Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not an element of Nonspecific Immunity?

A

Lymphocytes

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2
Q

Common blood tests will determine that an animal has cancer.

A

False

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3
Q

With active immunity, antibodies formed in one animal are transferred to another animal.

A

False

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4
Q

The type of white blood cell which produces antibodies is a ______________.

A

Plasma cell

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5
Q

Where do T-cells “go to college”?

A

Thymus

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6
Q

Which type of white blood cells is most commonly found within an acute inflammatory response and ingests foreign material through phagocytosis?

A

Neutrophils

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7
Q

With passive immunity, antibodies formed in one animal are transferred to another anima

A

True

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8
Q

What may be done to reduce an animal’s risk for developing cancer?

A

Maintaining them at a healthy weight

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9
Q

The thymus usually increases in size as an animal ages until death.

A

False

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10
Q

What is not a characteristic sign of inflammation?

A

wetness

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a typical symptom of cancer?

A

Overall weight gain

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12
Q

What type of immunity occurs when an animal’s own immune system encounters a pathogen and responds by producing an immune response?

A

Active immunity

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13
Q

Antigen binding sites are not a part of an immunoglobulin.

A

False

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14
Q

Blood flow through a patent ductus arteriosus in a two-week old puppy is most commonly:

A

From the aorta to the pulmonary artery

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15
Q

Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic tests used when evaluating the cardiovascular system?

A

Laparoscopy

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16
Q

In the fetus, the foramen ovale allows blood to bypass the lungs by flowing:

A

from the right atrium to the left atrium

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17
Q

The prepatency period for heartworms in dogs is roughly __________?

A

6-8 months

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18
Q

Which of the following is a diuretic, frequently used to reduce the circulatory blood volume:

A

Furosemide

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19
Q

Features of atrial fibrillation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

A slow heart rate

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20
Q

Which of the following drugs is an example of an ACE inhibitor, frequently used for vasodilation in patients with congestive heart failure:

A

Enalapril

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21
Q

Which animal is most likely to be infected with canine heartworms, Dirofilaria immitis

A

Middle-age, male, outdoor dog

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22
Q

The “lub” heart sound is caused by:

A

The closing of the artioventricular valves

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23
Q

The most common cardiac disease of the cat is:

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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24
Q

Two of the more common types of cardiac neoplasms that dogs get are:

A

hemangiosarcoma and chemodectoma

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25
Q

Endocardiosis, or degenerative valvular disease, in dogs most commonly affects the:

A

Left atrioventricular valve

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26
Q

Cats with thromboembolism most often present with all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Bounding pulses

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27
Q

The intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis is the:

A

Mosquito

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28
Q

You should advise clients that it is alright to leave pets in a vehicle on a hot day as long as the windows are cracked open a little bit.

A

False

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29
Q

Hypovolemia means

A

There is a decreased amount of fluid in the vascular system

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30
Q

A persistent right aortic arch most commonly results in:

A

Megaesophagus

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31
Q

Cats are equally as likely to get heartworms as dogs?

A

False

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32
Q

A dietary deficiency that has been associated with dilated cardiomyopathy in cats is:

A

Taurine deficiency

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33
Q

Two of the most common causes of hypertension in cats are:

A

Renal disease and hyperthyroidism

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34
Q

The “dub” heart sound is caused by:

A

The closing of the semilunar valves

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35
Q

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary vein

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36
Q

Which of the following statements about heartworm disease is true

A

Sudden death can occur in infected cats

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37
Q

The characteristic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus is described as:

A

Washing machine (machinery)

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38
Q

Blood backing up within the arteries will increase blood pressure

A

True

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39
Q

Common medications used to treat intestinal roundworms and hookworms include:

A

Fenbendazole and pyrantel pamoate

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40
Q

Other than the tapeworm, what intestinal parasite may be seen with the naked eye?

A

Roundworm

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41
Q

Feline panleukopenia virus is closely related to what other virus?

A

Canine parvovirus

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42
Q

A laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include _________.

A

a fecal examination for intestinal parasites.

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43
Q

Gingivitis is a reversible disease

A

True

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44
Q

Diet changes should be made __________.

A

Gradually, over the course of a week.

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45
Q

Esophagitis can be best visualized using ________.

A

Endoscopy

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46
Q

What enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract?

A

Amylase

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47
Q

Two enzymes which are secreted by the stomach to aid in digestion are _________.

A

Hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

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48
Q

A distended, gas filled stomach, with a gas filled pylorus displaced dorsally and cranially to the fundus, in a large breed dog with non-productive retching, is most likely caused by _________.

A

gastric dilatation and volvulus

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49
Q

An essential component of pancreatitis treatment is

A

pain control

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50
Q

An examination of what is needed to confirm canine parvovirus diagnosis?

A

feces

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51
Q

IBD in dogs can inhibit the absorption of nutrients.

A

True

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52
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

The distal portion of the esophagus in cats contains smooth muscle.

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53
Q

An increased trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) test indicates dysfunction of the __________?

A

Pancreas

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54
Q

How is canine parvovirus typically spread?

A

fecal-oral route

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55
Q

An intussusception is best described as __________.

A

one portion of the intestine telescoping into an adjacent portion of the intestine

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56
Q

What is a typical presentation of a dog with pancreatitis?

A

History of dietary indiscretion or a high fat meal with subsequent anorexia, lethargy, vomiting, dehydration, and abdominal pain.

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57
Q

Puppies are typically vaccinated against parvo…

A

Every 3-4 weeks starting at 6-8 weeks of age

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58
Q

Which pancreatic marker can best evaluate both pancreatitis and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)

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59
Q

Normal function of the liver include all of the following except _________.

A

removing carbon dioxide and adding oxygen to red blood cells

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60
Q

There is a cure for feline inflammatory bowel disease.

A

False

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61
Q

Chyle filled lacteals and intestinal lymphatics are features of ______________.

A

Intestinal lymphangectasia

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62
Q

Gastric dilatation and volvulus is most commonly a disease of _________.

A

large and giant breed dogs

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63
Q

Pancreatitis is caused by _________________.

A

diets high in fat

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64
Q

There are many treatments available for progressive retinal atrophy.

A

False

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65
Q

Which of the following is not a possible cause of Cushing’s disease:

A

Iatorgenic caused by prolonged nephrotoxic antibiotic use

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66
Q

Patients can have low thyroid hormone levels due to medications or non-thyroidal illnesses (euthyroid sick syndrome).

A

True

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67
Q

Treatments for hyperadrenocorticism include:

A

lysodren, trilostane, or adrenalectomy

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68
Q

Glucose cannot be transferred from the bloodstream to the body’s cells without what hormone?

A

Insulin

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69
Q

T4 and fT4 levels in a dog with hypothyroidism will most likely be ________________.

A

lower than normal

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70
Q

Which of the following conditions will not cause mucopurulent discharge from the eye?

A

Progressive retinal atrophy

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71
Q

An older cat with dramatic weight loss, polyphagia, hyperactivity, and excessive grooming would likely have which of the following conditions:

A

hyperthyroidism

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72
Q

Pannus is thought to have a(n) _______________ etiology

A

immune-mediated

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73
Q

What is another name for keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A

Dry eye

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74
Q

What is the best description of an indolent corneal ulcer

A

superficial ulcer which fails to heal

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75
Q

Dogs with primary hyperparathyroidism most often have ______________.

A

no clinical signs

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76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding epiphora is false?

A

Treatment is reliant on identifying and correcting the primary cause.

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77
Q

Treatments for feline hyperthyroidism include:

A

methimazaole, radioactive iodine, surgery, and dietary

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78
Q

Which is NOT a symptom of diabetes?

A

Increased activity level

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79
Q

Central diabetes insipidus is characterized by

A

A decrease in the production of ADH

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80
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism, or Cushing’s disease, is caused by

A

an increase in cortisol production by the adrenal glands

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81
Q

What type of dog is most likely to present with hypoadrenocorticism?

A

middle aged females

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82
Q

With entropion, the eyelids would tend to:

A

Roll inward toward the cornea

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83
Q

What instrument is used to measure IOP

A

tonometer

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84
Q

Detection of ketones in the blood and urine of a dog with diabetes is _____________.

A

indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis

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85
Q

A grey opacity visible through the pupillary opening is seen with ___________.

A

cataracts

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86
Q

If a cat presents with PU, PD, PP and its hocks are dragging on the exam table (plantigrade stance) while the cat walks around, what disease would you be most suspicious of?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

87
Q

Hypothyroidism is more prevalent in __________________

A

middle aged female dogs

88
Q

What is not a sign of diabetes mellitus in pets?

A

itching

89
Q

The disease in which a dogs immune system attacks and destroys its own erythrocytes is called ________________.

A

IMHA

90
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding feline leukemia?

A

Felines are at risk for exposure when they cuddle with and groom each other.

91
Q

Humans can get ringworm from animals.

A

True

92
Q

A vaccine is no longer available for prevention of feline leukemia.

A

False

93
Q

Histopathology is needed to grade mast cell tumors.

A

True

94
Q

In small numbers, demodex mites are part of the normal flora in dogs.

A

True

95
Q

The most common hematopoietic tumor in both dogs and cats is lymphoma.

A

True

96
Q

What from of the flea contains the antigen which causes flea allergy dermatitis?

A

Saliva

97
Q

The etiologic agent which causes ringworm is a _________________.

A

fungus

98
Q

IMHA most commonly occurs in:

A

female dogs

99
Q

What is the most efficient way to diagnose feline ear mites?

A

visualize them with an otoscope

100
Q

A neoplasm which can be caused by infection with feline leukemia virus is:

A

Lymphoma

101
Q

Common locations for flea allergy dermatitis include

A

tailhead, lower back, and inner thighs

102
Q

Sarcoptes mange is zoonotic.

A

True

103
Q

Demodectic mange is zoonotic.

A

False

104
Q

Treatment for Feline Leukemia is mainly supportive and may include a blood transfusion due to anemia

A

True

105
Q

Lyme disease is transmitted by fleas

A

False

106
Q

Pyoderma is a general term meaning:

A

bacterial infection of the skin

107
Q

Curative treatments are available for feline leukemia virus.

A

False

108
Q

What is used to make a definite diagnosis of ringworm?

A

DTM (Dermatophyte test medium)

109
Q

Which medication is most commonly used in treating feline ear mites?

A

Tresaderm

110
Q

Cats with a progressive infection with feline leukemia virus can not the virus and will be infected for life

A

True

111
Q

What is the scientific name for ear mites?

A

Odectes cynotis

112
Q

It is important to treat all animals in the household for ear mites if one of your pets is infected.

A

True

113
Q

Histiocytomas are skin tumors which can appear similar to other skin tumors, but can spontaneously regress.

A

True

114
Q

What disease is characterized by a sudden onset of ataxia, disorientation, head tilt, and rapid involuntary eye movements?

A

vestibular disease

115
Q

Name a disease, other than persistent right aortic arch, which can cause megaesophagus?

A

Myasthenia gravis

116
Q

What type of intervertebral disc disease to chondrodystrophic (long backs and short legs) breeds most commonly get?

A

Type I

117
Q

What is the treatment for avascular necrosis of the femoral head?

A

Excisional arthroplasty

118
Q

A small breed dog with “skipping lameness” would most likely have

A

patellar luxation

119
Q

Which of the following medications are commonly used to manage epilipsy? Select all that apply.

A

potassium bromide, phenobarbital

120
Q

A specialized bone biopsy needle is beneficial when trying to obtain a bone biopsy from a patient suspected of having osteosarcoma.

A

True

121
Q

To try to remember the common locations of osteosarcomas, which of the following statements is correct?

A

Away from the elbow, towards the knee

122
Q

What is the best way to diagnose intervertebral disc disease?

A

MRI

123
Q

Which best describes status epilepticus?

A

a prolonged seizure

124
Q

Neither a vaccine or curative treatment is available for canine distemper

A

false

125
Q

What best describes the epiphyseal cartilage in a dog with OCD?

A

thickened and split

126
Q

What endocrine disease should be considered in a cat that has PU/PD that presents with a plantigrade posture (hocks touching the ground)?

A

diabetes mellitus

127
Q

What is another name for Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

128
Q

If the meniscus is torn with a cruciate ligament injury, the damaged portion of the meniscus should be removed as part of the cruciate ligament repair.

A

True

129
Q

What test is used by specialty practices to evaluate hearing?

A

BAER

130
Q

Canine distemper can be diagnosed with __________.

A

PCR

131
Q

What organ are we most interested in monitoring in dogs on phenobarbital therapy?

A

Liver

132
Q

What are fractures that occur across growth plates called?

A

Salter Harris

133
Q

What are some clinical signs of facial nerve paralysis?

A

Ear, eyelid, and lip drooping

134
Q

Which spinal cord disease is caused by an embolism which obstructs the blood supply to the spinal cord?

A

FCE

135
Q

What is stabismus?

A

The abnomal positioning of the eye in the orbit

136
Q

What type of breed is mostly likely to have hip dysplasia?

A

Large breed dog

137
Q

A self-limiting musculoskeletal disease characterized by shifting leg lameness is _________________.

A

panosteitis

138
Q

For which musculoskeletal disease is a drawer sign used in making the diagnosis.

A

Cruciate ligament injury

139
Q

Curative treatments are available for feline leukemia virus

A

False

140
Q

Cats are expected to get very ill, but recover, when infected with Toxoplasma gondii

A

False

141
Q

Which feline disease may be detected using a canine ELISA test:

A

Panleukopenia

142
Q

Which type of pyometra is it when the pus or abnormal discharge can drain from the uterus through the vagina and is often seen on the skin/hair/tail/bedding?

A

Open pyometra

143
Q

The word “leukopenia” means ____________.

A

all white shortage

144
Q

Rabies is caused by:

A

a virus that attacks the nervous system

145
Q

What can be done to reduce a cat’s risk of contracting FIV?

A

Keeping the cat indoors

146
Q

Canine parvovirus typically causes what type of diarrhea?

A

Bloody

147
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is spread by ____________.

A

Dermacentor ticks

148
Q

Which of the following is one of the species most likely to carry rabies?

A

Bats

149
Q

Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted by ______________________.

A

fecal-orally and by ingestion of meat from an infected intermediate host

150
Q

Lyme disease can be transmitted to dogs, cats, and humans by which parasite.

A

A tick

151
Q

Feline panleukopenia virus can survives in the environment for (choose the longest time possible)?

A

one year or longer

152
Q

When monitoring for parturition in dogs using twice daily temperature checks, a decrease in body temperature by 1-2 degrees F would indicate parturition would most likely occur when?

A

within an hour

153
Q

The definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii is

A

the cat

154
Q

Rabies is present in wild and domestic animals in Hawaii

A

False

155
Q

A dog with icterus will have ___________ mucous membranes

A

Yellow

156
Q

A cat infected with FIV may not exhibit symptoms of the disease for a long time.

A

True

157
Q

If the testicles of a male dog or cat do not descend into the scrotum, they are said to be ________________.

A

cryptorchid

158
Q

Which cell types are not commonly attacked by canine parvovirus?

A

Renal tubular cells

159
Q

Administration of fluids by which route is most appropriate for a puppy with canine parvovirus.

A

intravenous

160
Q

Which feline virus can cause a false positive upon testing due to maternal antibodies?

A

FIV

161
Q

What is a good way to treat an animal for obesity?

A

Establish a gradual timeline for weight los

162
Q

A dog that recovers from canine distemper may continue to shed the virus for ____ months.

A

3

163
Q

Clinical signs of eclampsia are caused by __________.

A

Low calcium

164
Q

Infection with which feline upper respiratory tract pathogen is most commonly associated with arthritis or limping syndrome

A

feline calcivirus

165
Q

Feline asthma can be transmitted through the air.

A

False

166
Q

The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by

A

Cryptococcus

167
Q

The best way to diagnose stenotic nares is with a radiograph.

A

False

168
Q

Feline asthma is a short term disease and will not reoccur

A

False

169
Q

If a veterinarian aspirates fluid from the thoracic cavity of an overweight cat, and the fluid is white to light pink and milky, the condition the cat has is most likely ___________.

A

chylothorax

170
Q

An orthopneic posture can be best described as ________________.

A

when the cat stretches its neck and abducts its elbows

171
Q

What the different types of blastomycosis?

A

Pulmonary, disseminated, localized cutaneous

172
Q

Primary lung tumors are common in dogs and cats.

A

False

173
Q

All cats that are infected with Dirofilaria immitis will show symptoms.

A

False

174
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A

The bordetella vaccine is 100% effective in protecting dogs from kennel cough.

175
Q

The accumulation of air in the pleural space, which collapses the lung, is called ______________.

A

pneumothorax

176
Q

What type of microorganism is Bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

Bacteria

177
Q

Two bacterial causes of pneumonia in dogs include

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus canis

178
Q

In long nose dogs, which of the below fungi would most likely be a cause of rhinitis?

A

Asperigillus sp.

179
Q

Aerosolized medications can be used in treating cats with asthma.

A

True

180
Q

What test can allow for optimal of treatment of bacterial rhinitis in a dog or cat?

A

Culture and sensitivity

181
Q

In general, coughing causes irritation of the airways that could lead to more coughing

A

True

182
Q

Corneal ulcers can be seen with feline viral respiratory infections.

A

True

183
Q

What are the four components of brachycephalic syndrome?

A

short (compressed) head, stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules

184
Q

Canine collapsing trachea has a curable treatment.

A

False

185
Q

The life span of the adult Dirofilaria immitis in the cat is approximately ____________.

A

2 years

186
Q

If a dog rapidly inhales through its nose, often repeatedly, this is called a _____________.

A

reverse sneeze

187
Q

Pleural effusion is more characteristic of failure of which side of the heart.

A

Right

188
Q

A history of a voice change and quality in animals should raise concerns over the possibility of an infection with what virus?

A

Rabies

189
Q

What is the newly available test that detects kidney disease earlier?

A

SDMA

190
Q

In cats that present with the gait disturbance of cervical ventriflexion, which electrolyte needs to be checked?

A

Potassium

191
Q

What is the life expectancy for a dogs diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma that do and don’t receive treatment?

A

With treatment: 6-12 months; without treatment 4-6 months

192
Q

What is the best antidote for ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole)

193
Q

What is the salvage surgical procedure for recurring urethral obstruction in a cat?

A

Perineal urethrostomy

194
Q

Which of the following in NOT a function of the kidneys?

A

Producing insulin

195
Q

All of these are potential causes of feline lower urinary tract disease EXCEPT:

A

Ringworm

196
Q

What is the primary treatment for acute renal failure in most general veterinary practices?

A

IV fluids and supportive care

197
Q

The development of which type of urolith is often caused by an infection with bacteria which produce urease enzymes?

A

magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

198
Q

What breed of dog is classically predisposed to developing urate uroliths?

A

Dalmatians

199
Q

What is the typical signalment of a cat with FLUTD?

A

Obese male cat eating a dry diet

200
Q

Potassium is typically _________ with acute renal failure and ____________ with chronic renal failure.

A

high, low

201
Q

Within what time frame do dogs and cats need to be treated with Fomepizole (4 - methylpyrazole) in order for it to be effective?

A

Dogs need to be treated within 8-12 hours of ingestion; cats need to be treated with 3 hours of ingestion

202
Q

Leptospirosis __________________.

A

is a bacteria that causes acute renal failure

203
Q

_____________________ is the absence of urine

A

Anuria

204
Q

What types of crystals can be found in the urinalysis of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

calcium oxalate monohydrate

205
Q

Which of the following drugs can be nephrotoxic?

A

Amikacin

206
Q

A dog or cat with an obstructed urethra would be expected to have __________________

A

post-renal azotemia

207
Q

Bacteria like to live in an alkaline environment, which has a pH higher than ____________.

A

7

208
Q

What type of epithelial cell is responsible for the most common type of bladder cancer?

A

transitional

209
Q

Which one of the following is a collection of conditions associated with the bladder and urethra in cats?

A

FLUTD

210
Q

Bladder stones _________________________________.

A

are rock-like minerals found in the bladder

211
Q

How could future bladder stones be best avoided?

A

Dietary management

212
Q

Which is true regarding BOTH acute and chronic renal failure

A

Symptoms include loss of appetite, vomiting or diarrhea.

213
Q

Which of the following lab panels would match a cat in chronic renal failure?

A

Increased BUN and Creatinine, decreased USG