final Flashcards

1
Q

the most powerful abductor of the femur at the hip joint is?

A

Gluteus medius

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2
Q

a tendon is composed of?

A

all three layers extend past the muscle belly to form the tendon

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3
Q

the endomysium is

A

connective tissue fascia surrounding individual fibers

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4
Q

skeletal muscle fibers have many nuclei because?

A

the fibers formed from the fusion of many smaller cells during the embryonic development

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5
Q

the function of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction is to

A

bind and remove the troponin/tropomysin covers on the actin molecules so that the myosin heads can attach to the binding areas

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6
Q

after death the sarcoplasmic reticulum will leak ? causing temporary muscle contraction or rigor mortis

A

calcium

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7
Q

the role of ACH in skeletal muscle is to?

A

bind to specific receptors on the sarcolemma to open channels thus causing an action potential to spread across the muscle fiber

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8
Q

the effect of ACH on skeletal muscle fibers ends only when?

A

it is broken down by ACHe

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9
Q

the muscle protein whose function is related to it golf club like shape is?

A

myosin

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10
Q

neuroglia in the CNS the produce the myelin sheath are the?

A

oligodendrocytes

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11
Q

the faster type of propagation seen in myelinated axons is?

A

saltatory conductiom

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12
Q

the sire of communication between to neurons is called

A

synapse

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13
Q

the neve that passes through the carpal tunnel is?

A

median

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14
Q

the lever system in which the effort is very close to the fulcrum would give us a mechanical?

A

disadvantage

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15
Q

the deltoid performs which of the following actions?

A

abduction of the arm

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16
Q

the role of the troponin/tropomysin complex in skeletal muscle is to?

A

block myosin binding sites on actin during periods of rest

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17
Q

the neurotransmitter molecule released at the neuromuscular junction is known as?

A

ACH

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18
Q

a damaged neuron in the CNS will regenerate and repair itself only if?

A

None…..CNS neurons generally do not regenerate

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19
Q

the substance that is released from the synaptic end bulbs that allows presynaptic neuron to communicate chemically with the postsynaptic structure is called?

A

neurotransmitter

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20
Q

the autonomic nervous system is divided into?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

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21
Q

the branch of the nervous system that would cause blood vessel dilation in the skeletal muscles along with dilation of the pupils and increased heart rate would be the?

A

sympathetic N.S.

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22
Q

the blood brain barrier is formed from the neurological cells called? as they wrap their axons around capillaries in the brain…

A

astrocytes

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23
Q

the nodes on ranvier are?

A

gaps in myelin sheath

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24
Q

the traveling of action potential down the axon due to positive feedback response of the NA channels opening along the axon is called?

A

propagation

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25
Q

during the depolarization phase of an action potential which of the following is the primary activity?

A

NA ions are flowing into the cell

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26
Q

during the repolarization phase of an action potential which of the following is the primary activity

A

K ions are flowing out of the cell

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27
Q

white brain matter is primarily composed of?

A

myelinated axons

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28
Q

which of the following would allow a greater range of motion around a joint?

A

having the insertion point of the muscle to be very close to the joint.

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29
Q

what muscle provides the rippled abs look

A

rectus abdominus

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30
Q

all are part of the rotator cuff except…

A

pectoralis major

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31
Q

the origin of the muscle refers to the

A

attachment to stationary bone

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32
Q

which means shortest muscle

A

brevis

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33
Q

in a 3rd class lever system the arrangemtn of the systems components is such that the?

A

effort is between the fulcrum and the resistance

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34
Q

the superior and inferior rectus muscles are prime movers for the

A

eyeball movements

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35
Q

which of the following abd muscles is the deepest

A

transverse abdominus

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36
Q

which of the following acts as an antagonist to the deltoid

A

pectoralis major

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37
Q

which of the following best escribes why botox injections are currently used to treat wrinkles and muscle spasms

A

the toxin paralyzes the muscles by blocking ach that is released rom the synaptic end bulbs

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38
Q

moves a bone closer to midline

A

adductor

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39
Q

parallel to the midline

A

rectus

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40
Q

increases the angle of the bone

A

extensor

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41
Q

turn palm superiorly

A

supinator

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42
Q

four origins to a muscle

A

quad

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43
Q

saw toothed muscle

A

serratus

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44
Q

huge muscle

A

vastus

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45
Q

triangular muscle

A

deltoid

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46
Q

largest muscle

A

maximus

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47
Q

shortest muscle

A

brevis

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48
Q

a lever system where a fulcrum is between the effort and the resistance would be a

A

1st class lever

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49
Q

normal inhalations and exhalations are due to the contraction and relaxation of which of the following muscles.

A

diaphragm

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50
Q

chest compressions can be the cause of the ____breaking off of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

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51
Q

if the c1 (atlas) was fused to the c2(axis) and no movement occurred between those 2 vertebra only, which of the following would be true to the motions available in the neck of the individual

A

the patient would not be able to rotate his head from side to side as an indication NO

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52
Q

main function of the appendicular skeleton is

A

facilitate movement

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53
Q

which of the following would not be true as related to the joint capsule

A

if a patient is immobile for long periods of time the synovial capsule becomes overly filled with synovial fluid crowding the joint structures

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54
Q

a child is born with one primary curve. when the child begins to stand up and walk which of the following secondary curves would be developed

A

lumbar

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55
Q

a person who has an abnormally large thoracic curve is often called hunchback. this is actually a form of

A

kyphosis

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56
Q

the hyoid bone articulates posteriorly with which bones?

A

None

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57
Q

if you are looking for the meatus in a bone you should look for

A

a tube like passage way or canal

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58
Q

the zyomatic process is a projection off of what bone

A

temporal

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59
Q

the ___suture unites the parietal bones and the occipital bones

A

lamboid

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60
Q

the suture that passes through the optic foramen is the

A

cranial nerve II (optic)

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61
Q

which of the following shows the correct number of vertebra for each section of the vertebral column

A

7 12 5

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62
Q

the pituitary gland is located in the

A

sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

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63
Q

the superior articular facets of the atlas articulate with the

A

occipital condyles of the skull

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64
Q

all of the following are part of the axial skeleton except for the

A

scapula

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65
Q

a child comes into the er for a broken arm. upon looking at the x-rays you and your staff notice several other breaks. One nurse wants to call CPS but you tell the they should check for a disorder called___ first

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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66
Q

congenital defect in which the vertebral lamina fails to unite during the fetal development causing the nervous tissue to be unprotected or even exposed after birth

A

spina bifida

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67
Q

there are a total of ___bones is axial skelton

A

80

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68
Q

the coronoid and olecranon fossa are depressios found on which one of the following bones

A

humerous

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69
Q

the tibia and fibula both articulate distally with which one of the following tarsal bones

A

talus

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70
Q

the proximal end of the radius articulates specifically with the ___

A

capitulum

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71
Q

the carpal bone that is located between the schaphoid and the triquetrum bones is the

A

lunate

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72
Q

most of the carpal and tarsal bones are classified as

A

short bones

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73
Q

the prominence that can be felt on the medial surface of the ankle is part of the

A

tibia

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74
Q

the proximal end of the femur articulates specifically with

A

acetabulum

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75
Q

all of the following are in the proximal row of the carpal bones except

A

hamate

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76
Q

which fossa would be found on the anterior side of the scapula

A

subscapular fossa

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77
Q

the greater and lesser trochanters are projections found on which f the following bones

A

femur

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78
Q

there are a total of ____bones in one hand

A

27

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79
Q

if an elderly woman breaks her hip, the fx is most likely to be in the

A

neck of the femur

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80
Q

the proximal end of the fibula articulates specifically with the

A

lateral condyle of the tibia

81
Q

a patient complains of heel pain and thinks they may have heel spurs. which of the following statements below would be a true statement you make to the patient

A

the plantar fascia can stay overly tightened for so long that the constant pressure on the calcaneus can cause the bone to remodel itself forming the spur

82
Q

the portion of the coxal bones that touch the chair first after you sit is

A

ischial tuberosities

83
Q

when your palms are lying flat on the table your forearms are

84
Q

which of the following is an example of a symphysis joint

A

interosseous membranes

85
Q

a syndesmosis joint would functionally be classified as

A

ampiarthrosis

86
Q

all synovial joints would be classified functionally as

A

diarthrosis

87
Q

the outer layer of a joint capsule that does not secrete synovial fluid and id composed of avascular white fibrous tissue is called

A

stratum fibrosum

88
Q

the replacement of a joint through surgical means is known as

A

arthroplasty

89
Q

which type of joint is not a fibrous joint?

A

synchondrosis

90
Q

a synchondrosis joint would be found in which of the following locations

A

at the epiphyseal plates of long bones

91
Q

the proximal radioulnar joint that allows for pronation and supination would be a type of

A

pivot joint

92
Q

flexion extension abduction and adduction are all possible at the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 2 to 5 because these are all types of

A

condyloid joints

93
Q

which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint

A

glenohumeral joint

94
Q

the greatest range of motion occurs at

A

ball and socket joints

95
Q

spreading the legs apart as in doing jumping jacks is an example of ___at the hip joint

96
Q

a patient has a joint disorder you suspect is arthritis. The patient reports that the pain is worse in the morning but gets better as the day goes on. There is no report of swelling in the joints. this type of arthritis this patient has is most likely

A

osteoarthritis

97
Q

which 2 movements of the lower extremities would be necessary in order to sit and cross your legs

A

flexion and external rotation of the hip joint

98
Q

in the endochondral bone formation the original pattern for the bone is made of

A

hyaline cartilage

99
Q

the region that we consider the shaft of a long bone is referred to as the

100
Q

osteons are the basic individual units that form the structure of

A

compact bone

101
Q

the tiny canals connecting the osteocytes with the central canal of an osteon are called

A

canaliculi

102
Q

the periosteum is the

A

connective and epithelial layer that covers the outside of the bone

103
Q

growth in bone length occurs

A

at the epiphyseal plate in the metaphysis

104
Q

if all spongy bones were accidently developed as compact bone during fetal development which of the following would be true

105
Q

a bedridden person loses bone mass because of

A

a lack of sufficient mechanical stress to the bones

106
Q

which of the following lists the levels of organization of the human body from the most complex to least complex

A

organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, chemical

107
Q

the only substance on earth that is considered purely neutral on the ph scale is___because____

A

pure water/there are an equal amount of H and OH molecules when pure water dissociates

107
Q

the only substance on earth that is considered purely neutral on the ph scale is___because____

A

pure water/there are an equal amount of H and OH molecules when pure water dissociates

108
Q

identify which one of the following statements about carbs is true

A

carbs usually contain carbon hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

109
Q

which of the following statements best describes how the phospholipid molecules are arranged within the lipid bilayer of our cell memebranes

A

the heads are orientated toward ICF and ECF because they are hydrophilic

110
Q

which of the following is an example of a positive feedback system

A

a neuron is stimulated thus opening the membrane channels on the axon to allow NA ions to move into the cell. This causes more membrane channels to open along the axon thus allowing more NA ions to move into the cell

111
Q

the large macromolecules in our bodies are usually held together by large____bonds because they are stronger bonds than the other types

112
Q

what can you tell about the following nucleotide sequence Adenine-uracil-guanine

A

it comes from a section of RNA

113
Q

a patients iv saline solution was accidently replaced with pure sterile water. What would you see written in this patients autopsy report

A

the patients red bolod cells and most brain cells were filled with water, swelled, and burst

114
Q

blood is slightly alkaline. this means that blood contains a slightly higher number of dissolved____ions than pure water does

115
Q

the end phase of mitosis where the cytoplasm physically splits and two new daughter called are formed is known as

A

cytokinesis

116
Q

the plane that divides a structure into equal left and right halves is the

A

midsagittal

117
Q

the process that our bodies use to continually monitor recognize and correct imbalances in our internal environment to maintain a level of homeostasis is

A

negative feedback response

118
Q

ATP stands for____and is produced in the ___of our cells

A

Adenosine phosphate-mitochondria

119
Q

as you read through the cart prior to bathing a patient you notice that the patient has been complaining of severe pain in the right acromial region. You should be very careful when handling this patients

A

right shoulder

120
Q

the crural region is directionally ___to the tarsal region

121
Q

potassium chloride os classified as ____ because it does not release excess hydrogen or hydroxide ions when dissolved in water

122
Q

the phase of the cell cycle in which the DNA is replicated before cell division occurs is

123
Q

which of the following substances is composed of protein

124
Q

a person comes in to the docotr coplaining of ongoing pain after having severe cramps in his calf muscles at night. In your report you will wirte patient complains of pain in the ____ region

125
Q

the process in which the solvent water moves down the concentration gradient from high to low is called

126
Q

cells need to move NA ions from the cytoplasm out to the blood. the concentration of NA IN THE BLOOD IS 20% HIGHER THAN IN THE CYTOPLASM. WHAT PROCESS WILL THE CELL MEMBRANES BE REQUIRED TO USE IN ORDER FOR THE na TO BE MOVED INTO THE BLOOD AGAINST THAY CONCENTRATION GRADIENT

A

ACTIVE TRANSPORT

127
Q

THE PHASE MITOSIS IN WHICH THE CENTROMERES SPLIT AND CHROMATIDS ARE PULLED APART BY THE SPINDLE FIBERS AND BEGIN MOVING TO OPPOSITE POLES OF THE CELL IS CALLED

128
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REPRESENTS THE CORRECT BASE PAIRING BETWEEN THE NITROGENOUS BASES FOUND IN DNA MOLECULES.

A

ADENINE TO THYMINE, CYTOSINE TO GUANINE

129
Q

CHROMATIN WILL COIL ITSELF UP AROUND HISTONE PROTEINS TO FORM THICKER VISIBLE CHROMOSOMES DURING WHICH EARLY PREPARATION PHASE OF MITOSIS

130
Q

CELL MEMBRANES HELP TO PROTECT THE CELL BY ONLY ALLOWING CERTAIN SUBSTANCES TO CROSS THE CELL MEMBRANE WHILE KEEPING OTHER SUBSTANCES OUT. THIS IMPORTANT PROPERTY OF THE CELL MEMBRANE IS CALLED

A

SELECTIVE PERMEABILITY

131
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CORRECTLY LISTS THE FOUR ELEMENTS THAT MAKE UP 96% OF THE HUMAN BODY MASS

132
Q

THE RED BLOOD CELL THAT IS PLACED IN A 70% SALT SOLUTION WOULD QUICKLY ___ DUE TO THE EXTREME HIGH OSMOTIC PRESSURE FROM THAT ENVIRONMENT

133
Q

THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE OF A PROTEIN IS COMPOSED OF A LONG CHAIN OF MANY

A

AMINO ACIDS

134
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE LOCATED IN THE DORSAL BODY CAVITY

A

BRAIN AND SPINAL (BOTH A&C)

135
Q

THE MOLECULE RESPONSIBLE FOR BRINGING the correct amino acid to the ribosome during the translastion phase of a protein synthesis is

136
Q

if atoms will form bonds with othr atoms by sharing electrons in order to have a full valence shell this would form a ____ bond

137
Q

the types of lipids that function mainly to store excess energy from the food that we eat are called

A

triglycerides

138
Q

red blood cells only live approx 24 hours once they have entered the bloodstream from bone marrow. this is a ormal expected type of cell death called

139
Q

which of the following best describes the integumentary system

A

it contains hair skin and nails as accessory organs

140
Q

the esophagus is directionally ___to the trachea

141
Q

the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in the body is known as

A

metabolism

142
Q

____ bonds are formed when one atom physically gives an electro to another atom. thus forming two oppositely charged ions that are held together by the attraction of opposite charges

143
Q

water molecules are polar molecules. this means that…

A

each end of the molecule has opposite charges

144
Q

if the nucleotide sequence of a section of DNA strand is ACTGCT then the mRNA copy of that section would be

145
Q

any substance when dissolved in water releases extra H ions into the water would be

146
Q

which of the following is not one of the major organic molecules that make up the human body

147
Q

DNA is made of repeating___ each consisting of a sugar called_____ a phosphate group and one of four nitrogenous bases

A

nucleotides/deoxyribose

148
Q

the end result of the process of transcription is the production of

A

mRNA copy of a section of DNA

149
Q

the process of translation occurs at which of the following organelles within the cytoplasm

150
Q

the abnormal death of our cells as that seen in gangrene of the skin is called

151
Q

the ribosomes of the cytoplasm of our cells were produced inside of the ___before entering the cytoplasm

152
Q

in order for something to be considered an organic compound it must contain

153
Q

which is true for all mRNA

A

all are true

154
Q

the appendix would be located in which quadrant

155
Q

a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution of .02% NA would

A

swell up and eventually burst

156
Q

the formation of bone is called

A

ossification

157
Q

during endochondral bone formation the primary center for ossification begins in the

A

center of the diaphysis

158
Q

the function of collagen fibers found in our bones is to

A

allow flexibility in the bones decreasing the susceptibility of FX

159
Q

the function of the osteoblasts in bone tissue is to

A

divide and secrete matrix to produce new bone as it is needed

160
Q

the function of the nutrient foramen of a long bone is to provide a passage way for

A

the major blood vessel entering the diaphysis of a long bone

161
Q

which end of the following contains yellow bone marrow

A

diaphysis of long bones

162
Q

the type of tissue that specializes and sinks below the skin to form most exocrine glands in the body is

A

epithelial tissue

163
Q

the types of cell junction the prevents the contents of the stomach and bladder from leaking into the surrounding tissues are the

A

tight junctions

164
Q

the main function of the areolar connective tissue is to

A

protect, nourish and bind structure it surrounds as well as to hold the skin down to deeper tissues

165
Q

keratin is found mostly in tissues that

A

need to be strong to resist friction

166
Q

most of the upper respiratory tract is lined with

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

167
Q

most exocrine glands in the body are classified as ____in the method they use to secrete substances

168
Q

the suffix blast at the end of a cell name indicates

A

immature cell that still divides and secretes matrix

169
Q

the embryonic connective tissue that from which all other connective tissues arise

A

mesenchyme

170
Q

all of the following are functions of adipose tissue except

A

formation of endocrine glands

171
Q

osteocytes in compact bones are located between the concentric lamellae of the osteons and are found inside small sacs called

172
Q

both desmosomes and gap junctions are found connecting the cells of the

A

cardiac muscle tissue

173
Q

the large arteries and the bronchial tubes which both stretch and recoil are composed mostly of which type of connective tissue

174
Q

which layer pf the epidermis do you end up wiping off of your furniture with a dust cloth

A

stratum corneum

175
Q

new epidermal cells are constantly being produced from cell division occuring in the cells found in the stratum

176
Q

the average length of time for a cell to rise to the surface become keratinized and shed off of your body is

177
Q

fat energy storage in the skin is an important function of the

A

subcutaneous layer

178
Q

the supporting cells of the nervous system that support and surround the neurons are called

A

neuroglial cells

179
Q

the main function of keratin in the epidermis is to

A

make skin tough and waterproof

180
Q

which of the following would be true of a person born with no melanocytes

A

their skin would burn easily in the sun

181
Q

the cells in the epidermis that secrete lipids to make the skin more waterproof would be found in which epidermal layer

A

stratum granulosum

182
Q

vit d plays an important part in

A

absorption of calcium

183
Q

a person who receives a skin transplant from an identical twin has undergone

184
Q

the larger lower layer of the dermis that contains many of our exocrine glands and hair follicles is the

A

reticular region of the dermis

185
Q

the main pigment that gives our skin its color and that protects us from damaging uv light is

186
Q

sweat is produced by

A

sudoriferous glands

187
Q

when a child breaks a long bone the doctors are always quick to see if there is any damage in the ___ which might cause problems later with growth

A

epiphyseal plate

188
Q

a fx in which the bone comes through the skin

189
Q

7if blood calcium levels get too low which of the following statements would be true regarding functions

A

the osteoclast function increases eating away at the outermost layers of the bone

190
Q

which of the following is not a function of our bone tissue

A

epithelial cell division

191
Q

the bone stem cells found in the inner layer of the periosteum and the endosteum that can divide to replace themselves or can become osteoblasts are

A

osteoprogenitor cells

192
Q

spongy bone consists of irregular lattice work of thin columns of bone called

A

trabeculae

193
Q

ossification of bone begins during the ___ week of fetal development

A

6th or 7th

194
Q

a fx of the distal radius is often called

195
Q

the type of fx often seen in children especially in cases of child abuse where the spiral fx crosses the growth plate

A

green stick fx

196
Q

which of the following is true of the yellow bone marrow

A

it is found mostly in the marrow cavity in the diaphysis of the long bones

197
Q

the disorder likely to be seen in children who did not get enough vit d in their diets as their bones were growling is called