Final Flashcards
1
Q
Electrons have:
A
A negative charge
2
Q
This scientist discovered x-rays:
A
Roentgen
3
Q
X-rays are
A
Produced in the outer shells of the atoms
4
Q
Photons:
A
Are packages of energy
5
Q
Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A
X-rays are invisible and can cause biological damage to living tissue
6
Q
X-rays can be described in both terms?
A
Waves and particles
7
Q
The x-ray beam is:
A
Heterogenous
8
Q
The purpose of the x-ray tube is to produce a ________________ x-ray beam.
A
Controlled
9
Q
X-rays have properties that allow them to:
A
Penetrate or be absorbed by matter
10
Q
The number of protons in the nucleus corresponds to the number of electrons circling the nucleus.
A
True
11
Q
The x-ray tube:
A
Is a heat resistance glass enclosure containing an anode and a cathode
12
Q
The tube filament is composed of:
A
Tungsten
13
Q
Bremsstrahlung means:
A
Braking action
14
Q
In the production of x-rays a certain amount of heat is produced. What percentage of heat is produced compared with the amount of radiation?
A
99%
15
Q
Voltage is selected from:
A
The autotransformer
16
Q
In the x-ray room, radiation is produced:
A
Within an x-ray tube that has an anode and a cathode
17
Q
An effect that occurs when the exposure switch is closed is called:
A
Thermionic emission
18
Q
In veterinary medicine, the production of radiation:
A
Is always initiated by a generator
19
Q
A single-phase unit is:
A
Efficient than a three phase unit
20
Q
kV is selected from:
A
The autotransformer
21
Q
The ALARA principle is an anagram for:
A
As low as reasonably achievable
22
Q
Radioisotopes are used in:
A
Nuclear medicine studies
23
Q
Linear energy transfer defines:
A
The amount of energy transferred during a radiograph
24
Q
Scattered radiation is:
A
Increased by an increase in kilovoltage
25
Leaded gowns must be worn
By any health care worker who remains in an imaging room during radiography
26
Measurement of personal radiation is achieved using:
A dosimeter that is read on a regular basis
27
The Occupational Health and Safety Act:
Specifies that the employer is responsible for health care worker's safety
28
Standard patient exposure is measured in
Roentgens
29
Latent period may last as long as:
Years
30
RADs are used to measure:
Radiation absorbed dose
31
The atom, as we finally recognize it, contains a:
Nucleus with electron encircling it
32
What holds the electrons in place around the nucleus of the atom?
The positive electrical charge of the protons
33
The electrical spectrum covers a large number of energies including radiation and visible light. Radiation is in which portion of the light spectrum?
At the top of the scale
34
Which of the settings on the generator control the nature of the quantity and energy of the x-rays produced?
Voltage and current
35
A common phenomenon of light and x-rays is:
Their wave/particle duality
36
The x-ray beam contains:
Multiple photon energies
37
Medical radiation involves:
Disruption of the normal relationship of the nucleus and its electrons
38
Regarding x-ray spectra:
A change in the tube current affects the intensity of the beam
39
A stationary anode will be used in a:
Dental unit
40
The target material used in the anode must:
Have a higher atomic number
41
When the automatic exposure control unit reaches a predetermined quantity of radiation:
The voltage is switched off, causing x-ray production to cease
42
Radiography described images that:
Are produced with the use of an x-ray circuit and electricity
43
An x-ray is performed on a deep-chested dog. Which part of the dog would be affected by the principle depicted in the diagram?
Thorax
44
Anode Heel Effect
Because of the angle of the anode target, the x-ray beam has greater intensity on the cathode side of the tube, with the intensity diminishing toward the anode side
45
Bremsstrahlung Radiation
Occurs during the production of x-rays when a projectile electron completely avoids the orbital electrons of the tungsten atom and travels very close to its nucleus. The very strong electrostatic force of the nucleus causes the electron to suddenly 'slow down'
46
Focal Spot
The physical area of the target that is bombarded by electrons during x-ray production
47
Space Charge Effect
The restriction of the anode which restricts the number of electrons boiled off the filament
48
Photons:
Are absorbed by the patient's body
49
Radioactivity occurs when:
The nucleus of one atom is unstable due to an imbalance of neutrons and protons
50
The care of leaded aprons should include:
Hanging them by the shoulders with no folds or creases
51
It is the employer's responsibility to instruct employees of:
The risks of handling of all hazardous biological, physical, and chemical agents
52
Hazardous physical agents must be accompanied by:
Good, clear, and basic instructions on their use
53
All doses produced by an x-ray worker:
Must be as low as reasonably achievable
54
Every health care worker who assists with an x-ray procedure:
Must be provided with appropriate and correct protection
55
Inverse square law:
Concerns the intensity of the radiation from a source
56
Non-stochastic Effects
Biologic effects of ionizing radiation that is delivered in measurable units; demonstrate the existence of a threshold
57
Radiation Disintegration
Process by which the nucleus spontaneously emits particles and energy and transforms itself into another atom to reach stability
58
kV affects the image, primarily in the range of:
Contrast
59
Quality of the beam refers to:
The intensity of the beam
60
Grids:
Should be used to absorb scatter radiation
61
Millamperage-seconds (mAs) contributes mainly to:
Density
62
Remnant radiation is the:
Radiation that exits the patient
63
The strength of an x-ray beam is:
Dependent on the penetrating power of the beam
64
According to the inverse square law:
The intensity decreases rapidly as the distance from the source increases
65
A photon that is produced as 103 kVp and 50 mAs may be classified as:
Highly penetrating
66
When calculating techniques for a specific patient:
Tissue densities must be considered
67
Accuracy of patient's body is essential:
To accurately set the correct exposure factors
68
Grid ratio is described as:
The height of the lead strips compared with the distance between them
69
Illuminators:
Should be checked for brightness and color regularly
70
The light tubes used in the illuminators must have a:
Blue hue
71
The most common filter we use:
is located in the collimator
72
Aluminum was chosen as a filter material:
because it is recommended by federal guidelines
73
filtration of the x-ray beam:
reduces the dose to the patient
74
The line pair definition on a grid usually describes
the number of lines per inch
75
If the thickness of the filtration is increased, there will be a corresponding:
decreases the contrast on the image
76
Filters
Are used to remove low energy radiation
77
Many grids installed in veterinary clinics are:
In the midrange of the grid ratio
78
A pixel
Denotes the pictorial element of the image
79
In computerized radiography
An imaging plate replaces the conventional cassette
80
In digital imaging
Eliminates all processing steps
81
Computerized radiography denotes a
Method of imaging using a photostimulable phosphor
82
Digital imaging denotes
The production of digitized images
83
The dynamic range of a digital imaging system:
Is the bit capacity of each pixel
84
In direct/digital radiography
The image is recorded directly to the output phosphor
85
All forms of computerized and direct radiography makes use of:
Input phosphors
86
An advantage of computerized radiography over film imaging is:
Faster access to the images by the physician
87
Digital and computerized systems:
Can have a distinct environmental advantage
88
Emulsion consists of mainly:
Silver halide
89
The rare earth screen phosphor used in green-emitting screens is:
Lanthanum oxide
90
In the final image, intensifying screens are responsible for:
Resolution
91
When calcium tungstate is radiated, the chief color emitted is:
Blue-violet
92
The film base should be
Be resilient and flexible
93
Cassettes
Should have a method for removing air from the cassette when it is closed
94
Regarding phosphorescence:
Light continues to be emitted after the stimulus is removed
95
Intensifying screens:
Provide a faster method of imaging
96
The sensitivity speck:
Is a silver atom that will attract the silver from the halide
97
Regarding fluorescence:
Light is emitted only when the phosphor is stimulated
98
kVp contributes to:
Contrast
99
mAs determines
The number of photons
100
Time determines
Density
101
Dose increases when the
Object moves closer to the source of the radiation
102
Quality of the beam refers to:
The penetration of the beam
103
Grid ration represents the:
Height of the lead strips: distance between the strips
104
The illuminators must be reviewed regularly:
To evaluate brightness
105
Which grid has better "clean up"?
10:1, 103 lines
106
Regarding illuminators:
Replace all light tubes at the same time
107
In computerized radiography:
An imaging plate replaces the conventional cassette
108
Digital radiographic doses:
Are normally higher than film screen radiography
109
Imaging plate
The flexible plate inside the computed radiography cassette where the photons intensities are absorbed by the photostimulable phosphor
110
Thin film transistor
Electronic components layered onto a glass substrate that include the readout, charge collector and light sensitive element
111
Charge-coupled device
Detectors used in direct digital radiography that records flashes of light produced by the exit x-rays interacting with a screen that scintillates
112
Photomultiplier tube
An electronic device that converts visible light energy into electrical energy
113
Storage phosphor screen
Screens that capture the latent image produced by ionizing radiation
114
Photodide
Solid state device that converts light into an electrical current
115
Film is constructed of:
A base with a tint, and single or double emulsion
116
Screen Speed
Is dependent upon the conversion efficiency of the phosphorus
117
The ideal storage conditions for unopened, unexposed boxes of x-ray film are:
At room temperature
118
Radiography screens
Have a sturdy radio-opaque backing
119
Hydroquinone:
Builds up contrast slowly
120
Pick-off:
Occurs when the emulsion is removed from the film base and placed on another area of the film
121
Which of the following will cause films to turn yellow/brown after storage for a period of time?
Improper washing
122
The main function of the developing solution is to:
Make the latent image visible
123
The main purpose of fixer is to:
Remove the unexposed silver halide and ensure the image remains intact and permanent
124
Sensitometry can be used to:
Tracking processing parameters
125
Half value layer must always be expressed in conjunction with:
kV
126
Rectifier
Electronic device that allows current flow in only one direction
127
Generator
Device that converts some form of mechanical energy into electrical energy
128
Transformer
A device used to increase or decrease voltage (or current) through electromagnetic induction
129
Regarding darkroom lighting:
Should consist of a dark red safelight
130
The two main ingredients in the developer are:
Phenidone and hydroquinone
131
The main fixing agent is
Ammonium thiosulfate
132
Hardener in the fixer:
Hardener in the fixer:
133
Automatic processors:
With fewer rollers are more reliable and easier to maintain
134
Smear marks:
Are left by water drips
135
When an artifact occurs on a film, the first place to look is the:
Processor
136
Silver recovery systems:
Can be a glass jar containing steel wool
137
Film fogging would result from:
Fixer leaking into the developer
138
Silver may be reclaimed using ____________ as the metallic replacement:
Iron
139
Half-value layer is dependent on:
kVp
140
Sensitometry can be used to:
Track processing parameters
141
The ability of the generator to reproduce the same exposure for the same technique is known as:
Reproducibility
142
Must include those stations that are under normal range of use
Timer Testing
143
Regarding one of the features of safelight testing:
The exposed film should be exposed to the safelight in 30 second increments for a total of 1.5 minutes
144
kVp accuracy must be within:
8% for testing
145
Reproducibility guidelines allow a variation of
+/-15%
146
A sensitometric strip indicates:
The film speed and contrast with respect to a standard
147
The half value layer test:
Is a measure of the filtration in an x-ray unit
148
X-ray film is more sensitive to safelight illumination:
After exposure
149
Echogenicity is:
The appearance of tissues based on the ability to reflect sound waves
150
This type of artifact is commonly seen with uroliths or bone when most of the sound beam is either reflected away or absorbed
Acoustic Shadowing
151
Attenuation is
The loss of sound wave energy as it travels through the tissue
152
The image on the screen is very dark demonstrating a limited gray scale. Which knob should be adjusted to brighten the image?
Gain
153
The more accurate name for the ultrasound probe is a:
Transducer
154
One of the most common artifacts on ultrasounds is due to the reflections of sound waves when they come into contact with air. This artifact is referred to as:
Reverberation
155
Which of the following will result in reduced image resolution and clarity?
Panting or struggling of the patient
156
This function on a fluoroscope can reduce the patient dose by one-half.
Pulse
157
The tabletop used in fluoroscopy must be:
Radiolucent
158
In addition to real-time imaging, this is an advantage to using fluoroscopy in a veterinary practice
Imaging can be obtained in a surgery suite, Can change from DV to VD without moving the patient, Comparison of images from static to real time
159
Fluoroscopy has many applications in veterinary medicine. Which of the following is NOT an application that can be obtained with fluoroscopy
Transverse images
160
The miniature C-arm is very useful when scanning:
Equine legs
161
Interventional imaging was developed:
To enable the veterinarian to take an active part in the treatment of the patient
162
The portion of the image intensifier lines the sides of the image intensifier and directs the electrons to the positively charged anode.
Electrostatic focusing lens
163
Barium sulfate has an atomic number of _____; iodine has an atomic number of ____.
56, 53
164
An accurate diagnostic contrast study of the stomach should include ______ view(s).
Right and left lateral, ventrodorsal , dorsoventral
165
Special studies of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract should not be completed when:
The patient has a fluid-filled distended esophagus or stomach, or ileus due to torsion
166
Artie, a medium-sized dog, needs a retrograde positive cystography to look for changes in his bladder. Which of the following is not correct?
Bladder compression will be helpful for examination of the ureters
167
You are required to perform a positive-contrast retrograde cystography on a 35 kg male Retriever. If the total dose is 240 mL of a 20% diluted meglumine diatrizoate, how much diluent will you add if the original Hypaque solution was 60%?
80 ml
168
Myelography is indicated for:
Sensory deficit or spinal pain thought to be due to a transverse myelopathy
169
Sensory deficit or spinal pain thought to be due to a transverse myelopathy
To demonstrate patient anatomy pathology by imaging "slices" of the patient
170
Hounsfield Units
Translate the numerical value of each pixel into a density value
171
The layer or section of minimal blurring is referred to as the:
Focal plane
172
Which type of tissue has a higher attenuation coefficient?
Bone
173
Field of view
Represents the area imaged and translated into pixels
174
For CT images the window of an image is the:
The number of shades of gray making up the image
175
This is the key element in the resolution of CT images:
Display field of view
176
MRI technology uses radio frequency tuned to the precessing frequency of which atom?
Hydrogen
177
Magnetic resonance imaging does not involve ionizing radiation:
But the magnet is very strong and must be approached only by trained personnel
178
In MRI, the varying shades of gray in the image are referred to as:
Signal intensities
179
MRI requires the use of a specific contrast agent to highlight diseased tissues. This agent is:
Gadolinium
180
Which of the following are safety concerns with using MRI?
Implanted devices such as pacemakers and clips, hearing loss, Ability of the animal to dissipate heat
181
MRI magnet technology allows the atoms to respond according to their own polarity. Prior to exposure to the magnet the protons and neutrons spin and wobble around the nucleus. The wobbling is referred to as:
Precession
182
The radionuclide, Iodine-131, is used in veterinary medicine to treat:
Hyperthyroidism
183
An atom that is in the process of radioactive decay is referred to as:
Radionuclide
184
This isotope is used for nuclear scintigraphy, especially in equine practices.
Technetium-99m
185
A patient is undergoing a PET scan for a possible tumor. Which isotope would be used in this situation?
Fludeoxyglucose
186
The science that makes use of radioisotopes for diagnosis is
Nuclear scintigraphy
187
You are performing a bone scan on a horse. Which phase of the scan will demonstrate the inflammation of a tendon?
Soft tissue
188
The imaging technology that allows for the combination of form and function is:
PET
189
Which of the following steps will be helpful in acquiring a DPr-PaDi view of the equine metacarpus
The image receptor is caudal to the palmer aspect of the limb and is perpendicular to the beam, The central ray aimed at the midsagittal plane of the metacarpus, The beam is traveling from dorsomedial (point of entry) to palmarolateral (point of exit)
190
You want to obtain a flexed lateromedial (LM) view of the fetlock in a horse. What step does not belong in this procedure?
Abduct the foot laterally during flexion
191
What is the main purpose of taking a high coronary study of the equine distal phalanx?
To note the number, size and character of the vascular channels, To observe and note the crena, plus the palmar wings formed by the solar border, To observe and note the ungular or collateral cartilages
192
You need to obtain an image for a horse of the flexed D45Pr-DDi for a skyline view of the dorsal aspect of the proximal row of horse's carpal bones. You will angle the central ray:
45 degrees from vertical or to the plate
193
When viewing the equine distal phalanx, which route or view is better for revealing the extensor process, conformation, quality of hoof care, and relationship of foot to the surface?
upright pedal route
194
You want to obtain an extensor surface/skyline (DPr-DDi) view of an equine fetlock. What step does not belong in this procedure?
increase the SID
195
Which surfaces are highlighted in a DLPMO view of the equine forelimb?
The dorsomedial and palmarolateral surfaces of the limb
196
For the flexed D65Pr-DDi for a skyline view of the equine dorsodistal radius:
The radius is vertical to ground at the level of the opposite carpus
197
Which of the following is true of attempts to create radiographic images of a horse's brachioantebrachial joint?
All three are true of the brachioantebrachial joint
198
A horse is suspected to have chronic degenerative changes in the distal sesamoid. Which view are you most likely to choose to evaluate the changes in the shape of the bone?
Lateral view of the navicular bone
199
You have been asked to obtain a lateral view of the coelom in a large cockatoo but only have a modified cat abdominal chart. Where will you measure this patient?
over the keel
200
As you position an avian patient for a modified whole-body/pectoral limb lateral view how do you ensure that the lateral coelom view is symmetrical?
The sterum and vertebral column are on the same plane, The head is slightly extended, The acetabula, ribs, coracoids, femoral heads, and kidneys are superimposed
201
To see a true orthogonal view of the wing, you need to take a ___________ view.
Caudocranial (CdCr)
202
You are preparing to conduct a contrast study of the GI tract of budgerigar. You are aware that food left in the ________ decreases the volume of contrast media that can be safely administered.
crop
203
For a contrast study of the gastrointestinal tract, you should produce survey ____________ radiographs just prior to the contrast study.
Ventrodorsal and right lateral
204
To prepare an avian patient for a cloacagram, you will:
Administer retrograde barium into the vent
205
For birds, a longer scale of contrast associated with kVp in the ________ range is preferred.
40 to 60 kVp
206
How does respiration in the avian patient affect imaging?
Positive-pressure ventilation can be applied to an intubated, anesthetized bird for air sac inflation, In the bird, the air is continously moving into the pulmonary parenchyma, Air sacs and the lungs are nonexpansile
207
For a mediolateral view of the foot in a parrot, direct the central ray to the:
Condyles of the tarsometatarsal bone
208
Identify an appropriate contraindication for avian urography
Intolerance for anesthesia or sedation
