Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
0
Q

In what year were some of the biologically damaging effects of x-rays discovered?

A

1898

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

In what year were x-rays discovered?

A

1895 (Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

X-rays were discovered in experiments dealing w/ electricity & ___?

A

Vacuum tubes (Crooke’s tubes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

X-rays were discovered when they caused a barium platinocyanide plate to?

A

Fluoresce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

X-radiation is part of the _____ spectrum?

A

Electromagnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

X-rays have a dual nature, which means that they behave like both…

A

Waves & particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The wavelength & frequency of x-rays are ____ related?

A

Inversely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

X-rays have a(n) ____ electrical charge

A

No charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
X-rays have \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. no mass
B. the same mass as electrons
C. the same mass as protons
D. the same mass as neutrons
A

A. No mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The x-ray beam used in diagnostic radiography can be described as being ______

A

Polyenergetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which X-ray tube component serves as a source of electrons for x-ray productions?

A

Filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Electrons interact with the ______ to produce x-rays & heat

A

Target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The cloud of electrons that forms before x-ray production is referred to as?

A

Space charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The burning off of electrons at the cathode is referred to as?

A

Thermionic emission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which primary exposure factor influences both the quantity & the quality of x-rays photons?

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The unit used to express tube current is?

A

mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What percentage of the kinetic energy is converted to heat when moving electrons strike the anode target?

A

99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The intensity of the x-ray beam is greater on the ?

A

Cathode side of the tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the line focus principle, as the target angle decreases, the ______?

A

Effective focal spot size decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ will extend X-ray tube life

A

Warming up the tube after 2 hours of non-use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The process whereby a radiographic image is created by passing an x-ray beam through anatomical tissue is known as?

A

Differential absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following processes occurs during beam attenutation: 1) absorptions, 2) photon transmission, or 3) scattering?

A

1,2, & 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ability of an x-ray photon to remove an atom’s electron is a charac. known as?

A

Ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The x-ray interaction responsible for absorption is ?

A

Photoelectric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The x-ray interaction responsible for scattering is?

A

Compton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Exit radiation is composed of which of the following: 1) transmitted radiation, 2) absorbed radiation, or 3) scattered radiation?

A

1 & 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What interaction creates unwanted density known as fog?

A

Compton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The low-density areas on a radiographic image are created by?

A

Absorbed radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An anatomic part that transmits the incoming x-ray photon will create an area of ___ on the radiographic image

A

High density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Development & processing of an exposed film will result in a(n)

A

Manifest image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A radiograph that needs no improvement is defined as?

A

Optimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Factors that affect visibility of a radiographic image are known as?

A

Photographic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A radiograph that has insufficient density would best be described as?

A

Underexposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is equivalent to doubling the mAs?

A

increase the kVp by 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A radiograph was taken using 65kVp, 200mA at 0.10s. The image needs to be repeated b/c it is too dark. What exposure technique adjustment would be best?

A

65kVp, 200mA at 0.05s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the relationship b/w milliamperage & exposure time to maintain density?

A

Inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When repeating a radiograph to correct for a density error, it is recommended to adjust the mAs by a factor of?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following when decreased will increase density: 1) grid ratio, 2) focal spot, or 3) part thickness?

A

1 & 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How will radiographic density be affected when the SID is decreased by half?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A radiographic image described as having too many shades of gray would be?

A

Low contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The visible differences b/w adjacent radiographic densities defines

A

Contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following will increase radiographic contrast?

A

Increasing the grid ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Radiographic contrast can be increased by

A

Adding contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What factor has the most direct effect on radiographic contrast?

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Recorded detail is defined as?

A

Accuracy of structural lines recorded

45
Q

Using a smaller focal spot size will have what effect on the radiographic image?

A

Increase recorded detail

46
Q

Shape distortion can be created by ?

A

Angling the CR

47
Q

The projected shape of the unrestricted primary beam is?

A

Circular

48
Q

The purpose of beam restricting devices is to _____ by changing the size & shape of the primary beam

A

Decrease pt dose

49
Q

The best type of beam-restricting device is the

A

Collimator

50
Q

The purpose of automatic collimation is to ensure that

A

The field size does not exceed the image receptor size

51
Q

When collimating significantly

A

mAs should be increased

52
Q

Which one of the following will increase as collimation increases?

A

Contrast

53
Q

Which of the following is true of positive beam-limiting devices?

A

They were once required on new radiographic installations

54
Q

The purpose of a grid in radiography is to

A

Increase contrast

55
Q

Grid ratio is defined as the ratio of the

A

Height of the lead lines to the distance b/w them

56
Q

Compared w/ parallel grids, focused grids

A

Allow more transmitted photons to pass to the film

57
Q

With which one of the following grids would a convergent line be formed if imaginary lines from its grid lines were drawn in space above it?

A

Crossed focused

58
Q

Grid cutoff, regardless of the type, is most recognizable radiographically b/c of inadequate

A

Density

59
Q

Distance decentering grid cutoff occurs by using an SID that is not

A

w/i the focal range of the grid

60
Q

The type of motion most used for moving grids today is

A

Reciprocating

61
Q

A grid should be used whenever the anatomic part size exceeds

A

9cm

62
Q

The air gap technique requires as increase in ___ compared w/ using a grid

A

OID

63
Q

The radiation- & light-sensitive layer of radiographic film is the ____ layer

A

Emulsion

64
Q

Crossover is a radiographic problem b/c it decreases

A

Recorded detail

65
Q

Spectral sensitivity refers to the color sensitivity of

A

Radiographic film

66
Q

During latent image formation, electrons that have been liberated by radiation or light exposure are attracted to the?

A

Sensitivity specs

67
Q

Silver halide crystals are found in the ?

A

Emulsion

68
Q

Which of the following is the M/C type of film for general radiographic examinations?

A

Screen, double emulsion

69
Q

Poor film-screen contact results in a loss of

A

Recorded detail

70
Q

The purpose of intensifying screens is to

A

Decrease patient dose

71
Q

The M/C phosphor material used in today’s intensifying screens is?

A

Rare earth elements

72
Q

The speed of an intensifying screen can be reduced by adding

A

A reflecting layer

73
Q

Typically, as screen speed decreases, ______ decreases

A

Density

74
Q

The wire mesh test tool, is used to evalute?

A

Film-screen contrast

75
Q

Conversion of the latent to the manifest image is accomplished by?

A

radiographic processing

76
Q

The sequential order for processing radiographic film is

A

Developing, fixing, washing, drying

77
Q

Which of the following solutions are responsible for reducing the exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver: 1) ammonium thiosulfate, 2) hydroquinone, or 3) phenidone?

A

2 & 3 only

78
Q

The chemical responsible for maintaining the alkalinity of the developing solution is?

A

Sodium carbonate

79
Q

The fixing agent used to clear the underdeveloped silver halide crystals is

A

Ammonium thiosulfate

80
Q

Staining or fading of the permanent image results when too much ____ remains on the film w/ improper washing

A

Thiosulfate

81
Q

Finished radiographs should retain what percentage of their moisture?

A

10-15%

82
Q

The type of roller responsible for moving the film from the bottom of the tank upward is a(n) ____ roller

A

Turnaround

83
Q

The type of roller responsible for moving the film from one tank to another is a(n) ____ roller

A

Crossover

84
Q

Processing chemicals must be replenished to maintain activity & volume when depleted primarily by

A

Oxidation

85
Q

Decreasing the developer temperature

A

Decreases density

86
Q

Under what environment conditions should radiographic film be stored?

A

Temp. b/w 50-70 degs & 40-50% relative humidity

87
Q

Safelight filters are chosen based on the ?

A

Film sensitivity

88
Q

The type of silver-recovery unit that uses an electrically charged drum to attract the silver is called a(n) _____ unit?

A

Electrolytic

89
Q

A common plus-density artifact caused from bending the film before exposure is

A

Half-moon marks

90
Q

What term is defined as a measurement of the amount of light transmitted through the film?

A

Optical density

91
Q

What is the diagnostic range of optical densities?

A

0.25-2.0

92
Q

An optical density of 1.0 indicates that ____ light was transmitted

A

10%

93
Q

Changes in exposure have little effect on density in which of the following regions of the sensitometric curve: 1) toe, 2) shoulder, or 3) straight line?

A

1 & 2 only

94
Q

When the exposure technique used produces densities outside the straight-line portion of a sensitometric curve, how is contrast affected?

A

Decreased

95
Q

Which type of target interaction is responsible for the majority of x-rays in the diagnostic beam?

A

Bremsstrahlung interaction

96
Q

Increasing kVp will result in?

A

X-rays w/ higher energy

More x-rays

97
Q

Total filtration in x-ray beam includes?

A

Inherent filtration

Added filtration

98
Q

Imaging movement of internal structures is known as?

A

Fluoroscopy

99
Q

What image intensifies component converts visible light intensities from the input phosphor to electrons?

A

Photocathode

100
Q

The relationship b/w focal spot size & distance results in:

A

Geometric unsharpness

101
Q

Increasing the SID will:

A

Increase recorded detail

102
Q

Decreasing OID will:

A

Increase recorded detail

103
Q

The ability of the imaging system to distinguish b/w two adjacent structures defines:

A

Resolution

104
Q

Which of the following has the most detrimental effect on recorded detail of the image?

A

Motion

105
Q

The image receptor for computed radiography is composed of:

A

Barium fluorohalide

106
Q

Both types of DR flat panel detector digital imaging systems convert x-ray energy into:

A

Electric charges

107
Q

The latent image that consists of electrons trapped in the phosphor layer is found w/:

A

CR

108
Q

Exposed CR imaging plates should be processed w/i ____ hour(s) to avoid any loss image quality b/c of fading

A

1

109
Q

Thin fill transistors (TFTs) are used in DR systems:

A

temporarily store the electric charge