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Abdominal Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	A congenital obstruction found in utero & in infants is called a(n) : 
A.	Ureteropelvic junction
B.	Ureterocele
C.	Bladder diverticulum
D.	Posterior Uretheral valves
A

A

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2
Q 
2.	Parepelvic cysts are located in the -
A.	Renal hilum
B.	Renal cortex
C.	Lower pole
D.	Pararenal space
A

A

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3
Q 
3.	Most common solid renal mass is found in the childhood is  - 
A.	Renal cell carcinoma
B.	Angiomyolipoma
C.	Wilms tumor
D.	Von-hippel lindau tumor
A

C

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4
Q 
4.	The sonographic appearance of tuberous sclerosis may be difficult to deifferentiate from : 
A>	Medullary sponge kidney
B>	Nephrocalcinosis
C>	Hydropnephrosis
D>	Adult polycistsic kidney disease
A

D

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5
Q 
5.	In cases of neprocalcinosis calium deposits are usually located In the - 
A.	Cortex
B.	Renal sinus
C.	Medulla
D.	Renal hilum
A

C

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6
Q 
6.	Fusion of the lower pole of the kidneys is called :
A.	Cross-renal ectopia
B.	Pelvic kidney
C.	Supernumerary kidney
D.	Horshoe kidney
A

D

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7
Q 
7.	The most echigenic portion of the kidney is (are) the  : 
A.	Cortex
B.	Sinus
C.	Medullary Pyramids
D.	Parenchyma
A

B

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8
Q 
8.	A cyst like enlargemtns of the distal end of the utreter is called : 
A.	Uretrocele 
B.	Diverticulum
C.	Urachyl cyst
D.	Cytitis
A

Uretrocele

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the sonographic appearance of. Chronic pyelnephroitis
    A. Echogenix cortex
    B. Hypoechic enlarged kidney
    C. Inability to distuingish the cortex from medullary regions
    D. Echogenic foci in the medullary regions
A

C

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10
Q 
A cortical bulge in lateral border of kidney is called a(n) :  B
A.	Junctional parenchymal defect
B.	Dromedary hump
C.	Extrarenal pelvic
D.	Column of bertin
A

B

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11
Q 
A dilated renal pelvis without ureteral dilation is observed in patients with 
A. hydronephrosis
B. Posterior ureteral valve obstruction
c. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureterocele
A

C

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12
Q 
Which one of the following clinical findings is most likely the reason for a renal artery duplex exam?
A. hypertension
B. Oliguria
C. hematuria
D. sever flank pain
A

a

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13
Q 
A post transplant perinephric fluid collection can exhibit all of the following except a 
A. ureterocele
B. Hematoma
C. urinoma
D. lympocele
A

A

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14
Q 
A renal sonogram is performed. The finding of hypoechoic areas adjacent to the renal sinus is most consistent with 
A. bifid renal pelvis
b. renal pyramid 
C. column of bertin 
D. junctional parenchymal defect
A

B.

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15
Q 
A baseline renal transplant sonographic exam is performed within \_\_\_\_\_ hours after surgery.
A. 4 to 8 
B. 12 to 18 
C. 24 to 36
D. 48 to 72
A

D

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16
Q 
A common finding in people over 50 years of age is 
A. renal calculi 
B. renal cysts
C. multi cystic disease
D. hypernephroma
A

B

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17
Q 
Dilation of the renal pelvis with a thinning of the renal cortex is characteristic of which one of the following?
A. duplex collection system 
B. column of bertin
C. hydronephrosis
D. extra renal pelvis
A

C

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18
Q 
Renal vein thrombosis may be visualized in patients with
A. pyelnephritis
B. renal calculi 
C. renal cell carcinoma 
D. angiomyolipoma
A

C. renal cell carcinoma

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19
Q 
Ureteral jets ae not visulaized in patients with 
A. renal cell carcinoma 
B. Obstruction 
C. Duplex collecting system
D. acute focal bacterial nephritis
A

B

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20
Q 
The process of disposing metabolic waste is called 
A. Urea
B. Excretion 
C. deamination 
D. urination
A

B

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21
Q 
Which one of the following is present in urine whenever extensive damage of destruction of the functioning erythrocytes occurs?
A) protein
B) creatinine
C) hemoglobin
D) albumin
A

C

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22
Q 
The kidneys are located in the: 
A) peritoneal cavity
B) retroperitoneal cavity
C) perirenal cavity
D) perirenal space
A

B

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23
Q 
The left kidney is in contact with the:
A) spleen, pancreas, and gallbladder
B) spleen, gallbladder, and duodenum
C) pancreas, colon, and porta hepatis
D) spleen, pancreas, colon, and jejunum
A

D

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24
Q 
The right kidney is in contact with the:
A) spleen, colon, and adrenal gland
B) liver, colon, and adrenal gland
C) liver, pancreas, and gallbladder
D) liver, gallbladder, and splenic flexure
A

B

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25
Q 
Outside the renal capsule is the:
A) perinephric fat
B) paranephric space
C) renal fascia
D) renal medulla
A

A

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26
Q 
A triangular-shaped lesion on the peripheral border of the kidney most likely represents a(n):
A) renal tumor
B) artifact from rib
C) IVC compression
D) junctional parenchymal defect
A

D

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27
Q 
The left renal vein courses:
A) posterior to the IVC
B) anterior to the IVC
C) anterior to the aorta
D) anterior to the superior mesenteric artery
A

C

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28
Q 
The right Renal artery passes \_\_\_\_\_\_ to the IVC
A. anterior
B. Posterior
C. lateral
D. medial
A

B

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29
Q 
Renal sonography is not helpful in evaluating :
A. obstructive uropathy 
B. cyst formation
C. renal function
D. angiomyolipoma
A

C

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30
Q 
A potential space in located between the liver edge and right kidney is 
A. Morisons pouch
B. Douglas pouch 
C. Cul-de-sac
D. Winhauer space
A

A

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31
Q 
Renal cell carcinoma commonly invaded the. IVC via the : 
A. renal vein
B. renal artery
C. portal vein
D. splenic vein
A

A

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32
Q 
Pyonephrosis refers to the presence of 
A. blood in dilated collecting system
B. pus in a dilated collecting system
C., urine in a dilated collecting system
D, a perinephric access
A

B

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33
Q 
An extremely large echogenic renal sinus that appears to engulf the entire renal parenchymal outline suggest:
A. hydronephrosis
B. lipomatosis
C. hypernephroma
D. nephrocalcinosis
A

B

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34
Q 
Dilation of the renal pelvis may be caused by all of the following except:
A. oliguria
B. reflux
C. pregnancy 
D. distended urinary bladder
A

A

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35
Q 
A begnin vascular fatty tumor of the kidney is called
A. Angiomyolipoma
B. hypernephroma
C. neuroblastoma
D. kymphoma
A

A

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36
Q

All of the following statements about the kidneys are true except:
A) the kidneys are intraperitoneal in location
B) the average adult kidneys measure approximately 9 to 12 cm in length
C) the kidneys may move with respiration
D) the anteriorposterior thickness of the normal adult kidneys is approximately 4 to 5 cm

A

A.

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37
Q

Hydronephrosis may be best demonstrated sonographically by which one of the following patterns?
A) distorted shape of the kidney outline
B) multiple cystic masses throughout the renal parenchyma
C) fluid-filled pelvocaliceal collecting system
D) hyperechoic pelvocaliceal collecting system

A

C

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38
Q 
The most common location of renal ectopia is in the:
A) pelvis
B) intrathoracic
C) epigastric region
D) retroperitoneum
A

A

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39
Q 
The normal bladder wall should be smooth and thin and measure \_\_\_\_\_\_ millimeters (mm). 
A) 2 to 4
B) 3 to 6
C) 5 to 7
D) 5 to 10
A

B

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40
Q

Autosomal dominnant polycystic kidney disease may be characterized by all of the following statements except
A. the disease is latent until the fourth of fifth decade of life
B. the severity of the disease varies depending on the genotype
C. the disease may be associated with cyst in the liver, pancreas, and spleen
D. the involved kidneys are small & extremely echogenci

A

D

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41
Q

Which one of the following statements about the kidneys is false?
A. the kidneys are rigidly fixed on the abdominal wall
B. the kidneys consist of an internal medullary and external cortical substance
C. the kidneys rest on the psosas and quadrates lumborum muscles
D) renal pyramids are found within the medullary region

A

A

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42
Q 
Which 0ne of the following disorders does not produce a complex sonographic pattern?
A. infected cyst 
B. hemorrhagic cyst
C. hematomas
D. congenital simple cyst
A

D

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43
Q 
The normal bladder wall should be smooth thin and measure \_\_\_\_\_\_
A) 2 to 4 
B) 3 to 6 
C) 5 to 7
D) 5 to 10
A

`B

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44
Q

Which one of the following describes a bladder diverticulum?
A. cystic enlargement of the bladder orifice
B. echogenic mass of bladder wall
C., herniation of bladder wall
D. focal thickening of bladder wall

A

C

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45
Q

In the adult, a post void residual of less than ____ CC of urine is considered normal

A

20 cc

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46
Q

A central cystic region that extends beyond the medial renal border is called:

a. Hydronephrosis
b. Parapelvic cyst
c. Peripelvic cyst
d. Extrarenal pelvis

A

D

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47
Q

Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false?
A) the spleen lies inferior to the diaphragm
B) the normal adult spleen measures approximately 7 cm in width
C) the spleen is located within the retroperitoneum
D) the spleen lies in the posterior to the hypochondirum

A

C) the spleen is located within the retroperitoneum

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48
Q 
Lymph nodes emerge from the splenic hilum and course along the:
A) renal vein 
B) splenic artery
C) renal artery
D) splenic vein
A

B

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49
Q 
Splenomegaly may result from all of the following except:
A) trauma
B) congestion 
C) subphrenic abscess
D) collagen vascular disease
A

C

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50
Q 
An abnormal decrease in platelets may be the result of a(n): 
A) infection
B) bone marrow disorder
C) internal hemorrhage
D) allergic reaction
A

C

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51
Q 
The normal sonographic appearance of the splenic parenchyma is:
A) homogenous and similar to the liver
B) heterogenous
C) hyperechoic compared with the liver
D) hypoechoic compared with the kidney
A

A

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52
Q 
In the early stages of sickle cell anemia, the spleen generally appears:
A) atrophied
B) heterogeneous
C) enlarged
D) hyperechoic
A

C

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53
Q

Which one of the following statements describes the correct anatomic location of structures adjacent to the spleen?
A) the diaphragm is anterior, lateral, and inferior to the spleen
B) the fundus of the stomach and lesser sac are medial and posterior to the splenic hilum
C) the left kidney lies inferior and medial to the spleen
D) the adrenal and kidney lie superior to the spleen

A

C

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54
Q 
All of the following are functions of the spleen except:
A) production of plasma cells
B) production of lymphocytes
C) destruction of red blood cells
D) destruction of white blood cells
A

C

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55
Q 
Splenic infarction is most commonly the result of:
A) cardiac emboli 
B) splenomegaly 
C) splenic trauma
D) pneumonia
A

A

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56
Q 
The spleen is variable in size and is considered to be all of the following except:
A) tetrahedral 
B) pentagonal 
C) triangular
D) orange segment
A

B

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57
Q

When accessory spleens are present, they are usually located:
A) at the inferior margin of the spleen
B) on the posterior aspect of the spleen
C) near the hilum of the spleen
D) near the kidney

A

C

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58
Q 
The splenic vein courses along the posterior border of the:
A) spleen
B) kidney
C) pancreas
D) adrenal glan
A

C

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59
Q 
The spleen has two components joined at the hilum, are the \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_ components. 
A) anterior; posterior
B) superomedial; inferolateral
C) superior; inferior
D) superolateral; inferomedial
A

D

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60
Q 
Which one of the following may cause a splenic rupture?
A) complicated cyst
B) infarction
C) metastatic tumor
D) cavernous hemangioma
A

D

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61
Q 
Primary tumors that may metastasize to the spleen originate from all of the following structures except:
A) kidney
B) ovary
C) stomach
D) brain
A

D

62
Q 
The best patient position to evaluate the spleen is:
A) supine
B) left lateral decubitus
C) left posterior oblique
D) right decubitus
A

D

63
Q 
Other areas that should be examined when ruling out a splenic rupture include all of the following except:
A) liver and lesser sac
B) pericardium
C) pelvis
D) renal gutter
A

B

64
Q 
What sonographic signs are present in the patient with histoplasmosis?
A) atrophy 
B) cystic masses 
C) adenomas
D) bright echoes
A

D

65
Q 
Which one of the following symptoms is the most common symptom in patients with a splenic hamartoma?
A) asymptomatic 
B) epigastric pain
C) abdominal pain
D) right upper quadrant pain
A

A

66
Q 
A spleen that has migrated from its normal location is termed:
A) accessory spleen
B) wandering spleen
C) ectopic spleen 
D) splenomegaly
A

B

67
Q 
The major function of the spleen is:
A) hematopoiesis
B) to fight function
C) to manufacture leukocytes
D) to filter the peripheral blood
A

D

68
Q 
In the adult, splenomegaly is diagnosed when the length of the spleen exceeds \_\_\_\_\_ centimeters (cm). 
A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
A

C

69
Q 
Atrophy of the spleen may be found in all of the following except:
A) normal individuals
B) wasting diseases
C) sickle cell anemia
D) cirrhosis
A

D

70
Q 
A chronic disease of unknown causes that involves all bone marrow elements is:
A) thalassemia 
B) polycythemia vera
C) leukemia 
D) hodgkin disease
A

B

71
Q 
Massive splenomegaly is most likely the result of:
A) infection
B) leukemia
C) myelofibrosis
D) portal hypertension
A

C

72
Q

The retroperitoneal space is the area between the:
A) anterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles
B) posterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles
C) anterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the anterior abdominal wall muscles
D) posterior portion of the visceral peritoneum

A

B

73
Q 
The adrenal glands and kidney are contained in the:
A) perirenal space
B) anterior pararenal space
C) retrofascial space
D) posterior pararenal space
A

A

74
Q 
Which one of the following syndromes is a result of excessive secretion of cortisol?
A) conn
B) addison 
C) cushing
D) waterhouse-friderichsen
A

C

75
Q 
All of the following structures are located in the retroperitoneum except the:
A) kidney
B) aorta
C) psoas muscle
D) spleen
A

D

76
Q 
Adrenal hemorrhages are more common in:
A) older adults
B) young adults
C) neonates
D) toddlers
A

C

77
Q 
Para-aortic lymphadenopathy generally displaces the kidney:
A) anteriorly
B) posteriorly 
C) medially 
D) laterally
A

D

78
Q 
The length of the normal adult adrenal gland is usually smaller than:
A) 2 cm 
B) 2 mm
C) 3 cm
D) 3 mm
A

C

79
Q 
Which one of the following is the most common cause of primary adrenal tumors?
A) cyst 
B) adenoma 
C) carcinoma
D) pheochromocytoma
A

B

80
Q 
Which one of the following demonstrates an excessive secretion of epinephrine?
A) adrenal cyst
B) adrenal adenoma
C) medulla tumor
D) neuroblastoma
A

C

81
Q 
What adrenal tumor demonstrates intermittent hypertension and severe headaches?
A) neuroblastoma
B) adenoma
C) myolipoma
D) pheochromocytoma
A

D) pheochromocytoma

82
Q 
The most common adrenal tumor in infancy is the:
A) adenoma
B) pheochromocytoma
C) neuroblastoma
D) liposarcoma
A

C

83
Q 
The most common primary retroperitoneal tumor is:
A) lymphoma 
B) fibrosarcoma
C) germ cell tumor
D) leiomysacroma
A

A

84
Q

An urinoma may be defined as a:
A) walled-off collection of extravasated urine
B) lymph-filled space without a distinct epithelial lining
C) heterogeneous irregular mass
D) cystic space anterior to the aorta

A

A

85
Q

The “sandwich” sign represents:
A) complex appearance of adrenal hemorrhage
B) enlarged lymph nodes anterior and posterior to the mesenteric vessels
C) enlarged lymph nodes in the renal hilar area
D) image of the left adrenal gland between the crus of the diaphragm and the left kidney

A

B

86
Q 
Which one of the following muscles lie posterior to the kidneys?
A) psoas and iliopsoas 
B) psoas and quadratus lumborum 
C) obturator internus and piriformis
D) iliopsoas and levator ani
A

B

87
Q 
The left adrenal glands lie lateral to the:
A) crus of the diaphragm 
B) tail of the pancreas
C) stomach 
D) IVC
A

A

88
Q 
The area between the bladder and rectum is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) rectovesical 
B) presacral
C) bilateral pararectal 
D) iliac
A

A

89
Q 
Which one of the following syndromes demonstrates a decrease in adrenal function?
A) adrenogenital 
B) addison 
C) conn 
D) cushing
A

B

90
Q 
The right adrenal gland lies posterior to the:
A) crus of the diaphragm 
B) IVC
C) right kidney 
D) liver
A

B

91
Q 
Which one of the following structures is not located in the anterior pararenal space?
A) duodenal sweep
B) adrenal glands
C) ascending colon 
D) pancreas
A

B

92
Q

Which one of the following statements about the adrenal medulla is true?
A) the medulla is the outer portion of the adrenal gland
B) the medulla secretes a large range of steroids
C) the medulla is not essential to life
D) the medulla secretes estrogen

A

C

93
Q

Which one of the following statements describes adrenal cysts?
A) male patients are affected more than female patients
B) patients are typically asymptomatic
C) adrenal cysts are a common finding
D) adrenal cysts are usually bilateral

A

B

94
Q 
Excessive secretion of aldosterone occurs in \_\_\_\_\_\_ syndrome. 
A) addison
B) cushing 
C) waterhouse-friderichsen 
D) conn
A

D

95
Q 
Metastases to the adrenal gland are most commonly caused by primary carcinoma of the \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) breast; liver; kidney
B) lung; breast; stomach 
C) lung; breast; liver
D) kidney; colon; liver
A

B

96
Q 
Adrenal insufficiency is typically caused by:
A) adrenal adenoma
B) adrenal cyst
C) lymphadenopathy 
D) metastatic lesions
A

D

97
Q

Most of the research and development of ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) has centered on creating agents that can:
Select one:
a. Enhance the detection of stationary blood
b. Be administered by intra-arterial injection
c. Be administered intravenously
d. Enhance the detection of tumors in solid organs

A

c. Be administered intravenously

98
Q

Vascular ultrasound contrast agents enhance Doppler flow signals by:

a. Increasing the velocity of blood flow
b. Adding more and better acoustic scatterers to the bloodstream
c. Increasing the number of red blood cells in the vessel being evaluated
d. Decreasing the speed of sound through tissues

A

B

99
Q

For a vascular ultrasound contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should:

a. Be nontoxic
b. Have microbubbles that are small enough to traverse the pulmonary capillary beds
c. Be stable enough to provide multiple recirculations
d. Have all above

A

D

100
Q

The microbubble of a first-generation UCA contains which one of the following types of substance?

a. Heavy gas such as a perfluorocarbon
b. Fluid that has low solubility in blood
c. Room air
d. Fluid that has acoustic properties that are drastically different than human blood

A

C

101
Q 
Depending on the clinical application, vascular UCAs may be administered via:
Select one:
a. Intravenous bolus injection
b. Oral ingestion
c. Intravenous infusion 
d. Albumin
A

C

102
Q

The primary advantage of an ultrasound-guided procedure is:
A) marks the spot for biopsies or fluid taps
B) provides for continuous real-time visualization of the biopsy needle
C) drains abscess collections
D) places drainage tubes

A

B

103
Q

The common indication for a biopsy is to:
A) confirm a malignancy in a mass
B) define the amount of fluid in a mass
C) define the size of the drainage tube needed to drain the mass
D) confirm whether the mass is a simple cyst

A

A

104
Q 
Contraindications for a biopsy include all of the following except:
A) uncorrectable bleeding disorder 
B) lack of a safe needle path 
C) dehydration 
D) uncooperative patient
A

C

105
Q 
The test used to evaluate the effects of heparin, aspirin, and antihistamines on the blood-clotting process is:
A) Coumadin 
B) PTT 
C) AFP
D) PSA
A

B

106
Q

The national patient safety standards mandate that a “time-out” be performed before beginning any procedure, which means all of the following except the:
A) patient’s name is recited by a team member
B) patient’s name is recited by the patient
C) patient’s identification number is confirmed
D) type and location of the procedure are confirmed

A

A

107
Q 
Postbiopsy complications may include all of the following except: 
A) pain or discomfort 
B) vasovagal reactions 
C) hematomas
D) heart failure
A

D

108
Q 
A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in the \_\_\_\_\_ of a thyroid mass? 
A) center
B) complex portion 
C) anechoic portion 
D) small calcifications
A

D

109
Q

The best way to recognize the tip of the needle with ultrasound is all of the following except:
A) the needle tip appears as an echogenic dot
B) the needle tip appears as a hypoechoic area
C) the needle tip may be seen as it advances into the area
D) the needle tip may be seen with a small amount of saline injection

A

B

110
Q 
In a renal transplant procedure, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied? 
A) lower pole
B) mid-lower pole
C) mid-upper pole 
D) upper pole
A

D

111
Q 
Advantages of using ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
A) lack of radiation 
B) reduced risk of complications 
C) variable patient positions 
D) fixed angles when using needle guides
A

D

112
Q 
Limitations of ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
A) bowel gas 
B) isoechoic masses 
C) inexperienced ultrasound personnel 
D) shorter procedure times
A

D

113
Q 
The international normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of \_\_\_\_\_\_ among laboratories. 
A) PT
B) AFP
C) PTT 
D) PSA
A

A

114
Q 
What needle gauge is typically used in a fine-needle aspiration?
A) 14 to 20 
B) 20 to 25 
C) 16 to 18 
D) 10 to 23
A

B

115
Q 
Which one of the following types of biopsy uses an automatic spring-loaded device to provide tissue for analysis?
A) fine-needle aspiration 
B) free-hand biopsy 
C) core biopsy 
D) needle-guided biopsy
A

C

116
Q

The role of the cytopathology team is to:
A) ensure energy diagnostic tissue is obtained
B) increase the percentage of successful biopsies
C) minimize the number of core samples
D) provide all of the above

A

D

117
Q 
The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin is:
A) 4 to 6 hours 
B) 3 to 4 days 
C) 5 to 7 days 
D) 1 to 2 days
A

C

118
Q

A preprocedural image should document the patient’s name and the:
A) date, needle path, and sonographer’s initials
B) time, date, and needle path
C) time, date, and examination description
D) date, needle depth, and needle position

A

B

119
Q 
The most common organ biopsied is:
A) kidney 
B) liver
C) thyroid 
D) lung
A

B

120
Q 
Renal parenchyma biopsies are requested for patients with:
A) hypertension 
B) diabetes mellitus 
C) proteinuria
D) pyelonephritis
A

C

121
Q 
In a renal parenchymal biopsy, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
A) lower pole 
B) mid-lower pole 
C) mid-upper pole 
D) upper pole
A

A

122
Q 
A specific complication of a renal biopsy is:
A) infection 
B) hypertension 
C) hematuria 
D) hypotension
A

C

123
Q 
In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a thoracentesis? 
A) prone 
B) supine 
C) sitting 
D) decubitus
A

C

124
Q 
Biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for:
A) capsule rupture 
B) pneumothorax
C) hemorrhage 
D) infection
A

C

125
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ patient position is most commonly used in a prostate biopsy. 
A) supine 
B) prone 
C) left lateral decubitus 
D) semi-erect
A

C

126
Q 
Which one of the following laboratory tests could indicate a liver lesion? 
A) prothrombin time 
B) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
C) partial thromboplastin time 
D) liver-specific antigen
A

B

127
Q 
17. A double layer of peritoneum, extending from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach, is called the:
A) greater omentum 
B) mesentery 
C) lesser omentum
D) peritoneum
A

C

128
Q 
1. Collections in the right posterior subphrenic space cannot extend between the bare area of the liver and the:
A) right kidney
B) diaphragm 
C) right pleural space
D) coronary ligament
A

D

129
Q 
4. The left lateral extension of the greater omentum that connects the gastric greater curvature to the superior splenic hilum is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_ ligament.
A) splenorenal 
B) gastrosplenic 
C) falciform 
D) gastrorenal
A

B

130
Q 
5. Which one of the following ligaments forms the posterior portion of the left lateral border of the lesser sac and separates the lesser sac from the renosplenic recess?
A) gastrosplenic 
B) falciform 
C) splenorenal 
D) costophrenic
A

C

131
Q 
10. The most common primary lesions to develop peritoneal metastasis originate in the:
A) kidneys, testicles, and uterus 
B) stomach, pancreas, and colon
C) ovaries, stomach, and colon
D) pancreas, biliary tract, and kidneys
A

C

132
Q
  1. The most common site or sites for abdominal abscess formation is(are) the:
    A) appendix
    B) retrovesical space
    C) hepatic recesses and perihepatic spaces
    D) portal vein
A

C

133
Q 
3. An extrahepatic located fluid collection that may develop because of a spontaneous rupture of the biliary tree is called:
A) biloma
B) bilitis 
C) cholangitis
D) choledochitis
A

A

134
Q 
18. Clinical signs and symptoms of infection include all of the following except:
A) chills
B) weakness
C) localized tenderness
D) elevated liver function tests
A

D

135
Q 
20. A smooth membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity and is reflected over the contained organs is the:
A) perineum 
B) mesentery 
C) peritoneum 
D) retroperitoneum
A

C

136
Q 
23. The superior portion of the subhepatic space is called:
A) bare area of the liver
B) morison's pouch
C) anterior pararenal space
D) subphrenic space
A

A

137
Q 
24. The \_\_\_\_\_\_ is able to adhere to diseased organs.
A) lesser omentum
B) peritoneum 
C) mesentery
D) greater omentum
A

D

138
Q 
2. Anterior displacement of the kidney and ureter suggests a mass in the:
A) intraperitoneum 
B) subcapsular space
C) retroperitoneum 
D) interperitoneum
A

C

139
Q 
3. Which one of the following structures is found on the right side of the liver to form the subphrenic and subhepatic spaces?
A) tendons
B) fibers 
C) falciform ligament
D) ligaments
A

D

140
Q 
6. The lesser sac is located:
A) superior to the pancreas
B) anterior to the stomach 
C) superior to the stomach 
D) anterior to the pancreas
A

D

141
Q 
7. Inflammatory or malignant ascites demonstrates all of the following characteristics except:
A) anechoic patterns with smooth borders
B) matting of bowel loops 
C) fine coarse internal echoes
D) loculations
A

A

142
Q 
8. What lesion may mimic a gas-containing abscess?
A) fibroid
B) teratoma 
C) lipoma 
D) hemangioma
A

B

143
Q 
9. Differential diagnosis of a lesser sac abscess should include all of the following except a:
A) pseudocyst 
B) gastric outlet obstruction 
C) fluid-filled stomach 
D) pancreatic carcinoma/hemangioma
A

D

144
Q 
12. The most common abdominal pathologic process that requires immediate surgery is:
A) renal carbuncle
B) acute appendicitis 
C) perirenal abscess
D) cholangitis
A

B

145
Q 
14. A cystic mass between the umbilicus and the bladder is called a:
A) seroma
B) urachal cyst
C) uroma
D) urinoma
A

B

146
Q 
15. Which one of the following lies freely over the intestines similar to an apron?
A) mesentery
B) peritoneum 
C) greater omentum
D) lesser omentum
A

C

147
Q 
16. Fluid collects in the most \_\_\_\_\_ areas of the abdomen and pelvis.
A) lateral 
B) posterior
C) inferior
D) dependent
A

D

148
Q 
19. Kidney abscesses are classified by their:
A) size
B) echogenicity 
C) location
D) contents
A

C

149
Q 
21. Which one of the following hernia locations typically contains fat?
A) epigastric
B) umbilicus
C) inguinal 
D) rectus abdominis
A

A

150
Q
  1. A lymphocele may be defined as a:
    A) walled-off collection of extravasated urine
    B) lymph-filled space without a distinct epithelial lining
    C) complex irregular mass
    D) cystic space anterior to the aorta
A

B

151
Q 
25. On ultrasound, a discrete linear echogenicity in the deepest layer of the anterior abdominal wall is:
A) linea alba
B) rectus sheath
C) peritoneal line
D) subcutaneous fat
A

C

Abdominal Final (1 decks)

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