Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Scientific method in order

A

observation, hypothesis, experiment, analyze data, conclusion

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2
Q

Property of a proton. (eg. where found/charge)

A

Found in the nucleus. Positive charge.

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3
Q

Property of an Electron

eg. where found/charge

A

Found orbiting nucleus. Negative charge

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4
Q

Property of a neutron. (eg. where found/charge)

A

found in the nucleus. Neutral charge.

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5
Q

How many covalent bonds can be formed? Hydrogen.

A

1 covalent bond

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6
Q

How many covalent bonds can be formed? Oxygen

A

2 covalent bonds

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7
Q

How many covalent bonds can be formed? Nitrogen

A

3 covalent bonds

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8
Q

How many covalent bonds can be formed? Carbon

A

4 covalent bonds

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9
Q

strongest to weakest bonds

A

covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds.

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10
Q

what are covalent bonds?

A

shared electrons

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11
Q

what are ionic bonds?

A

opposite charges attract

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12
Q

what are hydrogen bonds?

A

partial opposite charges attract.

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13
Q

pH scale for acids

A

0-6 (more H+, less OH-)

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14
Q

pH scale for bases

A

8-14 (more OH-, less H+)

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15
Q

What is a dehydration reaction?

A

builds polymers, a water molecule is removed to bond monomers together

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16
Q

What is a hydrolysis reaction?

A

breaks apart polymers, a water molecule is added to break monomers apart.

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17
Q

Polymer: carbohydrate
Monomer:?

A
simple sugars (ex. glucose)
(monosaccharide)
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18
Q

Polymer: Protein
Monomer:?

A

amino acid

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19
Q

Polymer: lipid
Monomer:?

A

glycerol and 3 fatty acid

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20
Q

Polymer: Nucleic acid
Monomer:?

A

nucleotide

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21
Q

Protein structure: Primary

A

sequence of amino acids

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22
Q

Protein structure: Secondary

A

hydrogen bonding between amino acids. alpha helix/beta sheet

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23
Q

Protein structure: Tertiary

A

protein folds into a three-dimensional structure. R groups form bonds with one another.

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24
Q

Protein structure: Quaternary

A

structure in large, multi-subunit proteins

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25
Q

Diffusion

A

movement of molecules form a high concentration to low

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26
Q

osmosis

A

movement of water across a membrane form low concentration to high

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27
Q

hypertonic

A

solution with high solutes, causes cell to shrivel

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28
Q

hypotonic

A

solution with low solutes. cause cell to burst/lyse

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29
Q

Isotonic

A

equal solutes

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30
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

studded with ribosomes - proteins made here

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31
Q

smooth ER

A

synthesizes phospholipids and other lipids

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32
Q

Nucleus

A

store genetic information as long chains of DNA

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33
Q

Ribosomes

A

synthesize proteins

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34
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins

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35
Q

Lysosomes

A

contain enzymes to break down foreign matter

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36
Q

Aerobic

A

requires oxygen

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37
Q

Anaerobic

A

does not require oxygen

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38
Q

Location of glycolysis

A

cytoplasm

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39
Q

Location of pyruvate oxidation

A

matrix of mitochondria

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40
Q

Location of citric acid cycle

A

matrix of mitochondria

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41
Q

describe the role oxygen plays during cellular respiration

A

oxygen accepts electrons at the end of the electron transport chain and becomes water. Oxygen is also called the final electron acceptor.

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42
Q

autosomes

A

do not determine biological gender

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43
Q

sex chromosomes

A

determines biological gender

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44
Q

Prophase

A

nuclear envelope dissolves, chromatin condenses to from chromosomes

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45
Q

prometaphase

A

spindle fibers attach to centromeres

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46
Q

metaphase

A

chromosomes are aligned at the cells equator

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47
Q

telophase

A

chromosomes at poles of cells

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48
Q

cytokinesis

A

division of cytoplasm, cytoplasm pinches off to form 2 identical daughter cells

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49
Q

homologous chromosomes

A

meiosis I

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50
Q

sister chromatids

A

meiosis II

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51
Q

describe crossing over

A

exchange of genetic information between homologous chromosomes. Occurs during prophase I of meiosis I

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52
Q

describe independent assortment

A

homologous pairs align independently at the equator, there is no specific order in which they line up. Occurs during metaphase I of meiosis I

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53
Q

cancer cells lack differentiation

A

non-specialized

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54
Q

cancer cells have abnormal nuclei

A

enlarged, contain abnormal number of chromosomes

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55
Q

cancer cells fail to undergo apoptosis

A

fails programmed cell death

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56
Q

cancer cells have unlimited replication

A

cancer cells are immortal

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57
Q

cancer cells lack contact inhibition

A

cancer cells pile on top of one another, forming a tumor

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58
Q

Cancer cells undergo angiogenesis

A

tumors form new blood vessels

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59
Q

cancer cells undergo metastasis

A

the formation of a tumor for away form the primary tumor

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60
Q

radiation

A

localized cancer

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61
Q

chemotherapy

A

body-wide metastasized cancer

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62
Q

Freckles(F)
No freckles(f)
homozygous recessive/heterozygous
what is the genotypic/phenotypic ratio

A

Genotypic ratio
0:2:2
Phenotypic ratio
2:2

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63
Q

hints for determining autosomal recessive in a pedigree chart

A

if parents are both affected, they can only have affected children. Affected individuals can skip generations. Not many individuals are affected.

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64
Q

hints for determining autosomal dominant

A

Two affected parents can have unaffected children if both parents are heterozygotes. Usually does not skip generations. More individuals are affected in general.

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65
Q

Polygenic traits

A

such as skin color/height are governed by several sets of allels

66
Q

multifactorial traits

A

traits are subject to environmental influences

67
Q

Pleiotrophy

A

occurs when a single, mutant gene affects two or more distinct and seemingly unrelated traits

68
Q

DNA: strands, sugar, bases

A

2 strands, deoxyribose, ATCG

69
Q

RNA: strands, sugar, bases

A

1 strand, ribose, AUCG

70
Q

starting and end product of replication

A

DNA -> DNA

71
Q

start product and end product of transcription

A

DNA -> mRNA

72
Q

start product and end product of translation

A

mRNA -> Protein

73
Q

Axon terminal

A

end of neuron where signal is relayed

74
Q

cell body

A

contains nucleus and other organelles

75
Q

dendrites

A

receive signals form sensory receptors or other neurons

76
Q

axon

A

conducts signal down neuron

77
Q

depolarization

A

na comes in with +35mV

78
Q

repolarization

A

K+ leaves resulting in -70mV

79
Q

corpus callosum

A

extensive bridge of nerves that allow the two cerebral hemispheres to communicate

80
Q

cerebral cortex

A

outer layer of gray matter that covers the hemispheres, accounts for sensation, voluntary movement and consciousness

81
Q

cerebellum

A

receives sensory input from the eyes, ears, joints, and muscles to help maintain posture and balance

82
Q

hypothalamus

A

maintains homeostasis, regulates hunger, sleep, thirst, body temp, and water balance

83
Q

medulla oblongata

A

contains reflex centers for regulating heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing

84
Q

when is the sympathetic system active?

A

excitement, emergency (fight or flight)

85
Q

when is the parasympathetic system active?

A

rest, digest

86
Q

description/example of chemoreceptor

A

respond to chemical substances. taste/smell

87
Q

description/example of photoreceptor

A

respond to light energy. sight

88
Q

description/example of mechanoreceptor

A

stimulated by forces, pressure. hearing/touch

89
Q

description/example of thermoreceptor

A

stimulated by temperature changes. touch(skin)

90
Q

rods

A

best at seeing white light

91
Q

cones

A

best at seeing colors

92
Q

simple cell

A

1 layer

93
Q

pseudostratified

A

false layers

94
Q

stratified

A

layers

95
Q

squamous

A

flat

96
Q

cuboidal

A

cube

97
Q

columnar

A

column

98
Q

negative feedback

A

effect is opposite of the stimulus

99
Q

positive feedback

A

effect is the same as the stimulus

100
Q

skeletal muscle cell shape

A

tubular

101
Q

is smooth muscle striated?

A

no

102
Q

is cardiac muscle striated?

A

yes

103
Q

number of nuclei in cardiac muscle

A

single

104
Q

is skeletal voluntary or involuntary

A

voluntary

105
Q

is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary

A

involuntary

106
Q

where is a skeletal muscle found in the body

A

muscles attached to the skeleton

107
Q

where is a smooth muscle found in the body

A

blood vessels, internal organs

108
Q

where is a cardiac muscle found in the body

A

heart wall

109
Q

the action potential is conducted from the nervous system to _

A

motor neuron

110
Q

motor neuron secretes _

A

acetylcholine

111
Q

acetylcholine binds to receptors on _

A

sarcolemma

112
Q

the action potential travels along the sarcolemma and travels down into the membrane through a _

A

T-tubule

113
Q

this triggers the release of _ from the _

A

calcium, sarcoplasmic reticulum

114
Q

The smaller the motor unit…

A

it has more fine motor control

115
Q

the larger the motor unit…

A

it has less fine motor control

116
Q

what is the preferred source of energy for muscles?

A

glycogen

117
Q

mechanical digestion

A

when food is broken into smaller pieces by chewing

118
Q

chemical digestion

A

when the bonds in food are broken down by enzymes

119
Q

what does pepsin break down and where is it released?

A

proteins, stomach

120
Q

what does amylase break down and where is it released?

A

starch, mouth/pancrease

121
Q

what does trypsin break down and where does it release

A

proteins, pancrease

122
Q

pancreatic juice contains sodium bicarbonate which…

A

neutralizes acid chyme(juices from stomach)

123
Q

pancreatic juice contains pancreatic amylase which…

A

enzyme that digests starch

124
Q

pancreatic juice contains trypsin which…

A

enzyme that digests fat

125
Q

pancreatic juice contains pancreatic lipase which…

A

enzyme that digests fat

126
Q

the pancreas is also an _ gland because it releases the hormones _ and glucagon

A

endocrine, insulin

127
Q

the function of the large intestine…

A

dry out/storage of feces. Absorbs what’s left of the water

128
Q

describe the function of pulmonary surfactant

A

pulmonary surfactant lowers surface tension in the alveoli so the alveoli don’t collapse when you breathe out.

129
Q

describe the differences in pressure and direction for CO2 and O2

A

high O2 at alveoli, low rbc O2
rbc high O2, O2 low in tissue
CO2 high in tissue, low rbc CO2

129
Q

describe the differences in pressure and direction for CO2 and O2

A
  • high O2 at alveoli, low rbc O2
  • RBC high O2, O2 low in tissue
  • CO2 high in tissue, low RBC CO2
  • high RBC CO2, low alveoli CO2
130
Q

what order does blood travel through vessels?

A

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

131
Q

circulation route of blood in the heart

A

right atrium>right atrioventricular valve>right ventricle>left atrium>left atrioventricular valve>left ventricle

132
Q

systolic pressure

A

ejection of blood from the heart

133
Q

diastolic pressure

A

occurs while the left ventricle is relaxing

134
Q

venous valve

A

valves close as blood flows upward, prevents retrograde flow, faulty veins = varicose veins.

135
Q

skeletal muscle pump

A

skeletal muscles contract around veins that propels blood upward.

136
Q

how many oxygen molecules can hemoglobin carry?

A

each hemoglobin molecule can bind 4 oxygen molecules

137
Q

contrast oxygen and carbon monoxide binding to hemoglobin

A

oxygen forms a weak bond with hemoglobin. Carbon monoxide forms a strong bond with hemoglobin.

138
Q

function of eosinophils

A

protect the body from large parasites

139
Q

function of eosinophils

A

protect the body from large parasites

140
Q

function of monocytes

A

largest of the white blood cells. mature into macrophages (big eaters)

141
Q

function of lymphocytes

A

responsible for specific immunity to particular pathogens. come in two varieties: B-cells and T-cells

142
Q

function of neutrophils

A

most abundant white blood cells in the body. Usually the first responders to bacterial infection

143
Q

function of basophils

A

along with mast cells, release histamine associated with allergic reaction

144
Q

universal blood donor?

A

type O

145
Q

Universal blood receiver?

A

Type AB

146
Q

Innate immunity

A

non-specific, occurs immediately after infection

147
Q

adaptive immunity

A

specific, occurs after infection spreads beyond innate immunity

148
Q

role of helper T-cells

A

release cytokines activate B-cells

149
Q

role of cytotoxic T-cells

A

kill already infected cells

150
Q

role of memory T-cells

A

stay in blood and remember infection

151
Q

active immunity

A

individual makes their own antibodies

152
Q

passive immunity

A

antibodies are given to an individual

153
Q

first exposure to vaccine shot

A

small increase in antibodies, short-lived response

154
Q

a second exposure to vaccine shot (booster)

A

high increase in antibodies, faster, longer lasting

155
Q

bacteria cell wall function

A

protects bacteria,

156
Q

bacteria flagella function

A

helps bacteria to move

157
Q

bacteria fimbraie function

A

allows bacteria to stick to stuff

158
Q

bacteria pilus function

A

used to transfer DNA from one cell to another

159
Q

epidemic classification

A

when a disease has more cases than expected for a period of time

160
Q

outbreak classification

A

epidemic confined to a local region

161
Q

pandemic classification

A

global epidemic