the CS – is very difficult to achieve  for conditioning to work efficiently the CS must forecast the appearance of UCS

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47
Q

what is extinction

A

= gradual reduction and eventual elimination of the conditioned response after the conditioned stimulus is present repeatedly without the unconditioned stimulus

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48
Q

explain extinction

A

o The CR decreases in magnitude and eventually disappears when the CS is repeatedly presented alone
o during extinction a new response, which in the case of Pavlov’s dogs was the absence of salivation inhibits the CR (salivation) – becomes overshadowed by the new behaviour

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49
Q

what is spontaneous recovery

A

sudden re-emergence of an extinct conditioned response after a delay in exposure to the conditioned stimulus

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50
Q

what is the renewal effect

A

sudden re-emergences of a conditioned response following extinction when an animal is returned to the environment in which the conditioned response was acquired

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51
Q

what is stimulus generalisation

A

process by which conditioned stimuli similar, but not identical to the original conditioned stimulus elicit a conditioned response

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52
Q

explain stimulus generalisation

A

o occurs along a generalisation gradient: the more similar to the original CS the new CS is, the stronger the CR will be
o typically adaptive as it allows us to transfer what we have learned to new things

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53
Q

what is Stimulus discrimination

A

process by which conditioned stimuli similar but no identical , to the orginal conditioned stimulus elicit a conditioned response

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54
Q

explain Stimulus discrimination

A

o occurs when we exhibit a less pronounced CR to CSs that differ from the original CS
o is adaptive because it allows us to distinguish among srtimuli that share some similarites but that differ in inmporant ways

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55
Q

what is higher order conditioning

A

developing a conditioened response to a conditioned stimulis by virtue of its assoication with another conditioned stimulus

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56
Q

explain higher order conditioning

A

o allows us to extend classical conditioning to a host of new stimuli
o e.g. why when someone says “kebab” we feel hungry – we have already come to assoicate the sight, sound and smell of a kebab with satisfying our hunger and we will eventually come to assoicate the word”kebab” with these CSs
o two factors determine the extent of higher-order conditoning:
1. the similatiry between the higher-order stimulus and the original conditioned stimulus
2. the frequency and consistency with which the two conditioned stimuli are paired

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57
Q

2 applications of classical condtioning in daily life

A

advertising

fears and phobias

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58
Q

why does condiotnign responding develop

A
  • the CS doesn’t just “substitute” for the US (as was originally believed)
  • CR is not always the same as the UR
  • e.g. rats “freezing” instead of jumping when shoch is about to occur
  • cognitive view of classical condition the CS predicts the US (learn association_ and so we react by preparing for that event
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59
Q

what is excitory conditioning

A
  • relative likelihood of something (food) occuring given that something else (bell) did
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60
Q

what is inhibitory conditoining

A
  • relative likleihood of something NOT occuring given that something else did (bell)
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61
Q

what is OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION

A
  • emotion-arousing stimuli  emotional responses

- the concepts of habituation and sensation have been extended to emotions and motivated behaviour

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62
Q

who found the OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION

A

Solomon and Corbitt 1974

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63
Q

what did soloman and corbitt 1974 examine

A

OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION
o examined fear anf relief of skydivers before and after their jumps
o beginners experience extreme fear as hey jump, which is replaced with great relief when the y landl. With repeated jumps the fear decreases and the post-jump pleasure increases. This process may explain a variety of thrill-seeking behaviours
o Stage A (fear) decreases with more jumps
o `Stage B (relief/thrill) increases with more jumps

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64
Q

what is the a process according to soloman and corbitt 1974

A

the initial reaction

  • plot positive side of graph regardless of whether you find the experience pleasant or not.
  • onset stimulus causes a sudden emotional reaction, which quickly reaches its peak
  • lasts as long as the stimulus is present, then ends quickly
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65
Q

what is the b process according to soloman and corbitt 1974

A

After reaction

  • the offset stimulus causes an emotional after reaction that in some sense is the opposite of the initial reaction
  • is more sluggish in its onset and decay that the initial reaction
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66
Q

contributor to structuralism

A
  • 1879: Wandt and Titchener – 1st experimental psych lab
  • Studied the basic elements of consciousness : sensations
  • Criticised for being subjective
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67
Q

what is functionalism

A
  • Understanding the adaptive purpose of our thoughts, feelings and behaviour
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68
Q

contributor to funcitonalism

A

 William James (1842-1910)
 Used both theoretical and empirical methods
 Modern evolutionary psychology

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69
Q

contributors to behaviourism

A

• 1910: Pavloviam conditioning (physiologist)
- Sound (tone) that was previously associated iwht food can elicit salivation
• 1911: THorndikes law of effect
- Responses followed by a satisfying consequences are likely to recur, those followed by unsatisfying consequences are less likely to recur
• Watsom (1878-1958)
- The proper subject matter of psychology is behaviour, ot unobservable inner consciousness
- Little ablbert study
• Skinner (1904-1990)

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70
Q

what is cognitivism

A
  • Studies mental processes, including perception, thinking, memory and judgment
     1960s dissfaction with view that mental life was irrelevant
     Thinking has a powerful influence on behaviour
     Computer metaphor
     Some leading figures include Niesser, Piaget, Broadbent
     Experimental methods used o tinder unobserved mental processes
     Remains the dominant framework in psychology
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71
Q

what is motivation

A

= the driver of directed behaviours; particularly out wants and needs

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72
Q

early perspectives of motivation

A

• Psychodynamic Perspective (Freud) – theorised behaviours motivated by unconscious and conscious desires, which are not in unison
- Three theoretical construts of psyche
 iD: unconscious, instinicual, irrational drices, eors and Thanatos
 superego: morally responsible drives, operates at preconscious awareness
 ego: conscious, rational mind, ensures id and superego drives manifest appropriately

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1
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3
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73
Q

historical measure for motivation

A
  • Thematic apperception tests (TETs) claim to measure unconscious desires
  • Longitudal study 1950-1962
  • Method
     TAT responses assessed four social motives: achievement, power, affiliation and intimacy motivation
     Self-report survey of motives (e.g. “is achievement important to you”)
     Psychosocial adjustment: income, job promotion and enjoyment, marriage satisfaction, drug use, days off sick etc.
  • Results:
     Achievement (assessed by TAT) more predictive of long term entrepreneurial success htan self-report)
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74
Q

explain frive reduction theories

A
  • Formulated in 1940s
  • Thirst, hunger and sexual frustration drive us to reduce the averseness of these states
  • Some drives are hierarchical – thirst satisfaction > hunger satisfaction
  • Motivated to maintain psychological homeostasis (or equilibrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

explain yerkes dodson law

A
  • Arousal affects strength of drives (Yerkes-Dodson, 1908)
  • Inverted U-shaped curve represents relationship between arousal level and performance quality (zajonic, 1965)
  • Professional athletes perform between with an audience, novice athletes perform better without an audience (Zajonc, 1965)
  • Under-arousal causes ‘stijmulus hunger’ – a drive for stimulation
  • ‘stimulus-hunger’ may be satisfied in numerous ways (e.g. chatting with friends, watching TV, fidgeting etc.)
  • Under-arousal can increase curiosity (berlye, 1960)
  • Sensory deprivation experiments – induced under arousal (Zuckerman and Hopkins, 1966)
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76
Q

explain clashign drives

A
  • Approach-approach conflict – e.g. dinner versus concert?
  • Avoidance-avoidance conflict – e.g. failing exam versus studying for exam
  • Approach-avoidance conflict – e.g. approaching attractive person versus fear of rejection
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77
Q

explain incentive theories

A
  • Drive reduction (DRT) inadequare; we repeatedly engage in behaviours despite satisfaction of drives
  • Incentive theories build on DRT – driven by positive goals
  • Incentive theories further differentiate between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation
  • Intrinsic motivation can be devalued by extrinsic reinforcements (Lepper, Greene and Nisbett, 1973)
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78
Q

explain sexual motivation

A
  • Libido, human sexual desire, drive for sexual activity and pleasure (Regan and Berscheid, 1999)
  • Physiological drivers of libido include testosterone and a protein (DRD4) related to neurotransmitter dopamine
  • ## Link between genes and self-reported sexual desire – 19% had DRD4 variation linked with increased sexual desire
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79
Q

what are reasons men have higher libido

A

Evidenc suggests men have stronger libido than women because men:

  1. Desire sex more freqwuently and experience more arousal (hiller 2005)
  2. Have more variety and number of sexual fantasies (lietenbery and henning, 1995)
  3. Masturbate more frequently ( Oliver and Hyde 1993)
  4. Want more sexual partners (buss and Schmitt 1993)
  5. Want to have sex earlier than women in relationships (spreecher, barbee and schwartz, 1995)
    - But variability within and between sexes exists
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80
Q

explain the sexual response cycle

A
  • Pionerring research by Masters and Johnson in mid-1950s into human sexual reosonse
  • Human sexual reponse cycle has 4 phases (Kaplan 1977)
    1. Desire phase
    2. Excitement/plateau phase
    3. Orgasm ohase
    4. Resolution phase
  • Feelings of love fro ones partner and connection with ones partner predicts sexual satisfaction (Young et al. 2000)
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81
Q

acronym for goal setting:

A
  1. S pecific
  2. M easurable
  3. A ction-oriented (not outcome)
  4. R ealistic
  5. T ime-based
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82
Q

explain bandura and ceryones 1983 study on goals and effect of feedback

A
  • Participants engage in strenuous exercise cross-trainer task for 5 mins, three different times during study:
    1. Baseline: no instruction given by experimenter beforehand
    2. 2nd rouxnd: received 1 of 4 types of instruction from experimenter afterwards
    3. 3rd round: no instruction given by experimenter beforehand
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83
Q

what does “fat” mean

A

“fat” – referring to the amount of white fat cells stores on a persons body (we have more when we consume more energy (calories) than we expend

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84
Q

what are the BMI categories

A

18-25, 25-30 is overweight and 30+ obese

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85
Q

what are the two modes the body has of energy storage

A
  • A short-term store using glucose (less important for intake)
  • A long term store using fat (more important for intake)
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86
Q

how do changes in body fat affect appetite

A
  • Fat cell secrete a hormone called leptin
  • More fat= more leptin, supressing appetite
  • Less fat = less leptin, allowing food intake to increase
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87
Q

what part of the brain helps to stop eating

A

 Ventromedial nucelus (stop eating)

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88
Q

what part of the brain helps to start eating

A

 Lateral hypothalamus (start eating)

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89
Q

what part of the cortex is responsible for impulsiivity

A

frotnal

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90
Q

what part of the cortex is responsible forinteroception

A

insula

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91
Q

explain how does portions vary

A

• people tend to eat what is Infront of them
- If you have a large plate you will east more than if you have a small one
- If you are given a larger serving you will eat more
- Average portions sizes have increased in recent times
• Mean portion sizes in the US are on average 25% larger than in France
- So are the plate sizes, recipe book portions, and even guidebooks focus more on portion size in the US than in France
- A candy bar in Philadelphia was 41% large than the same candy bar sold in paris
- A soft drink was 52% larger and a hot dog was 63% larger
- A carton of yoghurt was 82% larger

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92
Q

when and how much we eat is driven by….

A
  • When and how much we eat seems to be mainly driven by environmental factors that we ar not usually aware of – mindless eating – environment/brain
  • Biological factors are probably only important at the extremes (starvation? gross over-indulgence) – body/brain
  • Consiuos control of food intake probably only plays a small role – self-brain
  • Conclusion: the brain ultimately controls how much we eat, so when control of eating breaks down, this is a brain-related problem
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93
Q

Binge eating disorder

A
  • repeated binges – no compensation – in 9-18% obese people
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94
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • dietary restriction (and/or purging) intense fear of weight gain, disturbance of body image – in 0.5-2% of women
  • no single cause
  • significant genetic components (obsessive compulsive traits – perfectionism, rigidity), common appearance at menarche coincides with a major redistribution of body fat creating a ‘window of vulnerability’
  • stress, adverse life events, cultural emphasis on thinness also play a role
  • difficult to treat and most lethal of all psychiatric disorders (5-10% lifetime mortality)
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95
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A
  • binge eating with compensation, adverse self-evaluation – in 1-3% of women
  • multi-factorial but far easier to treat than AN
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96
Q

Muscle dysmorphia

A
  • body dysmorphia disorder subclass
  • centred around building more muscle – preoccupated with body being too small or insufficiently muscular
  • more commen in men (2.2% vs. 1.4% in women)
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97
Q

Orthorexia nervosa

A
  • not formally recognised
  • not in DNA – 5th Ed – but becoming more recognised
  • obsession with “healthful/proper/clean eating”
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98
Q

what is the funciton of leanriing

A

It helps us to adapt to changing conditions in the world.

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99
Q

definition of learning

A

“a relatively permanent change in behavioural potentiality that occurs as a result of reinforced practice” (Kimble, 1961)

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100
Q

define associative learning

A
  • Associative learning: result of learning to associate one stimulus with another
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101
Q

what are the costs of leanrin gq

A
  1. there is delayed reproductive effort and/or success
  2. increased juvenile vulnerability
  3. increased parental investment in young
  4. Greater complexity of the nervous system: learning requires complex CNS  requires high energy costs to main and serve nerve tissue. Brains use 20% metabolic energy but is only 2% of the body’s weight learning abilities cost energy
  5. developmental fallibility: trial and error vs. instinct danger of learning wrong info. instincts guard against that
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102
Q

what are the types of leanring

A
  1. NOTICING AND IGNORING – sensitisation and habituation
    - need to notice important events but learn to ignore events that occur repeatedly without consequence
  2. LEANRING WHAT EVENTS SIGNAL – classical conditioning
    - need to learn when something is about to happen so that we can prepare for it
  3. LEARNING ABOUT THE CONSEQUENCES OF OUR BEHAVIOUR – operant conditioning
    - need to lean the results of our behaviours to avoid making mistakes and repeat behaviours that produce positive outcomes; learn when and how to act
  4. LEARNING FROM OTHERS – observational learning
    - need to learn from the results of the behaviours of others as well
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103
Q

what is habituation

A

decline in the tendency to respond to an event that has become familiar through repeated presentation; can be short or long term

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104
Q

what is the simplest form of learning

A

habituation

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105
Q

when does senistation

A

o SENSITATIONS OCCURS WHNE OUR REPONse ot an event increases rather than decreases with repeated exposure
- often we become sensitised to repeqated loud noises and our reaction becomes more intense and prolonged e.g. baby crying

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106
Q

what is classical condnitonig

A

CLASSICAL CONDITIONING: a form of learning in which animals come to respond to a previously neutral stimulus that has been paired with another stimulus that elicits an automatic response
 we learn that a stimulus predicts the occurrence of a certain event and we respond accordingly

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107
Q

explain pavlovs discovery regarding classical conditoning

A

• Ivan Pavlov’s primary research was the digestion of dogs – however he observed the dogs seemed to be anticipating the meat powder and responded to the stimuli that signalled the foods arrival

  1. started with a neutral stimulus (NS, one that did not elicit any particular response) – Pavlov used a metronome
  2. he paired the neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus (UCS, a stimulus that elicits an automatic reflexive response) e.g. meat powder and the reflexive response was the unconditioned response (UCR, an unlearned response to an unconditioned stimulus occurring without prior conditioning)
  3. Pavlov continued to pair conditioned stimulus (CS, previously NS that, through repeated pairings with US, now causes a CR) and UCS – observed the metronome elicited a response – salivation = conditioned response (CR, a response previously associated with a non-neutral stimulus that comes to be elicited by a neutral stimulus)
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108
Q

what is acquisition

A

the learning phase during which a conditioned response is established

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109
Q

explain acquisition

A

o As the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus are paired over and over again, the conditioned response increases progressively in strength
o backward conditioning – UCS is present before the CS – is very difficult to achieve  for conditioning to work efficiently the CS must forecast the appearance of UCS

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110
Q

what is extinction

A

= gradual reduction and eventual elimination of the conditioned response after the conditioned stimulus is present repeatedly without the unconditioned stimulus

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111
Q

explain extinction

A

o The CR decreases in magnitude and eventually disappears when the CS is repeatedly presented alone
o during extinction a new response, which in the case of Pavlov’s dogs was the absence of salivation inhibits the CR (salivation) – becomes overshadowed by the new behaviour

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112
Q

what is spontaneous recovery

A

sudden re-emergence of an extinct conditioned response after a delay in exposure to the conditioned stimulus

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113
Q

what is the renewal effect

A

sudden re-emergences of a conditioned response following extinction when an animal is returned to the environment in which the conditioned response was acquired

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114
Q

what is stimulus generalisation

A

process by which conditioned stimuli similar, but not identical to the original conditioned stimulus elicit a conditioned response

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115
Q

explain stimulus generalisation

A

o occurs along a generalisation gradient: the more similar to the original CS the new CS is, the stronger the CR will be
o typically adaptive as it allows us to transfer what we have learned to new things

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116
Q

what is Stimulus discrimination

A

process by which conditioned stimuli similar but no identical , to the orginal conditioned stimulus elicit a conditioned response

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117
Q

explain Stimulus discrimination

A

o occurs when we exhibit a less pronounced CR to CSs that differ from the original CS
o is adaptive because it allows us to distinguish among srtimuli that share some similarites but that differ in inmporant ways

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118
Q

what is higher order conditioning

A

developing a conditioened response to a conditioned stimulis by virtue of its assoication with another conditioned stimulus

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119
Q

explain higher order conditioning

A

o allows us to extend classical conditioning to a host of new stimuli
o e.g. why when someone says “kebab” we feel hungry – we have already come to assoicate the sight, sound and smell of a kebab with satisfying our hunger and we will eventually come to assoicate the word”kebab” with these CSs
o two factors determine the extent of higher-order conditoning:
1. the similatiry between the higher-order stimulus and the original conditioned stimulus
2. the frequency and consistency with which the two conditioned stimuli are paired

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120
Q

2 applications of classical condtioning in daily life

A

advertising

fears and phobias

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121
Q

why does condiotnign responding develop

A
  • the CS doesn’t just “substitute” for the US (as was originally believed)
  • CR is not always the same as the UR
  • e.g. rats “freezing” instead of jumping when shoch is about to occur
  • cognitive view of classical condition the CS predicts the US (learn association_ and so we react by preparing for that event
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122
Q

what is excitory conditioning

A
  • relative likelihood of something (food) occuring given that something else (bell) did
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123
Q

what is inhibitory conditoining

A
  • relative likleihood of something NOT occuring given that something else did (bell)
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124
Q

what is OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION

A
  • emotion-arousing stimuli  emotional responses

- the concepts of habituation and sensation have been extended to emotions and motivated behaviour

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125
Q

who found the OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION

A

Solomon and Corbitt 1974

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126
Q

what did soloman and corbitt 1974 examine

A

OPPONENT PROCESS THEORY OF ACQUIRED MOTIVATION
o examined fear anf relief of skydivers before and after their jumps
o beginners experience extreme fear as hey jump, which is replaced with great relief when the y landl. With repeated jumps the fear decreases and the post-jump pleasure increases. This process may explain a variety of thrill-seeking behaviours
o Stage A (fear) decreases with more jumps
o `Stage B (relief/thrill) increases with more jumps

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127
Q

what is the a process according to soloman and corbitt 1974

A

the initial reaction

  • plot positive side of graph regardless of whether you find the experience pleasant or not.
  • onset stimulus causes a sudden emotional reaction, which quickly reaches its peak
  • lasts as long as the stimulus is present, then ends quickly
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128
Q

what is the b process according to soloman and corbitt 1974

A

After reaction

  • the offset stimulus causes an emotional after reaction that in some sense is the opposite of the initial reaction
  • is more sluggish in its onset and decay that the initial reaction
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129
Q

what is the a process directly related to?

A
  1. a-process is directly related to the presentation of the emotional stimulous
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130
Q

weaknesses of the experimental approach to personality

A

o important parts o personality hard to test
o not in the context of the “whole person”
o participants bring own expectations into lab
o experiment is a social situation

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131
Q

what is the drug effect

A

net effect of a-process minus b-process

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132
Q

what is the a-process in taking drugs

A

the high

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133
Q

what is the b-process in taking drugs

A

withdrawl symptoms are stronger and last longer (b-process)

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134
Q

who looks ath teh compensatory response to drugs

A

Siegel, Hinson, Krank & McCUlly 1982

  • rats injected with ehroin every second day for 30 days
  • altenrate days inejected with dextrose (sugar) solution
  • administered either in home room or differnet room
  • half recivered heroin in home room: dextrose in the other room; other hald recived oppsotie injected room order
  • heorin intake increased each day
  • third group of rats (controls) recivered dextrose in both rooms
  • test – double dose of heroin given to all animals – half experiemntal group in room where heorin normally recived; half in other room; control goroup got double dose
  • DV (dependent variable) = mortalty
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135
Q

explain the vietnam soliders and drugs

A

Vietnam soliders

  • 40% of US soliders tried heroin in Vietnam
  • 20% were addicted rehab on return to USA
  • affter rehab, only 5% relapsed (i.e. 95% were rehabilitated)
  • relapse rate of people not at war = 90%  perhaps the significant difference is due to the fact the soliders spent all day in a cenrtain environemnt – filled of stress and built friends with fellow soliders who were heroin users – menaing they had multiple stimuli driving them to use heroin – when home in a new enviornemnt without het stress it was easier to quit
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136
Q

what is operant condionting

A

learning controlled by the consequences of the organisms behaviour

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137
Q

freuds topographical model

A

o conscious mental processes
- rational, goal directed thoughts
- at the centre of awareness
o pre-conscious mental processes
- not conscious but could become conscious at any point
o unconscious mental processes
- irrational
- organised on associative lines (i.e. what is linked with what)
- inaccessible to consciousness because they are repressed (i.e. kept from consciousness to avoid emotional distress)

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138
Q

in classical conditioning reward is:

A

provided unconditionally

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139
Q

in classical conditioning behaviour primarly depsnds on:

A

automatic nervous system

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140
Q

in operant conditioning target behaviour is:

A

emitted volunatrily

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141
Q

in operant conditioning reward is:

A

contingent on behvaiour

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142
Q

in operant conditioning behaviour primarly depsnds on:

A

skeletal muscles

143
Q

what are differences between t classical condiotning and operant conditioning

A
  1. in CC, the organisms response is elicited by the UCS and later the CS (automatic response). In OC the organisms response is emitted, generated by the organism in a voluntary fashion.
  2. in CC, the animals reward is independent of what it does. (Pavlov gave the meat powder regardless of how much they salivated). In OC, the reward is contingent on what it does. e.g. if it doesn’t emit a response it will not receive anything.
  3. in CC, the organisms response is dependent on the autonomic nervous system. In OC, the organisms responses depend on skeletal muscle (voluntary motor)
144
Q

what is the law of effect? and who devleoped it

A

= if a response, in the presence of a stimulus is followed by a satisfying state of affairs, the bond between stimulus and response will be strengthened
• if we are rewarded for a response to a stimulus we are more likely to repeat that response to the stimulus in the future
• Thorndike discovered the law of effect in a classical study of cats and puzzle boxes. ( he places a hungry cat in a box and put a tantalising piece of fish outside. to escape from the box, the cat needed to hit upon the right solution, which was pressing on a lever inside the box  cat worked it out and got the treat – via trial and error

145
Q

who studied reinforcement

A

b.f. skinner

146
Q

b.f skinner

A
  • Built on Thorndike’s discovery using electronic technology
  • Developed a “skinner box”, which eletronicallu records an animals responses nad prints out a cumulative record, or graph of the animals activity. Contains a bar that delivers food when pressed, food dispenser and light that signals reward
  • the device allowed
147
Q

what is reinforcement

A

any outcome that strengthens the probability of a response

148
Q

what is positive reinforcement

A

positive outcome or consequence of a behaviour that strenghtens the probabiltiy of the behaviour

149
Q

e.g. positive reinforcement

A

E.G. giving child a biscuit after he tidys his toy=joy

150
Q

what is negative reinforcement

A

Removal of a negative outcome or consequence of a behaviour that
strengthens the probailtiy of a behaviour

151
Q

e.g. negative reinforcement

A

E.G. ending the childs time out after she ahs stopped whining, panadol provides headache relief

152
Q

what is punishment

A

outcome or consequence of behaviour that weakens the probability of the behaviour

153
Q

what is positive punishment

A

Involves administering a stimulus that the organism wasnts to avoid

154
Q

e.g. of positive punishment

A

e.G. smacking the child, laughing at someone

155
Q

what is negative punishment

A

Removing a stimulus that the organism wishes to experience

156
Q

e.g. negative punishment

A

. removing the childs favourite toy, speeding= loss of licence

157
Q

disadvantages of punsihment

A

 effects are usually temporary
 tells the organism onlhy what not to do, not what to do
 can create anxiety which interferes with future learning
 may encourage subversive behaviour, prompting people to beocme sneakeir about situations in which they can and cannot display forbidden behaviour
 punishment form parents may provide a model for childrens aggressive behaviour (a child whose parents slap him when he misbehaves may get the message that slapping is ok) (Widom, 1989 found that pohsycially abused children are at ↑ risk for aggressiveness in adult hood
 learned helplessness – when there is no relationship between the individuals behaviour and punishment. (if the punishment is very aversive  PTSD)

158
Q

what is discriminative stimulus

A

any stimulus that signals the presence of reinforcement
• they inform us as to whne we can emit a voluntary repsonse
• may produce the behaviour in reponse to a similar sitmulus (stimulus generation), unless it doesn’t produce the same reward (stimulus discrimination)

159
Q

e.g. of discriminative stimulus

A

E.G. a friend is waving at us from across campus = it signals that our friend wants to chat with us, thereb reinforcing us for repsonding to her wave

160
Q

what is continuous reinforcemnt

A

• continuous reinforcment = we reinforce behaviour everytine it occurs
 allows organims to learn the skill more quickly
 problems = habituation to the reinforcer:the reinforcment loses it reinforcing qualities, satitation: the organism becomes sated with the reinforcer

161
Q

what is partial reinforcement

A

• partial/intermittent reinforcment = occurs when we reinforce responses only some of the time
 leads to greater resistance to extinction
 E.G, in relationships some partners may provide intermittent reinforcement to their significant other, treating them miserably most of the time but treating them well on rare occasions – this pattern of partial reinforcment may keep individuals “hooked” in relationships that are not working

162
Q

eg. partial reinforcment

A

in relationships some partners may provide intermittent reinforcement to their significant other, treating them miserably most of the time but treating them well on rare occasions – this pattern of partial reinforcment may keep individuals “hooked” in relationships that are not working

163
Q

what is fixed ratio schedule

A
  1. fixed ratio (FR) schedule =provide reinforcment after a specified number of responses
164
Q

e.g. fixed ratio

A

 E.G. give a rat a pellet after it presses the level in a Skinner box 15 times

165
Q

what is varible ratio

A
  1. variable ratio (VR) schedule = provide reinforcement after a specific number of reponses on average, but the precise number of responses required during any given period randomly varies
166
Q

e.g. variable

A

 E.G. poker machienes – deliever cash rewards on a irregular basis and they do based on the gamblers responses – the extreme unpredictability of the VR schedule is what keeps gamblers hooked, as reinforcement can come at any time

167
Q

what is fixed interval schedule

A

fixed interval (FI) schedule = provide reinforcment for producing the response at least once after a specified amount o time has passed

168
Q

fixed interval e.g.

A

E.G. receiving a pay check every 2 weeks

169
Q

what is variable interval schedule

A

provide reinforcment for producing the reposnse after an average time interval, with the actual intveral varying randomly

170
Q

e.g. variable interval schedule

A

 E.G. checking emails at random times to see messages

171
Q

what are primary reinforcers

A

items or outcomes that are naturally pleasurable e.g. food, water, sex

172
Q

what are secondary reinforcers

A

• secondary = stimuli, that acquire their reinforcing power by a learned association with a primary reinforcer e.g. money or grades

173
Q

what is the premack principle

A

• using a desired or high frequency behaviour to reinforce a less desirable or lower frequency behaviour

174
Q

e.g. premack principle

A

if u eat ur veggies, u get cake

175
Q

applications of operant conditoning

A

• behavioral therapy
o wide vairety of everyday behaviour problems, including obesity, smoking, alcoholism, social anxiety, depression, delinquency and aggression
o ticken econimies
o remedial education
o therapy for autism
o training dogs
o biofeedback: 1. internal bodily processes (like BP) are eletrically recorded, 2. info is amplidied and reported back to the patient throgh headphones… 3. this info helps the person learn to control bodily processes not nonrmally undervoluntary control  most useful for promoting relaxation – helps in condiitons related to stress

176
Q

whayt is observational learnring

A

learning by watching others

 it is how we acquire new information by being exposed to one another in a common environment

177
Q

what is social facilitation

A

o an increase in the frequency or intensity of a beahviour (that is already in the animals repertoire) caused bythe presence of others (of the same species_ performing the same behaviour at that time

178
Q

what is Local or stimulus enhancement

A

o local or sitmulu senhancment refers to a process in which one indiviudal directs another individual attention to a particular object or some activity or some place in theenvironemnt – after obsering another individual engage in that activiy, but the observer does not necessarily attend to the actionsof the “model”
o e.g. stare at the sky – others will look up to see what your looking at

179
Q

e.g. of Local or stimulus enhancement

A

e.g. stare at the sky – others will look up to see what your looking at

180
Q

what is imitation

A

o when an animal imitates a behaviour that it has never done before. True imitation can be defined as duplicating a novel behaviour (or sequence of behaviours ) in order ot achieve a specifical goal, without showing any understanifn to the behaviour

181
Q

what is the processes of observational learning

A
  1. attention
  2. retention
  3. reproduction
  4. motivation (from reinforcement)
182
Q

explain the social learning theory

A
  • albert bandura proposes we learn through imitation or modelling
  • explaining the SPEED of learning in young children (no trial and error needed)
  • children can learn without immediate performance of the behaviour (may not produce the behaviour until they are an adult)
  • achieved through formation of a symbolic representatio
  • have to see someone do it (a model)
183
Q

what was the aim of bandura ross and ross 1961 study

A

• AIM: if children were witnesses to an agressove display by an adult they would imitate this aggression when given the opportunity

184
Q

what did bandura ross and ross 1961 study find

A
  • exposure ot aggressive models will lead to imitation of the aggression observed
  • exposure to non-aggressive models gernerally has an inhibiting effect on aggressive bheaviour
  • same-sex inmitation is greater than oppposite-sex imitation for some behaviours (esp. boys)
  • boys imitate aggression more than girls and are generally more aggressiv eexpect for verbal aggression
185
Q

what was Charcot’s approach to personality

A

 hysteria brought on or alleviated with hypnosis

 greatly influenced Freud

186
Q

what was janet’s approach to personality (1859-1947)

A

 like Charcot, believed that suggestions could be therapeutic

187
Q

what was freuds approach to personality

A

 first comprehensive theory of personality development
 ambivalence and conflicts
 compromise formations (solutions and defences to resolves such conflicts)

188
Q

what was murrays approach to personality

A

 to get around the reliance on possibly flawed self-reports, Murray used data from: interviews, questionnaires, fantasy measures and projective tests, situational tests

189
Q

what is the focus of the correlation approach to personality

A

– establishes associations between sets of measures on which people have been found to differ

190
Q

who are significant researches in the correlation apprroach to personality

A

o sir francis galton
 explored differences due to heredity especially intellectual abilities
o Gordon allport, Raymond cattell, hans Eysenck, five factor model or personality
o more fetial in section on trait approaches
• Q: are there basic grpups of characteristics on which people differ?

191
Q

techniques of the correlation approach? to personality

A

o self-report questionaries

o factor analysis (since 1940s

192
Q

focus of the experimental approach to personality

A

involves the systematic manipulation of variables to establish causal relationships

193
Q

significant researchers of the experimental approach to personality

A

o Wundt (Germany)
 how do changes in stimuli influence changes in immediate experience?
o Pavlov
 induced experimental neurosis – circle =food, ellipse = shock
 gradually increase stimulus similarity
 dog cant discriminate even when return to highly distinguishable stimuli
o Watson
 emotional reaction conditioned in children
o hull
 stimulus-response theory
o skinner
 instrumental conditioning

194
Q

weaknesses of the experimental approach to personality

A

o important parts o personality hard to test
o not in the context of the “whole person”
o participants bring own expectations into lab
o experiment is a social situation

195
Q

regarding impulsivity what did zuckerman look at

A

• Zuckerman talked about:
- stimulus hungry people
- issues of impulsivity and sensation seeking
• impulsivity: take risks, lively, non-planning
• sensation seeking – seeks novel and intense experiences, uninhibited easily bored
• Zuckerman (1994)
o places sensation seeking the limbic system rather than the cortex (deeper in the brain, more primal)
o dopamine seen as driving sensation seeking (linked with pleasure seeking)
o serotonin seen as inhibiting sensation-seeking (linked with inhibition)
• those describes as impulsive at age 3 more likely to be diagnosed with an anti-social personality at 21
• impulsivity linked with aggression, psychopathy, anti-social behaviour and addictions

196
Q

what dos trait approaches asume

A
  • all people have enduring characteristics or traits
  • personality can best be described as a set of characteristics
  • self-report measures can measure the level to which a person has a certain trait
197
Q

what are hans Eysenck’s 1953 3 super traits

A
  1. extraversion – introversion
     extraverts sociable, active, willing to take risks
     introverts socially inhibited, serious and cautious
  2. neuroticism
     anxious, guilty, tense, moody, low self-esteem vs. calm, guiltless, relaxed, emotionally stable, high self-esteem
  3. psychoticism
     aggressive, egocentric, impulsive, antisocial
     emphatic and able to control impulses
198
Q

what does the nomothetic approach assume?

A

• assumes that levels of particular traits occur on a continuum from low to high in all people, and are normally distributed in the general population

199
Q

what does the idiographic approach emphasise

A

the uniqueness of the individual

200
Q

whats the big 5 according to the five factor model

A
  • The big five can be remembered using the mneonic OCEAN:
  • Openness to experience (consists of 6 facets)
     fantasy (active fantasy life), aesthetics (artistic interests), feelings (emotionally open), actions (flexible in behavioural responses), ideas (intellectual), values (unconventional)
  • conscientiousness
     competence, order, dutifulness, achievement striving, self-discipline, deliberation
  • extraversion
     warmth, gregariousness (outgoing), assertiveness, activity, excitement seeking, positive emotion
  • agreeableness
     trust, straightforwardness, altruism, compliance, modesty, tenderness
  • neuroticism
     anxiety, angry hostility, depression, self-consciousness, impulsivity, vulnerability
201
Q

what did freud assume

A
  • symptoms (like hysterical paralysis) have meaning
  • symptoms may be psychosomatic
  • unconscious conflicts are the causes of some illnesses
  • repressed mental processes, although unconscious, are still active and may affect eh person in the form of a bodily symptoms
  • emphasised ambivalence – conflicting feelings or motive
202
Q

what are the drives accoriding to freud

A
  • respiration
  • hunger
  • pain-avoidance
  • thirst
  • sex (libido)
  • Thanatos (aggressive, later drive, death wish, ww1)
203
Q

what do the psychosexual stages reflect?

A

o reflets the child’s “evolving quest for pleasure and the social limitations out on this quest”

204
Q

explain the oral stage

A
  • Age: 0-18 months
  • Behaviours: child explores world through mouth
  • wider issue: dependence and trust
  • Cause of fixation: chronic dissatisfaction or discomfort during the oral stage
  • nature of fixation: clinginess, dependence, exaggerated need for approval, thumb sucking, nail biting
205
Q

explain the anal stage

A
  • age: 2-3 yrs
  • behaviours: child becomes aware of and explores anus; conflicts with parents about compliance and defiance
  • wider issues: orderliness, cleanliness, control, compliance
  • cause of fixation: conflicts about toilet training and conflicting attitudes toward anus
  • fixed behaviours: overly orderly, neat, punctual, very messy, stubborn, constantly late, conflicts about compliance, obedience, find anal humour particularly compelling
206
Q

explain the phallic stage

A
  • age: 4-6 yrs
  • behaviours: child becomes aware of (and take pleasure in) genitals, may masturbate
  • wider issues: identification with others: establishment of conscience.
     Identification to Freud meaning seeing oneself as like another, modelling oneself on that person, internalising their motives, beliefs, values, ideals, behaviours e.g. daddy issues
     Oedipus/electra complex
     wanting an exclusive “sexual” relationship with opposite sex parent
     boys fear father will castrate them because of these desires, same with girls and mother
     such wishes are quickly repressed
  • cause of fixation: conflict about genitals, sexual behaviour
  • fixated behaviours: preoccupation wit attracting mates, take on stereotypical aspects of same sex, taking on stereotypical of oppos
    o child then identifies with same sex parent (hoping that if they become like that parent they will one day become like that parent they will one day obtain someone like the opposite parent)
    o penis envy: belief by girls that their penis was lost as punishment for misbehaviour, girls mourn this loss and believe the lack of penis makes them inferior  now more metaphoric of how men have power rather than penis
207
Q

explainthe latency stage

A
  • age: 7-11 yrs
  • behaviours: child represses sexual urges and continues to identify with same sex parent, channels sexual energy into socially acceptable past times e.g. hobbies, sport, games
  • wider issues: sublimation of aggressive and sexual impulses
  • fixated behaviours: becoming asexual
208
Q

explain the genital stage

A
  • age: 12+ yrs
  • behaviours: conscious sexuality emerges, genital sex, relate ot and love others, adult responsibilities
  • wider issues: maturity in sexuality, maturity in relationships, responsibility
  • other issues: some oral and anal components retained in sexuality
209
Q

what is ID concerned with in the terms of freuds strucutal model

A

o concerned with the pleasurable
o “pleasure principle” – wants more and it wants now ; immediate gratification
o doesn’t understand “no”
o cannot wait – impulsive
o runs according to primary process thinking – wishful, illogical, associative thought
o “pit of roiling, libidinous energy demanding immediate satisfaction” (Reber, 1997)

210
Q

what is superego concerned with in the terms of freuds strucutal model

A

o concerned with the ideal
o interlaised moral principles of our parents by introjection/identification
o responsible for self-imposed standards of behaviour
o seeks perfection and can make us deeply unhappy and anxiouso

211
Q

what is ego concerned with in the terms of freuds strucutal model

A

o concerned with the actual
o works on the “reality principle” – bbalances the drices of the id, the constraints of the superego, and what I srelasitstically possible in the world
o does the repressing of ‘unacceptanle’ urges
o realisatically satisfies the drives in conjunction with environment
o involves: perception, memory, motor coordination, cognition, problem solving, management of emtoions, finding compromises
o can delay gratification nad weigh alternatices (secondary process thinking: rational, logical, goal-directed)
o responsible for defene mechanisms like sublimation

212
Q

e.g. of ID, supergo and ego

A
  • ambitois young lawyer supervises a more talented rival
  • wants to hurt rival (id)
  • urge to provide (incorrect) poor evaluation
  • conscience uncomfortanle with such a clatant lack of integrity (superego)
  • SO: justified the poor evaluationon moral grounds – e.g. such evaluations discourage laziness (i.e. compromise by ego)
213
Q

what is repression

A
  • repressing (keeping out of our consciousness) thoughts or memories that are too painful, disturbing or threatening to acknowledge
214
Q

what is denial

A
  • refuse to acknowledge painful or threatening external realities, or painful emotions
215
Q

what is projection

A
  • a person attributes his/her own unacknowledged feelings or impulses to others
  • good evidence for this defence. Research shows that the process of keeping a thought supressed seems to keep it chronically activated at an implicit (non-conscious) level; this keeps the mind ‘looking out’ for it (and thus more likely to see it in others’
216
Q

what is Reaction formation

A
  • turns unacceptable feelings or impulses into their opposites
  • conservative family laues politications who have affairs
  • George Rekers – national association for research and therapy of homosexuality, an organisation dedicated to changing the sexuality of gay people – antigay activist
217
Q

what is sublimation

A
  • converting aggressive or sexual impulses into socially acceptable activities such as sport, art, music etc.
218
Q

what is rationalisation

A

explains away actions in a seemingly logical way to avoid uncomfortable feelings, especially guilt and shame

219
Q

what is displacement

A
  • directing emotons (like anger) away from the real target to a substitute
  • usually when the person feels powerless to display that emotion to the real target
220
Q

what is the object relation theory

A

Focuses on the reciprocal relationship between a Mother and her infant and its effect on the infants development of sense of self

221
Q

list the attachment styles

A

Central models of attachments styles in adult romantic relationships
 secure (secure, trusting, seeks intimacy)
 ambivalent (insecure, needy, dependent)
 avoidant (distrustful, avoiding, independent)
 fearful (afraid of being hurt, abandoned, exposed)

222
Q

what is transference

A
  • transference is when a person related to another person as if that person is different person from their past
223
Q

e.g. of transference

A
  • e.g. if a therapist reminds a patient of their father or triggers memories about he father, then paitent may trat the therapist as if they were the father
224
Q

what is psychoanalytic testing

A

o word-association test
o life history methods
o projective tests
o hypnosis
o dream interpretation – what is the narrative? what is the symbolism? what are the underlying wishes?
o Freud: everything is laden with meaning

225
Q

strengths of the psychodynamic approach

A
  • strong empirical support for some constructs – emtnal models, defences, importance of childhood experiences
  • clinical utility and success
226
Q

weaknesses of psychodynamic approach

A
  • does not deal with adult learning
  • male centered
  • hard to test some facets
227
Q

what is the basic idea of social cognitive theories

A

• basic idea: that learned behaviours and learned emotional reactions become a stable part of personality

228
Q

what dies social cognitive thoeries focus on?

A

• focuses on: beliefs, expectations, memories and knowledge, knowledge structures such as schemas and scripts about the self, others, the self in relation to others about the world, information processing, assumes an underlying neural network

229
Q

how do neural networks occur

A
  • When we experience something, a cluster of neurons (a node) is set aside to recognise it again
  • when we experience that thing again that node becomes activated
  • nodes that are activated together become wired together
  • the more often nodes are activated together the strongest the links become
230
Q

what did albert bandura come up with

A
  • imitation In the absence of reinforcment of Pavlovian condioting
  • social leanring theory
  • social cognitive thoery
     blending of social and cognitive psychology
     focuses on how individuals percive, recall, think about and interpret information about themselves and others
  • self efficy
     behaviour outcome expectacy – the expectation that a certain bhevaiourwill lead to a certain outcome
     slef-efficacy expectancy – the expectancy that one has the capability to carry out the behaviour to reach a desired outcome
     predicts success on task performance
     predicts attempts to obtain an outcome
231
Q

what is a schema

A

o a mental outline or frameqwork od some aspect of experience, which is based on prior experince or meomory (e.g. what to esxpect in a supermarket)

232
Q

what do schemas include?

A

o may include: knowlesge, beliefs, emotions, memories, links to other concepts, thoughts, feelings, emotions, ways to respond, action tendencies

233
Q

who came up with maladaptive schemas

A

jeffery young

234
Q

what is schema therapy?

A
  • young and cpllegues hae developed thwerapy for personailty disrders (e.g. borderline personality disorder; narcissistic perosnailty disorder) based on changing entrenched shcneas
  • schemas are challanged and new pattersn of thinking established over a signidicant period of therapy (2-3 yrs)
235
Q

what does the abandonment of schemas involve?

A
  • involves he beleief that ones closest relationships are unstable or unreliable and thus cannot provide enduirng nurturance
  • also involves the expectation that significant others are likle to leave, either thorugh death or dinfsng another more worthy
236
Q

what is defective/shsme schemeas

A
  • belief that one is defective, bad, inferior or unwated and would be unlocable to signigcant others if exposed
  • hypersensitive to criticim, blame, rejection, comparison
  • often feels shame
  • developmental orgin: a consistent pattern of: extremely c
237
Q

what is entitlement schemas

A
  • belief that one is superior to others, enittiled to speacil rights, not bound by normal ules of social reciprocity and shuld be able to do or have whatver one wants, regardless of cost to others
  • fecvelopemnt origin: insuffiencent discipline by parents, spolied, child not asked to take respomsibility
238
Q

what is the script theory

A

o Huesmann (1988-1998) put forward script theory
o a script is a schema about how a particular event plays out over time
o throughout development people are exposed to and internalise various scripts for bhevaior
o prricular influenced by scripts played out in the famdily, at school and in the mass media

239
Q

strengths of script theory

A
  • acknowlesge the role of thoughts, memoreis, neural networks in personaltiy
  • readily testable through experiemnetation
  • applied vlaue (therapies, change framework)
240
Q

weaknesses of script theory

A
  • too much focus on rational and consious processes (this is changing)
  • assumption that people can report what the think feel and want
241
Q

what is the humanistic approach

A
  • arose in 1950s and 1960s
  • focus on aspects of personality that are distinctly human
     what is the human experience?
     what gives life meaning?
     what is “self” and how does it develop?
242
Q

carl rogers contribution to humanistic approach

A

• Most influential theory in the group
• influenced by Roussea (people are basically goof but are helf back from their full poteintal by social experinces)
• need to understand each individuals “phenomenal” experience – the way they consciendce reality, experience themselves, and experience the world
• therapists greatest tool is the ability to emphasise, to understand the other persons experience
• unconditional positive regard essential
- true self: core self-untainted by the world
- false self: mask, ultimately mistaken to be the true self
- ideal self: what the person believes they should be like
- self-concept: organised pattern of thoughts and perceptions about oneself
- if the persons self-concept becomes too distant from the persons ideal self, the person changes their behaviour or their self-view to avoid the painful reality of this disparity
• self-actualisation is the primary motivation in humans – to reach ones human potential
- meet all of ones needs
- be topen to experience
- express ones true self

243
Q

jean paul sartre contributuon to the humanistic approach

A

• existentialism
o essentially would disagree that we have a personality (people are ever changing and must create themselves)
o what we create dies with us
o must therefore live in the movement and create a meaning for our existence
- commit to values, ideals, people, courses of action BUT
- also

244
Q

strengths of humansitic approach

A
  • therapeutic value and unique emphasis on life-meaning and reaching potential
  • positive about human nature
  • interested in the unique person
245
Q

weaknesses for humansitic approach

A
  • not a compressive theory of personality

- many humanistic ideas are not testable/fallible, thus have less empirical evidence (rogers an exception)

246
Q

explain the narcissistic peronslaity style

A
  • a constellation of traits and dispositions that reflect a concentration of interest on the self
  • characterised by:
     grandiose behaviours
     speaks frequently about themselves
     vanity
     envy
     arrogance
     an inability to tolerate criticism
     preference for being loved, not for loving
     curtailed empathy, epically affective (better at cognitive empathy, they understand what people think rather than feel)
     indifference to others
     a sense of personal entitlement
     surface feelings of superiority
     fantasises about success and power
     exploitative in personal relatiosnhips, control

BUT
 become impatient or angry when they don’t receive special treatment
 have significant interpersonal problems and fragile ego (easily feel slighted)
 easily threatened – intense emotional reaction to ego threats – rage, contempt, aggression
 have difficulty regulating emotions and behaviours
 experience major problems feeling with stress and adapting to change
 feel depressed and moody when falling short of perfection
 have secret feelings of insecurity, shame, vulnerability and humiliation
 avoidant/dismissive attachment style

247
Q

what is coverrt narcissism

A
  • covert – outwardly more defensive, more vulnerable, more anxious, hypersensitive, timid, insecure, lacing in self-confidence, lacking initiative
248
Q

Developmental origins of narcissism

A

Early ideas from clinicians
- freud – overvalued parents
- million – over-indulgent and over-admiring parents who are instrumental in the child creating an enhanced and unsustainable self image
Object relation theories
- kohut – children need to experience grandiosity, if a child’s parents are cold: unemphatic, unaffirming and unresponsive to the child’s needs and naracisstic needs, the child develops “narcissistic injuries’ that lead to arrested development of ‘the self’ as well as to profound anger and rage
- kernberg – due to deficits in parenting, particularly a lack of warmth, acceptance and empathy on the part of the mother, the child’s response to this parental rejection is the development of deep feelings of inferiority, hypersensitiy to critiscm and insults and growing rage
- Jeffery young
1. loneliness and isolation within the family home, and the emotional deprivation and feelings of defectiveness and shame that usually follow
2. an upbringing with insuffiecent limites from the parents and which is charactersied by spolied enititlement and overindulgence
3. being used, manipulated or subjugated in the daily home
4. a family home where love and approval aare conditional, whee unrealistically high standards are set and expected by the parents whre the parents themselves are high in recognition seeking behaviours and need for social status
 often two extremes within the childhood hom e- a doting, recognition seeking, statuss driving and unemphatic parent (more often the other), and a rejecting, absent, distant , critical or abusive parent (more often father)
 that is the child is overvalued by the mother, and undervalued by the father, and experiences minimal unselfish love from either or both

249
Q

what is social psychology

A

The SCIENTIFIC study of how an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and actions are affected by the actual, imagined or symbolically represented presence of other people.

250
Q

what are the main 3 elements of social psychology

A
  • A: affect – feelings, emotions
  • B: behaviour – actions (and interactions)
  • C: cognition – thoughts, attitudes
251
Q

what does social cognition refer to

A

 how we select, interpret, remember, and use social information to make judgments and decisions

252
Q

attributions of social cognition

A

• attributions: process through which people seek to identity the causes of others (and ones own) behaviour and to gain knowledge of their stable traits and dispositions

253
Q

what does self esteem refer to

A

self-esteem: how we feel about ourselves, self-worth

254
Q

what is prosocial behavior

A
  • prosocial behaviour: behaviour benefiting others
255
Q

what is attitude

A

the evaluaation of person, place, object, event, idea, or behaviour

256
Q

what is conformity

A

 conformity: change perceptions, opinions or behaviour in ways that are consistent with social or group norms

257
Q

what is compliance

A

 compliance: following the request of another person regardless of that persons status

258
Q

what is obedience

A

 obedience: compliance that occurs in response to an authority figure or someone who is higher in social power than oneself

259
Q

what “component” is prejudice

A

affective

260
Q

explain the affective component prejudice

A

 type of emotion linked with attitude (e.g. anger, warmth)

 extremity of the attitude (e.g. mild uneasiness, outright hostility

261
Q

what “component” is discrimination

A

behavioural component

262
Q

explain the behavioural component discrimination

A

 how people act on emotions and cognitions

263
Q

what “component” is stereotype

A

 beliefs or thoughts that make up attitude

264
Q

what does stigmatised identity =

A

= devalued identity

265
Q

deviance meaning

A
  • deviant: undesirable departure from putative standard
266
Q

marginality meaning

A
  • marginal: member of statistically unusual and centrally defining group
  • deviant and marginal is not always negative, but Stigma is
267
Q

what is stigma at the indiivual perspective

A

 self-stigma and experience
 anticipated stigma – expectation of discrimination or social devaluation due to group membership
 enacted stigma – actual experience (s) of discrimination due to group membership
 internalised stigma – experience of shame or self-loathing due to group membership

268
Q

what is stigma at the societal perspective

A

 environment, policy, access and opportunity etc.

269
Q

what are some aspects of idneitty that can lead to labelling and discrimination

A

• many aspects of identity can lead to labelling and discrimination:
- nationality, race, gender, sexual identity, religion, appearance, physical ability, health, profession, hobbies

270
Q

what is an enacted stigma

A

 enacted stigma – actual experience (s) of discrimination due to group membership

271
Q

what is internalised stigma

A

 internalised stigma – experience of shame or self-loathing due to group membership

272
Q

what is an anticipated stigma

A

 anticipated stigma – expectation of discrimination or social

273
Q

what is the realistic group conflict theory

A
  • competition for scarce resources will increase conflict among groups, resulting in prejudice and discrimination
274
Q

explian social iidentity theory

A
  • people derive part of their self-concept from membership in groups
  • aspects of self-esteem depend on how people evaluate ingroup relative to outgroups
  • people motivated to view ingroup more favourably than the outgroup, because it boosts self-esteem
275
Q

what is psychopathy

A

PSYCHOPATHOLOGY = patterns of thought, feeling or behaviour that disrupt a person’s functioning or wellbeing

276
Q

what is mental health

A

• mental health: state of emotional and social wellbeing

277
Q

define mental health problems

A

• mental health problems: emotion and behavioural abnormalities which impair functioning

278
Q

define mental disorders

A

• mental disorder: clinically recognisable symptoms that cause distress and impair functioning, generally requiring treatment

279
Q

who is at risk of mental health problems

A

at risk populations: children and adolescents, older people, aboriginal and Torres strait islanders, those living in rural and remote areas, homeless individuals, incarnated individual and culturally and linguistically diverse individuals

280
Q

what does genetic vulnerabilities refer to regarding biological perspeective of psychopathy

A
  • usually not one gene, almost always polygenic
  • genotype- environment interactions
  • diathesis-stress model
281
Q

what does • brain dysfunction and neural plasticity refer to regarding biological perspeective of psychopathy

A
  • genetics  neural activity   behaviour
282
Q

what does neurotransmitter imbalance refer to regarding biological perspective of psychopathy

A
  • norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, glutamate, GABA
283
Q

what does hormonal imbalance refer to regarding biological perspective of psychopathy

A
  • malfunctioning of hypothalamic pituitary adrenal (HPA) has been implicated in a handful of mental disorders
284
Q

freud - ID

A

operates on pleasure principle, desire, source of instinctual drives

285
Q

freud - ego

A

develops after first few months of life, mediateds depmand of ID to external world, encvouraging people to engnage in behaviour that is consistent to the real world

286
Q

freud super ego

A

• super ego = gradually develops as child grows, learns what parents and society rules coming to be the control system that deals iewth the desires of the ID

287
Q

what does attachment theory emphasise

A
  • emphasise the importance of early with attachment relationships as laying the foundation for later functioning throughout life
  • quality parental care is needed to develop secure attachments
288
Q

what is important in the cognitive behavioural perspective

A

• important to understand how thoughts and information processing can become distorted and lead to maladaptive emotions and behaviour

289
Q

what does DSM stand for

A

diagnostic and statistical manual

290
Q

pros of DSM

A
  • Improved patient care
  • Improved scientific study of psychopathology
  • Facilitates communication
  • Increased knowledge that mental disorders are burdensome
291
Q

cons of DSM

A
  • Highly heterogeneous disorders
  • Lots of comorbidity
  • Does not distinguish between normal psychological phenomena and psychopathology
  • May cause or add to stigma
292
Q

what is the severity of major depression disorder

A

 Severity  Mild, Moderate, Severe, With psychotic features, In partial remission, In full remission

293
Q

criteria for major depressive disroder

A

A. Over 2-week period, 5+ symptoms (below), including (1) or (2)
1. Depressed mood most of day (irritable in kids)
2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in almost everything
3. Weight loss or gain or appetite loss or gain
4. Insomnia or hypersomnia
5. Agitation or retardation
6. Fatigue or loss of energy
7. Worthlessness or excessive guilt
8. Poor concentration or indecisiveness
9. Recurrent thoughts of death
 Plus, must experience marked distress or decrease in functioning for at least 2 weeks and no manic or hypomanic episode ever

294
Q

criteria for persistent despressive disorder

A 
A.	Depressed mood (irritable for kids), most of the day, more days than not –at least 2 years (1 year for kids; irritability)
B.	 Two or more of:
1.	Poor appetite or overeating
2.	Insomnia or hypersomnia
3.	Fatigue or loss of energy
4.	Low self esteem
5.	Poor concentration or indecisiveness
6.	Feelings of hopelessness
C.	< 2 months without symptoms
D.	May have MDD at same time
E.	No manic or hypomanic episode ever
295
Q

prevalence of MDD in LIFETIME

A

9%

296
Q

prevalence of MDD in 12MONTHS

A

4.1%

297
Q

prevalence of PDD in 12MONTHS

A

1..3%

298
Q

worldwide, suicide is the —- leading cause of death

A

15th

299
Q

in australia, suicide is the —- leading cause of death

A

13th

300
Q

risk factors for suicide

A
  • Being male
  • Living in rural and remote areas
  • Being Aboriginal
  • Having a mood disorder
  • History of suicidal behaviour
  • Substance abuse
  • Stressful life events
  • Non-intact family
  • Family history of suicide
  • Access to firearms
  • School disengagement
  • Unemploymcent
301
Q

what is the behavioural activation theory

A
  • positively reinforced for depressed moods

- to get someone out of a depressed episode this suggests need to get them out of rut and change reinforcemnets

302
Q

treatments for PDD and MDD

A
  • behavoiural activation
  • medication – antidepressents, transquilisers and mood stabilisers
  • coginitive bhevauoural therapy – based on cognitive theory but reduces depression through changes in beahviour
  • interpersonal psychotherapy – helps to understand social fuctioning
303
Q

Schizophrenia symptoms

A 
o	extreme
o	lack of eating
o	didn’t feel like herself
o	wanting to be in dark
o	don’t take care of themselves 
o	delusions
o	hallucinations 
o	disorganised speech
304
Q

treatments for Schizophrenia

A
  • medication – anti-psychotics
  • cognitive behavioural therapy
  • psychotherapy
305
Q

what is bipolar type 1

A

• bipolar 1 – meet criteria for a manic episode

- major depressive episode is not a requirement for bipolar 1 (although very common)

306
Q

what is bipolar type 2

A

• bipolar 2 – meet criteria for a hypomanic episode and for major depressive episode
- major depressive episode is a requirement for bipolar 2

307
Q

how are the types of bipolar different

A

• bipolar 1 and bipolar 2 are distinguished from each other in terms of duration and severity

308
Q

treatments for bipolar

A

• medications are recommended as the first treatment for bipolar disorder
- mood stabilisers
- antipsychotics
• psychological adjuncts
- family focused therapy (helpful for depression)
- systematic care
- psychoeducation

309
Q

criteria for specific phobia

A

A. Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation
B. Exposure to the phobic stimulus almost always provokes immediate fear or anxiety
C. The phobic object or situation is avoided or else is endured with intense fear or anxiety.
D. The fear or anxiety is out of proportion to the actual danger posed by the object or situation
E. The fear, anxiety, avoidance is persistent, typically lasts 6 mosor more
F. The fear, anxiety, avoidance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of life
G. Not better accounted for by another mental disorders (e.g., fears of flying, enclosed spaces, elevators may resemble agoraphobia; panic disorder)

310
Q

what is preparedness theory

A
  • prevalent fears reflect a biological predisposition to fear objects and situationshtat have threatened predisposisition to fear objects and situations that have threatened humans throughout history
  • mixed empiral findings
311
Q

criteria for social anxiety disorder

A

A. Marked fear/anxiety about social situation/s involving possible scrutiny by others. In children, anxiety must occur with peers, not just adults.
B. Fears will act in way that will be negatively evaluated, including showing anxiety symptoms.`
C. Social situations almost always provoke fear/anxiety. In children, fear/anxiety may be expressed by crying/tantrums/freezing/clinging/shrinking/failing to speak.
D. Social situations are avoided/endured with intense fear/anxiety.
E. Fear/anxiety out of proportion to actual threat.
F. Fear/anxiety/avoidance persistent, typically 6mths+.
G. Fear/anxiety/avoidance causes clinically significant distress/impairment.
H. Fear/anxiety/avoidance not attributable to physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition.
I. Fear/anxiety/avoidance not better explained by another mental disorder (e.g. Panic dx).
J. If another medical condition present, fear/anxiety/avoidance unrelated or excessive

312
Q

social anxiety disorder is —- most prevalent anxiety dirsoder

A

• 2nd most prevalent anxiety disorder

313
Q

prevalence of social anxiety in the last year

A

6.8%

314
Q

prevalence of social anxiety in LIFETIME

A
  • 12.1% lifetime
315
Q

panic disroder symtoms/criteria

A

A. Recurrent unexpected panic attacks (e.g., nocturnal), including 4+ of the following symptoms:

  • Palpitations, pounding heart, accelerated heart rate
  • Sweating
  • Trembling or shaking
  • Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering
  • Feelings of choking
  • Chest pain or discomfort
  • Nausea or abdominal distress
  • Feeling dizzy, unsteady, light-headed, or faint
  • Chills or heat sensations
  • Paraesthesia’s
  • Derealization or depersonalization
  • Fear of losing control or “going crazy”
  • Fear of dying

B. At least one attack followed by 1mth+ of one or both of the following:
- Persistent concern/worry about additional panic attacks or their consequences (e.g., losing control)
- significant maladaptive change in behaviour related to attacks
C. Not attributable to physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition.
D. Not better explained by another mental disorder

316
Q

criteria generalised anxiety dirsoder

A

A. Excessive anxiety/worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6mths, about a number of events/activities.
B. Difficulty controlling worry.
C. Anxiety/worry associated with 3+ of the following symptoms (with at least some symptoms present for more days than not for the past 6mths): (only 1 required in children)
1. Restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge
2. Easily fatigued
3. Difficulty concentrating or mind going blank
4. Irritability
5. Muscle tension
6. Sleep disturbance
D. Anxiety/worry/physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress/impairment.
E. Not attributable to physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition.
F. Not better explained by another mental disorder

317
Q

treatments for specific phobia

A

exposure therpay

318
Q

social anxiety disorder treatment

A

cognitive-behaviorual therapy

319
Q

treatment panic disorder

A

cognitive-behaviorual therapy

320
Q

treatment genrealised anxiety disorder

A

cognitive behavioural therpay

321
Q

criteria of OCD

A

A. Presence of obsessions, compulsions, or both:
Obsessions are:
1) Recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are experienced, at some time during the disturbance, as intrusive and unwanted, and that in most individuals cause marked anxiety or distress
2) The individual attempts to ignore or suppress such thoughts, urges, or images or to neutralise them with some other action or thought
Compulsions are defined by:
1) Repetitive behaviours or mental acts that the individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly
2) The behaviours or mental acts are aimed at preventing or reducing anxiety or distress, or preventing some dreaded event or situation; however, these behaviours or mental acts are not connected in a realistic way with what they are designed to neutralize or prevent, or are clearly excessive
B. The obsessions or compulsions are time-consuming (take at least an hour a
day) and cause clinically significant distress or impairment
C. The O-C symptoms are not attributable to substances or a medical cond
D. Not better explained by another disorder

322
Q

treatment of OCD

A

• exposure and response prevention

323
Q

type a - PTSD

A

A. exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury or sexual violence

324
Q

type b - pTSD

A

B. intrusion symptoms

325
Q

type c - PTSD

A

C. persistent avoidance SXS

326
Q

type d - PTSD

A

2 (or more) negative alterations in cognitions and moods

327
Q

type e - ptsd

A

E. 2(ir more) marked alterations in arousal an reactivity associated with the trauma

328
Q

treatment for ptsd

A 
•	Trauma-focused therapy
-	Prolonged Exposure
-	Cognitive Processing Therapy
•	What works, but does not improve outcomes
-	EMDR
•	What should never be done
-	 Psychological Debriefing
329
Q

what is cerebrospinal fluid

A

A clear liquid called runs through these ventricles and bathes out brain and spinal cord, providing nutrients and cushioning against injury – acts as a shock absorber, allowing us to move our heads rapidly in everyday life without brain damage

330
Q

function of cerebral cortex

A

o Analyses sensory information and selects behavioural responses
o It performs complex cognitive functions, including reasoning and language
o largest component of the cerebrum or forebrain

331
Q

what does the frontal lobe do

A
  • performs executive functions that coordinate other brain areas, motor planning (movement), language, memory, mental functions (executive function)
332
Q

what does parietal lobe do

A
  • parietal lobe: processes touch information, integrates vison and touch
  • upper middle part of cerebral cortex
333
Q

anterior region of parietal lobe?

A

: primary somatosensory cortex – sensitive to touch, including pressure and pain and temp

334
Q

posterior region of parietal lobr

A

help track objects locations, shapes and orientations

335
Q

WHAT DOES PARIETAL DAMAGE RESUL TIN

A
  • parietal damage: hard time making sense of surroundings, neglect of the opposite side of their body of where the damage happened
336
Q

FUNCTION OF TEMPORAL LOBE

A
  • temporal lobe: processes auditory information, language and autobiographical memory
337
Q

FUNCTION OF OCCIPTAL LOBE

A

PROCESS VISUAL INFO

338
Q

what does basal ganglia do

A
  • control movement and motor planning
339
Q

damage to basal ganglia

A

 damage to basal ganglia : Parkinson’s disease (lack of control over movement and uncontrollable tremors), Tourette’s (motor and vocal tics)

340
Q

what does the limbic system do

A

 processes info about our internal states – blood pressure, heart rate, respiration and perspiration as well as our motivational states

341
Q

function of thalamus

A
  • thalamus: conveys sensory information to cortex
342
Q

function of hypothalamus

A
  • hypothalamus: oversees endocrine and autonomic nervous system
343
Q

function of amygdala

A
  • amygdala: regulates arousal and fear

 almond shaped

344
Q

function of hippocampus

A
  • hippocampus: processes memory for spatial locations
345
Q

function of cerebellum

A
  • controls balance and coordinated movement
346
Q

function of midbrain

A
  • midbrain: tracks visual stimuli and reflexes triggered by sound
     contains many cells that make monoamines – brain chemicals essential for motivated behaviour, movement
347
Q

function of pons

A
  • pons: conveys information between the cortex and cerebellum
348
Q

function of medulla

A
  • medulla: regulates breathing and heartbeats, controls nausea, vomiting
349
Q

function of reticular activating system

A
  • reticular activating system (RAS): connects forebrain and cerebral cortex, plays a key role in arousal
     damage to the RAS can result in a coma
350
Q

what does the spinal cord do

A
  • conveys information between the brain and the rest of the body
351
Q

how is sensory info carried

A

carried FROM BODY TO BRAIN by sensory nerves

352
Q

how is motor info carried

A

carried FROM BRAIN TO BODY by motor nerves

353
Q

is somatic nervous system voluntary

A

yes

354
Q

what does teh SNS do

A
  • carries messages from the CNS to muscles throughout the body. controlling movement
  • sensory info coming from the environment to the sensory receptors in skin, and going up the dorsal roots, up in the brain and comes back as a motor output via ventral roots to the muscle in order for a muscle response

psyu1101 (1 decks)

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