final Flashcards

1
Q

face validity

A

does a test appear to measure what it was designed to measure; lay-person judgement

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2
Q

how do content & face validity differ?

A

content involves systematic and technical analysis

face is more superficial

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3
Q

criterion validity

A

the extent to which a measure agrees with a gold standard; whether it matches a measure of some attribute or outcome that is of primary interest (criterion)

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4
Q

types of studies: criterion validity

A

predictive vs concurrent

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5
Q

predictive studies

A

take the test today and test the criterion some time down the road

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6
Q

drawbacks to predictive validity studies

A

time, money, issues from time lag

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7
Q

concurrent studies

A

test and criterion done at the same time

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8
Q

when should you use predictive vs concurrent studies?

A

if goal is prediction -> predictive

if goal is to determine current status -> concurrent

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9
Q

criterion contamination

A

when criterion measures more dimensions than by those by test

do scores on the predictor influence criterion scores?

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10
Q

techniques for interpreting validity coefficients

A

(1) sig level; did not occur by chance (p value)

2) coefficient of determination (R^2

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11
Q

what if your validity coefficient is small?

A

if a test provides info that helps predict criterion performance better than any other existing predictor the test may be useful even if coefficient is relatively small

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12
Q

linear regression

A

a mathematical procedure that allows us to predict values on one variable if we know values on the other

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13
Q

standard error of estimate

A

a stat that reflects the average amount of error in our prediction and that allows us to make confidence statement

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14
Q

decision theory models

A

when tests are used for making decision such as personnel selection; factors others than the correlation between test and criterion are important

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15
Q

decision theory models: selection ratio

A

proportion of applicants needed to fill position

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16
Q

decision theory models: base rate

A

proportion of applicants who can be successful candidates

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17
Q

model sensitivity

A

metric that evaluates ability to predict true positives of each available category

A/A+C

A= true positive
C= false negative
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18
Q

model specificity

A

metric that evaluates ability to predict true negatives of each available category

D/B+D

B= false positive
D=true negative

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19
Q

evaluating validity coefficients

A
  1. look for changes in the cause of relationships
  2. what does the criterion mean?
  3. review the subject pop of validation study
  4. be sure sample size was adequate
  5. never confuse criterion with predictor
  6. check for restricted range on both predictor and criterion
  7. review evidence for validity generalization
  8. consider differential prediction
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20
Q

construct validity

A

extent to which evidence can be provided that test measures a theoretical construct

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21
Q

Campbell & Fiske’s types of validity evidence

A

convergent and discriminant

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22
Q

types of convergent evidence

A

(1) does test measure same thing as other tests used for same purpose
(2) does test correlate with specific variables that we can expect if it is doing its job

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23
Q

validation study

A

two or more constructs measured in two or more ways

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24
Q

what can validation studies tell us?

A

convergent and discriminate validity

homogenity and unidimensionality

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25
Q

evidence of validity based on response process

A

involves an analysis of the fit between the performance and actions the test takes actually engage in and the construct being assessed

e.g., interview, behavioural indicators (RT, eye gaze)

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26
Q

evidence based on consequences of testing

A

were the intended benefits of testing achieved?

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27
Q

ways of getting evidence of validity

A

(1) test content
(2) relations to other variables (criterion)
(3) internal structure
(4) response processes
(5) consequences of testing

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28
Q

factor analysis

A

any of several stat methods describing the interrelationships of a set of variables by stats deriving new variables, called factors, that are fewer in number than the original set of variables

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29
Q

types of factor analysis

A

exploratory and confirmatory

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30
Q

if alpha is lower than expected, there might be ______ and you might want to do _____

A

heterogeneity

factor analysis

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31
Q

steps in factor analysis

A

(1) extraction (how many groups?)

2) rotation (average correlation between items and factor itself

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32
Q

purposes of assessment in education

A
  • how well is a student learning?
  • assess whether class, grade, school, district, region is learning content
  • method to detect learning problems
  • method for identifying giftedness
  • determine if child is ready to move to next level
  • assess teacher effectiveness
  • determine readiness/placement in college, grad school, professional school
  • credential exams
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33
Q

achievement test

A

assess learned information; evaluate the effects of a KNOWN or controlled set of experiences

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34
Q

what type of validity procedures does achievement testing rely on?

A

heavily on content validation procedures

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35
Q

aptitude test

A

assess ability to learn something; evaluate the effects of UNKNOWN or uncontrolled experiences

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36
Q

what type of validity procedures does aptitude testing rely on?

A

heavily on predictive criterion validation procedures

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37
Q

goal of classroom testing

A

measure the extent to which students have learned the facts, concepts, procedures, and skills that have been taught

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38
Q

effective classroom tests

A

students who have learned more will obtain higher scores and students who have learned less will obtain lower scores. to be an effective test, a test must consist of effective items

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39
Q

types of classroom achievement tests

A

constructed and selected

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40
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy: levels of understanding

A

(1) knowledge
(2) comprehension
(3) application
(4) analysis
(5) synthesis/create (switched with 6?)
(6) evaluation

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41
Q

item difficulty index

A

right v wrong questions: percentage or proportion of test takers who correctly answer the item

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42
Q

item difficulty index: too hard

A

.0 -.2

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43
Q

item difficulty index: too easy

A

.9 - 1

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44
Q

item difficulty indeces are:

A

sample dependent and after the fact

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45
Q

on constructed response tests with two options, what is the optimal mean p value?

A

.50 (about half the class gets it right)

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46
Q

item discrimination: right and wrong Qs

A

Pt - Pb

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47
Q

item discrimination: good discriminatory

A

lower % of bottom quarter of class got it correct than top quarter of class

48
Q

item discrimination: bad discriminator

A

bottom and top quarter of class did equally well on question

49
Q

Examples of achievement tests

A

(1) Wechsler individual achievement test
(2) standford achievement test
(3) Iowa test of basic skills
(4) metropolitan achievement test

50
Q

Wechsler individual achievement test (WAIT)

A

z-scores, percentile ranks, stanines

norms for grades and age

all ages (above 4)

45 min - 2 hours
- longer for adults than kids

gifted? learning difficulties?

high reliability

51
Q

Stanford Achievement test

A

individual test

1923

K-12

math, writing expression, understanding of patterns, reading comprehension

high reliability
evidence for construct validity

52
Q

Iowa test of basic skills

A

general achievement tests

K-8?

better for lower end of distributions?

shorter than others

53
Q

metropolitan achievement test

A

classified as achievement test, but has some aptitude components

54
Q

examples of diagnostic tests

A

(1) wide range achievement test 4 (the rat)
(2) peabody individual achievement test
(3) woodcock reading mastery test
(4) kaufman test of educational achievement
(5) canada quick individual achievement test
(6) canada french immersion achievement test (C-FIAT)

55
Q

wide range achievement test 4 (the rat)

A

diagnostic test

basic academic skills

good for 5-98

individual admin

longer time frame for older people

56
Q

readiness tests

A

intended to assess a child’s readiness to enter school or move forward

57
Q

issues with readiness tests

A

(1) children change rapidly
(2) predictive ability is weak
(3) cultural/language biases

58
Q

range rule

A

standard deviation should be around: (max response-min response)/4

59
Q

examples of aptitude tests: cognitive ability

A

(1) otis-lennon school ability test
(2) cogAT
(3) SAT-I
(4) ACT
(5) GRE; GMAT; LSAT; MCAT

60
Q

issues with grad school tests

A

don’t predict success and differentially predict for different groups

61
Q

advantages and disadvantages of intelligence testing

A

advantages: helps identify/define problem
disadvantages: cultural bias, limited info

62
Q

three research traditions

A

(1) psychometric, (2) information processing, (3) cognitive

63
Q

binet: intelligence

A

tendency to take and maintain a definite direction, the capacity to make adaptations for the purpose of attaining a desired end and the power of auto-criticism

64
Q

binet: principles of test construction

A

(1) age differentiation

(2) general mental ability

65
Q

binet’s age differentiation

A

we should be able to distinguish between people (especially) children of different ages

IQ = MA/CA * 100

max mental age was 19.5 (problem)

66
Q

routing procedure

A

start test based on chronological age, administrator moves to more challenging items as appropriate

67
Q

Standford Binet - 5

A

intelligence test

appropriate for a broad range of 2 to 85+ years, providing one assessment for all ages (recommend waiting until school age)

provides comprehensive coverage of five factors of cog ability

(1) fluid reasoning
(2) knowledge
(3) quantitative processing
(4) visual-spatial processing
(5) working memory

assessed verbally and non-verbally

scores: full scale IQ, verbal IQ, nonverbal IQ, routing score (start point), individual scores for each scale (verbal and non-verbal)

68
Q

goodenough-harris drawing test (G-HDT)

A

non-verbal intelligence test

group or individually administered

standardized

reliability ranges in high .60’s to low .90s

69
Q

wechsler: intelligence

A

aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act purposefully, to think rationally, and to deal effectively with his environment

wanted to focus more on adults (unlike Binet)

70
Q

factors that influence performance on intelligence tests

A

(1) general intelligence, (2) general, (3) specific, (4) influencing factors

71
Q

performance on intelligence tests: general

A

comprehend, follow direction, respond verbally, understand english

72
Q

performance on intelligence tests: specific

A

concentration, memory, reasoning

73
Q

performance on intelligence tests: influencing factors (not measured directly)

A

interests, occupation, confidence, arithmetic skills/knowledge

74
Q

differences between Binet and Wechsler

A

point scale concept

inclusion of performance scale

75
Q

challenging age differentiation of Binet

A

IQ = attained or actual score/ expected mean score for age

doesn’t max out like binet

76
Q

WAIS-IV

A

qualification level: C

completion time; 60-90 min for core subtests

ages 16-90

IQ mean = 100; SD = 15

full scale IQ, 4 indices, individual subtests (e.g., arithmetic) with intellective and non-intellective components

pattern analysis

strengths and weaknesses

normative sample = 2200 (US)

high reliability and good evidence of validity

77
Q

raven progressive matrices

A

one of the best known and most popular

can be administered to group or individuals

from 5 years of age to elderly

used throughout the world

respectable reliability coefficients: high .70 - .90

last revisions to the manual 1998 with impressive set of norms

has been tested with various cultural groups shown to historically score lower on binet and wechsler scales

78
Q

culture fair intelligence tests & an example

A

one purpose of nonverbal and performance tests is to remove factors related to cultural influences that often disadvantage test takers’ performance

RPM (Raven’s progressive matrices) comes close to being culture fair

IPAT culture fair intelligence test

catell pencil and paper (fluid intelligence in children)

79
Q

Gardner theory of multiple intelligences

A

intelligence is not unitary; it is the ability to solve problems or to create products that are valued within one or more cultural settings

80
Q

Gardner’s types of intelligences

A

(1) linguistic
(2) logical-mathematical
(3) spatial intelligence
(4) bodily-kinesthetic
(5) musical intelligence
(6) interpersonal
(7) intrapersonal
(8) naturalistic

81
Q

who developed idea of emotional intelligence (EQ)?

A

Peter Salovey (Yale); followed up by Goleman

82
Q

clusters within emotional intelligence

A

(1) abstract
(2) concrete
(3) social

83
Q

emotional intelligence has its roots in ____

A

social intelligence

84
Q

EQ includes:

A

(1) being aware of one’s own emotions
(2) able to manage one’s own emotions
(3) sensitive to the emotions of others
(4) able to respond to and negotiate with other people emotionally
(5) use one’s own emotions to motivate oneself

85
Q

EQ allows us to:

A

regulate emotions and problem solve

86
Q

what did Goleman include in EQ?

A

conscientiousness, self-confidence, optimism, communication, leadership and initiative

87
Q

Examples of reasons for neuropsychological testing

A

dementia, alzheimers, concussion, brain injury, ALS, parkinson’s, stroke, epilepsy, brain tumour, infection

88
Q

quick and dirty assessment neuropsych tool

A

glasgow coma scale (GCS)

89
Q

neuropsychological testing

A

application of a set of standardized procedures designed to assess and quantify brain function as expressed in over beh

leads to additional inferences regarding the covert processes of the brain

90
Q

difference between neuropsych testing and general intelligence measures

A

neuropsych tests tend to be more highly specific in what they measure

91
Q

components of neuropsych testing

A
  1. all (or at least a sig majority) of a patient’s relevant cog skills or higher order info processing skills should be assessed
  2. testing should sample the relative efficiency of the right and left hemispheres of the brain
  3. testing should sample anterior and posterior regions of cortical function (posterior mostly receptive)
  4. testing should determine the presence of specific deficits
  5. should determine the acuteness versus the chronicity of any problems or weaknesses
  6. testing should locate intact complex functional systems
  7. testing should assess affect, personality, and behaviour
  8. test results should be presented in ways that are useful in a school or work environment, to acute care or intensive rehabilitation facilities or to physicians
92
Q

two conceptual approaches: neuropsych testing

A

(1) fixed battery approach

(2) non-fixed

93
Q

example of a fixed battery approach to neuropsych testing

A

halstead-reitan neuropsych test battery

focuses on key behavioural correlates of brain function

94
Q

non-fixed battery approach to neuropsych testing

A

use of a flexible combo of traditional psych and educational tests

e.g., boston process approach

can include qualitative stuff

95
Q

conceptual model of brain-behaviour relationships

A
  1. sensory input
  2. attention and concentration
  3. learning and memory
  4. language
  5. spatial and manipulatory ability
  6. executive functions (logic, concepts, reasoning, planning, flexibility)
  7. motor output
96
Q

example of motor function tests

A

finger tapping

grip strength

grooved pegboard

97
Q

four factors of mental processing

A

(1) focus execute, (2) sustain, (3) encode, (4) shift

98
Q

advantages of interviews

A
  • get unique information
  • participants can elaborate
  • personal and meaningful experience
  • report and relationship building
  • rich info; detail
99
Q

disadvantages of interviews

A
  • harder to anlayze
  • possible discomfort of participant
    • not honest, not best performance
  • time and resources
  • introduction to bias
  • individualized/subjective
  • limited generalizability
100
Q

types of interviews

A

(1) structured (highly)
(2) guided/semi-structured
(3) non-directive or unguided

101
Q

initial intake interview

A
  • demographic data
  • reason for referral
  • past medical history
  • present med condition
  • familial medical history
  • past psych history
  • past history with medical or psych professionals
  • current psych conditions
102
Q

potential biases in interviews

A

(1) confirmation bias
(2) self-fulfilling prophecy
(3) ethnocentrism

103
Q

ineffective interviewing

A

judgmental and evaluative statements, probing questions, false reassurance

104
Q

effective studying

A

attitude is warm and authentic, open-ended questions, measuring understanding

105
Q

interviews: measuring understanding

A

levels 1-5 ?

106
Q

sources of error in interviews

A
interview validity
interview reliability (length of session)
107
Q

personality

A

an individual’s unique constellation of psych traits that is relatively stable over time

108
Q

personaltiy traits

A

distinguishable, relatively enduring ways in which one individual varies from another

109
Q

personality types

A

a constellation of traits

continuum thinking is in contrast to this

110
Q

personality assessment methods

A

(1) objective measures, (2) projective measures, (3) behaivoural assessment

111
Q

MMPI

A

purpose: to aid in diagnosis of psychopathology for adults 14 years and older

developed for abnormal personality

566 true/false items

originally criterion keyed items

112
Q

criterion keyed

A

way of developing items by how well they discriminate between different groups (e.g., psych pops vs non-psych pop)

113
Q

validity (Messick)

A

“an integrated eval judgment of the degree to which empirical evidence and theoretical rationales support the adequacy and appropriateness of inferences and actions based on test scores of other modes of assessment”

the appropriateness or accuracy fo the interpretation of test scores

114
Q

threats to validity

A

(1) construct (internal) underrepresentation, (2) construct-irrelevant variance (external), (3) examinee characteristics, (4) test admin and scoring, (5) instruction and coaching

115
Q

construct underrepresentation

A

not all aspects of construct are represented

116
Q

relationship between reliability and validity

A

reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity

reliability restricts validity coefficients

\sqrt{rel}= max validity coeff