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ANSC 152 Radiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Electrons have:

A

A negative charge

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2
Q

This scientist discovered x-rays:

A

Roentgen

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3
Q

X-rays are

A

Produced in the outer shells of the atoms

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4
Q

Photons:

A

Are packages of energy

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5
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A

X-rays are invisible and can cause biological damage to living tissue

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6
Q

X-rays can be described in both terms?

A

Waves and particles

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7
Q

The x-ray beam is:

A

Heterogenous

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8
Q

The purpose of the x-ray tube is to produce a ________________ x-ray beam.

A

Controlled

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9
Q

X-rays have properties that allow them to:

A

Penetrate or be absorbed by matter

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10
Q

The number of protons in the nucleus corresponds to the number of electrons circling the nucleus.

A

True

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11
Q

The x-ray tube:

A

Is a heat resistance glass enclosure containing an anode and a cathode

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12
Q

The tube filament is composed of:

A

Tungsten

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13
Q

Bremsstrahlung means:

A

Braking action

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14
Q

In the production of x-rays a certain amount of heat is produced. What percentage of heat is produced compared with the amount of radiation?

A

99%

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15
Q

Voltage is selected from:

A

The autotransformer

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16
Q

In the x-ray room, radiation is produced:

A

Within an x-ray tube that has an anode and a cathode

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17
Q

An effect that occurs when the exposure switch is closed is called:

A

Thermionic emission

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18
Q

In veterinary medicine, the production of radiation:

A

Is always initiated by a generator

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19
Q

A single-phase unit is:

A

Efficient than a three phase unit

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20
Q

kV is selected from:

A

The autotransformer

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21
Q

The ALARA principle is an anagram for:

A

As low as reasonably achievable

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22
Q

Radioisotopes are used in:

A

Nuclear medicine studies

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23
Q

Linear energy transfer defines:

A

The amount of energy transferred during a radiograph

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24
Q

Scattered radiation is:

A

Increased by an increase in kilovoltage

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25
Q

Leaded gowns must be worn

A

By any health care worker who remains in an imaging room during radiography

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26
Q

Measurement of personal radiation is achieved using:

A

A dosimeter that is read on a regular basis

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27
Q

The Occupational Health and Safety Act:

A

Specifies that the employer is responsible for health care worker’s safety

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28
Q

Standard patient exposure is measured in

A

Roentgens

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29
Q

Latent period may last as long as:

A

Years

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30
Q

RADs are used to measure:

A

Radiation absorbed dose

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31
Q

The atom, as we finally recognize it, contains a:

A

Nucleus with electron encircling it

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32
Q

What holds the electrons in place around the nucleus of the atom?

A

The positive electrical charge of the protons

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33
Q

The electrical spectrum covers a large number of energies including radiation and visible light. Radiation is in which portion of the light spectrum?

A

At the top of the scale

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34
Q

Which of the settings on the generator control the nature of the quantity and energy of the x-rays produced?

A

Voltage and current

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35
Q

A common phenomenon of light and x-rays is:

A

Their wave/particle duality

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36
Q

The x-ray beam contains:

A

Multiple photon energies

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37
Q

Medical radiation involves:

A

Disruption of the normal relationship of the nucleus and its electrons

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38
Q

Regarding x-ray spectra:

A

A change in the tube current affects the intensity of the beam

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39
Q

A stationary anode will be used in a:

A

Dental unit

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40
Q

The target material used in the anode must:

A

Have a higher atomic number

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41
Q

When the automatic exposure control unit reaches a predetermined quantity of radiation:

A

The voltage is switched off, causing x-ray production to cease

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42
Q

Radiography described images that:

A

Are produced with the use of an x-ray circuit and electricity

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43
Q

An x-ray is performed on a deep-chested dog. Which part of the dog would be affected by the principle depicted in the diagram?

A

Thorax

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44
Q

Anode Heel Effect

A

Because of the angle of the anode target, the x-ray beam has greater intensity on the cathode side of the tube, with the intensity diminishing toward the anode side

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45
Q

Bremsstrahlung Radiation

A

Occurs during the production of x-rays when a projectile electron completely avoids the orbital electrons of the tungsten atom and travels very close to its nucleus. The very strong electrostatic force of the nucleus causes the electron to suddenly ‘slow down’

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46
Q

Focal Spot

A

The physical area of the target that is bombarded by electrons during x-ray production

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47
Q

Space Charge Effect

A

The restriction of the anode which restricts the number of electrons boiled off the filament

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48
Q

Photons:

A

Are absorbed by the patient’s body

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49
Q

Radioactivity occurs when:

A

The nucleus of one atom is unstable due to an imbalance of neutrons and protons

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50
Q

The care of leaded aprons should include:

A

Hanging them by the shoulders with no folds or creases

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51
Q

It is the employer’s responsibility to instruct employees of:

A

The risks of handling of all hazardous biological, physical, and chemical agents

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52
Q

Hazardous physical agents must be accompanied by:

A

Good, clear, and basic instructions on their use

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53
Q

All doses produced by an x-ray worker:

A

Must be as low as reasonably achievable

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54
Q

Every health care worker who assists with an x-ray procedure:

A

Must be provided with appropriate and correct protection

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55
Q

Inverse square law:

A

Concerns the intensity of the radiation from a source

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56
Q

Non-stochastic Effects

A

Biologic effects of ionizing radiation that is delivered in measurable units; demonstrate the existence of a threshold

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57
Q

Radiation Disintegration

A

Process by which the nucleus spontaneously emits particles and energy and transforms itself into another atom to reach stability

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58
Q

kV affects the image, primarily in the range of:

A

Contrast

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59
Q

Quality of the beam refers to:

A

The intensity of the beam

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60
Q

Grids:

A

Should be used to absorb scatter radiation

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61
Q

Millamperage-seconds (mAs) contributes mainly to:

A

Density

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62
Q

Remnant radiation is the:

A

Radiation that exits the patient

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63
Q

The strength of an x-ray beam is:

A

Dependent on the penetrating power of the beam

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64
Q

According to the inverse square law:

A

The intensity decreases rapidly as the distance from the source increases

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65
Q

A photon that is produced as 103 kVp and 50 mAs may be classified as:

A

Highly penetrating

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66
Q

When calculating techniques for a specific patient:

A

Tissue densities must be considered

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67
Q

Accuracy of patient’s body is essential:

A

To accurately set the correct exposure factors

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68
Q

Grid ratio is described as:

A

The height of the lead strips compared with the distance between them

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69
Q

Illuminators:

A

Should be checked for brightness and color regularly

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70
Q

The light tubes used in the illuminators must have a:

A

Blue hue

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71
Q

The most common filter we use:

A

is located in the collimator

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72
Q

Aluminum was chosen as a filter material:

A

because it is recommended by federal guidelines

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73
Q

filtration of the x-ray beam:

A

reduces the dose to the patient

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74
Q

The line pair definition on a grid usually describes

A

the number of lines per inch

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75
Q

If the thickness of the filtration is increased, there will be a corresponding:

A

decreases the contrast on the image

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76
Q

Filters

A

Are used to remove low energy radiation

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77
Q

Many grids installed in veterinary clinics are:

A

In the midrange of the grid ratio

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78
Q

A pixel

A

Denotes the pictorial element of the image

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79
Q

In computerized radiography

A

An imaging plate replaces the conventional cassette

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80
Q

In digital imaging

A

Eliminates all processing steps

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81
Q

Computerized radiography denotes a

A

Method of imaging using a photostimulable phosphor

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82
Q

Digital imaging denotes

A

The production of digitized images

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83
Q

The dynamic range of a digital imaging system:

A

Is the bit capacity of each pixel

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84
Q

In direct/digital radiography

A

The image is recorded directly to the output phosphor

85
Q

All forms of computerized and direct radiography makes use of:

A

Input phosphors

86
Q

An advantage of computerized radiography over film imaging is:

A

Faster access to the images by the physician

87
Q

Digital and computerized systems:

A

Can have a distinct environmental advantage

88
Q

Emulsion consists of mainly:

A

Silver halide

89
Q

The rare earth screen phosphor used in green-emitting screens is:

A

Lanthanum oxide

90
Q

In the final image, intensifying screens are responsible for:

A

Resolution

91
Q

When calcium tungstate is radiated, the chief color emitted is:

A

Blue-violet

92
Q

The film base should be

A

Be resilient and flexible

93
Q

Cassettes

A

Should have a method for removing air from the cassette when it is closed

94
Q

Regarding phosphorescence:

A

Light continues to be emitted after the stimulus is removed

95
Q

Intensifying screens:

A

Provide a faster method of imaging

96
Q

The sensitivity speck:

A

Is a silver atom that will attract the silver from the halide

97
Q

Regarding fluorescence:

A

Light is emitted only when the phosphor is stimulated

98
Q

kVp contributes to:

A

Contrast

99
Q

mAs determines

A

The number of photons

100
Q

Time determines

A

Density

101
Q

Dose increases when the

A

Object moves closer to the source of the radiation

102
Q

Quality of the beam refers to:

A

The penetration of the beam

103
Q

Grid ration represents the:

A

Height of the lead strips: distance between the strips

104
Q

The illuminators must be reviewed regularly:

A

To evaluate brightness

105
Q

Which grid has better “clean up”?

A

10:1, 103 lines

106
Q

Regarding illuminators:

A

Replace all light tubes at the same time

107
Q

In computerized radiography:

A

An imaging plate replaces the conventional cassette

108
Q

Digital radiographic doses:

A

Are normally higher than film screen radiography

109
Q

Imaging plate

A

The flexible plate inside the computed radiography cassette where the photons intensities are absorbed by the photostimulable phosphor

110
Q

Thin film transistor

A

Electronic components layered onto a glass substrate that include the readout, charge collector and light sensitive element

111
Q

Charge-coupled device

A

Detectors used in direct digital radiography that records flashes of light produced by the exit x-rays interacting with a screen that scintillates

112
Q

Photomultiplier tube

A

An electronic device that converts visible light energy into electrical energy

113
Q

Storage phosphor screen

A

Screens that capture the latent image produced by ionizing radiation

114
Q

Photodide

A

Solid state device that converts light into an electrical current

115
Q

Film is constructed of:

A

A base with a tint, and single or double emulsion

116
Q

Screen Speed

A

Is dependent upon the conversion efficiency of the phosphorus

117
Q

The ideal storage conditions for unopened, unexposed boxes of x-ray film are:

A

At room temperature

118
Q

Radiography screens

A

Have a sturdy radio-opaque backing

119
Q

Hydroquinone:

A

Builds up contrast slowly

120
Q

Pick-off:

A

Occurs when the emulsion is removed from the film base and placed on another area of the film

121
Q

Which of the following will cause films to turn yellow/brown after storage for a period of time?

A

Improper washing

122
Q

The main function of the developing solution is to:

A

Make the latent image visible

123
Q

The main purpose of fixer is to:

A

Remove the unexposed silver halide and ensure the image remains intact and permanent

124
Q

Sensitometry can be used to:

A

Tracking processing parameters

125
Q

Half value layer must always be expressed in conjunction with:

A

kV

126
Q

Rectifier

A

Electronic device that allows current flow in only one direction

127
Q

Generator

A

Device that converts some form of mechanical energy into electrical energy

128
Q

Transformer

A

A device used to increase or decrease voltage (or current) through electromagnetic induction

129
Q

Regarding darkroom lighting:

A

Should consist of a dark red safelight

130
Q

The two main ingredients in the developer are:

A

Phenidone and hydroquinone

131
Q

The main fixing agent is

A

Ammonium thiosulfate

132
Q

Hardener in the fixer:

A

Hardener in the fixer:

133
Q

Automatic processors:

A

With fewer rollers are more reliable and easier to maintain

134
Q

Smear marks:

A

Are left by water drips

135
Q

When an artifact occurs on a film, the first place to look is the:

A

Processor

136
Q

Silver recovery systems:

A

Can be a glass jar containing steel wool

137
Q

Film fogging would result from:

A

Fixer leaking into the developer

138
Q

Silver may be reclaimed using ____________ as the metallic replacement:

A

Iron

139
Q

Half-value layer is dependent on:

A

kVp

140
Q

Sensitometry can be used to:

A

Track processing parameters

141
Q

The ability of the generator to reproduce the same exposure for the same technique is known as:

A

Reproducibility

142
Q

Must include those stations that are under normal range of use

A

Timer Testing

143
Q

Regarding one of the features of safelight testing:

A

The exposed film should be exposed to the safelight in 30 second increments for a total of 1.5 minutes

144
Q

kVp accuracy must be within:

A

8% for testing

145
Q

Reproducibility guidelines allow a variation of

A

+/-15%

146
Q

A sensitometric strip indicates:

A

The film speed and contrast with respect to a standard

147
Q

The half value layer test:

A

Is a measure of the filtration in an x-ray unit

148
Q

X-ray film is more sensitive to safelight illumination:

A

After exposure

149
Q

Echogenicity is:

A

The appearance of tissues based on the ability to reflect sound waves

150
Q

This type of artifact is commonly seen with uroliths or bone when most of the sound beam is either reflected away or absorbed

A

Acoustic Shadowing

151
Q

Attenuation is

A

The loss of sound wave energy as it travels through the tissue

152
Q

The image on the screen is very dark demonstrating a limited gray scale. Which knob should be adjusted to brighten the image?

A

Gain

153
Q

The more accurate name for the ultrasound probe is a:

A

Transducer

154
Q

One of the most common artifacts on ultrasounds is due to the reflections of sound waves when they come into contact with air. This artifact is referred to as:

A

Reverberation

155
Q

Which of the following will result in reduced image resolution and clarity?

A

Panting or struggling of the patient

156
Q

This function on a fluoroscope can reduce the patient dose by one-half.

A

Pulse

157
Q

The tabletop used in fluoroscopy must be:

A

Radiolucent

158
Q

In addition to real-time imaging, this is an advantage to using fluoroscopy in a veterinary practice

A

Imaging can be obtained in a surgery suite, Can change from DV to VD without moving the patient, Comparison of images from static to real time

159
Q

Fluoroscopy has many applications in veterinary medicine. Which of the following is NOT an application that can be obtained with fluoroscopy

A

Transverse images

160
Q

The miniature C-arm is very useful when scanning:

A

Equine legs

161
Q

Interventional imaging was developed:

A

To enable the veterinarian to take an active part in the treatment of the patient

162
Q

The portion of the image intensifier lines the sides of the image intensifier and directs the electrons to the positively charged anode.

A

Electrostatic focusing lens

163
Q

Barium sulfate has an atomic number of _____; iodine has an atomic number of ____.

A

56, 53

164
Q

An accurate diagnostic contrast study of the stomach should include ______ view(s).

A

Right and left lateral, ventrodorsal , dorsoventral

165
Q

Special studies of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract should not be completed when:

A

The patient has a fluid-filled distended esophagus or stomach, or ileus due to torsion

166
Q

Artie, a medium-sized dog, needs a retrograde positive cystography to look for changes in his bladder. Which of the following is not correct?

A

Bladder compression will be helpful for examination of the ureters

167
Q

You are required to perform a positive-contrast retrograde cystography on a 35 kg male Retriever. If the total dose is 240 mL of a 20% diluted meglumine diatrizoate, how much diluent will you add if the original Hypaque solution was 60%?

A

80 ml

168
Q

Myelography is indicated for:

A

Sensory deficit or spinal pain thought to be due to a transverse myelopathy

169
Q

Sensory deficit or spinal pain thought to be due to a transverse myelopathy

A

To demonstrate patient anatomy pathology by imaging “slices” of the patient

170
Q

Hounsfield Units

A

Translate the numerical value of each pixel into a density value

171
Q

The layer or section of minimal blurring is referred to as the:

A

Focal plane

172
Q

Which type of tissue has a higher attenuation coefficient?

A

Bone

173
Q

Field of view

A

Represents the area imaged and translated into pixels

174
Q

For CT images the window of an image is the:

A

The number of shades of gray making up the image

175
Q

This is the key element in the resolution of CT images:

A

Display field of view

176
Q

MRI technology uses radio frequency tuned to the precessing frequency of which atom?

A

Hydrogen

177
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging does not involve ionizing radiation:

A

But the magnet is very strong and must be approached only by trained personnel

178
Q

In MRI, the varying shades of gray in the image are referred to as:

A

Signal intensities

179
Q

MRI requires the use of a specific contrast agent to highlight diseased tissues. This agent is:

A

Gadolinium

180
Q

Which of the following are safety concerns with using MRI?

A

Implanted devices such as pacemakers and clips, hearing loss, Ability of the animal to dissipate heat

181
Q

MRI magnet technology allows the atoms to respond according to their own polarity. Prior to exposure to the magnet the protons and neutrons spin and wobble around the nucleus. The wobbling is referred to as:

A

Precession

182
Q

The radionuclide, Iodine-131, is used in veterinary medicine to treat:

A

Hyperthyroidism

183
Q

An atom that is in the process of radioactive decay is referred to as:

A

Radionuclide

184
Q

This isotope is used for nuclear scintigraphy, especially in equine practices.

A

Technetium-99m

185
Q

A patient is undergoing a PET scan for a possible tumor. Which isotope would be used in this situation?

A

Fludeoxyglucose

186
Q

The science that makes use of radioisotopes for diagnosis is

A

Nuclear scintigraphy

187
Q

You are performing a bone scan on a horse. Which phase of the scan will demonstrate the inflammation of a tendon?

A

Soft tissue

188
Q

The imaging technology that allows for the combination of form and function is:

A

PET

189
Q

Which of the following steps will be helpful in acquiring a DPr-PaDi view of the equine metacarpus

A

The image receptor is caudal to the palmer aspect of the limb and is perpendicular to the beam, The central ray aimed at the midsagittal plane of the metacarpus, The beam is traveling from dorsomedial (point of entry) to palmarolateral (point of exit)

190
Q

You want to obtain a flexed lateromedial (LM) view of the fetlock in a horse. What step does not belong in this procedure?

A

Abduct the foot laterally during flexion

191
Q

What is the main purpose of taking a high coronary study of the equine distal phalanx?

A

To note the number, size and character of the vascular channels, To observe and note the crena, plus the palmar wings formed by the solar border, To observe and note the ungular or collateral cartilages

192
Q

You need to obtain an image for a horse of the flexed D45Pr-DDi for a skyline view of the dorsal aspect of the proximal row of horse’s carpal bones. You will angle the central ray:

A

45 degrees from vertical or to the plate

193
Q

When viewing the equine distal phalanx, which route or view is better for revealing the extensor process, conformation, quality of hoof care, and relationship of foot to the surface?

A

upright pedal route

194
Q

You want to obtain an extensor surface/skyline (DPr-DDi) view of an equine fetlock. What step does not belong in this procedure?

A

increase the SID

195
Q

Which surfaces are highlighted in a DLPMO view of the equine forelimb?

A

The dorsomedial and palmarolateral surfaces of the limb

196
Q

For the flexed D65Pr-DDi for a skyline view of the equine dorsodistal radius:

A

The radius is vertical to ground at the level of the opposite carpus

197
Q

Which of the following is true of attempts to create radiographic images of a horse’s brachioantebrachial joint?

A

All three are true of the brachioantebrachial joint

198
Q

A horse is suspected to have chronic degenerative changes in the distal sesamoid. Which view are you most likely to choose to evaluate the changes in the shape of the bone?

A

Lateral view of the navicular bone

199
Q

You have been asked to obtain a lateral view of the coelom in a large cockatoo but only have a modified cat abdominal chart. Where will you measure this patient?

A

over the keel

200
Q

As you position an avian patient for a modified whole-body/pectoral limb lateral view how do you ensure that the lateral coelom view is symmetrical?

A

The sterum and vertebral column are on the same plane, The head is slightly extended, The acetabula, ribs, coracoids, femoral heads, and kidneys are superimposed

201
Q

To see a true orthogonal view of the wing, you need to take a ___________ view.

A

Caudocranial (CdCr)

202
Q

You are preparing to conduct a contrast study of the GI tract of budgerigar. You are aware that food left in the ________ decreases the volume of contrast media that can be safely administered.

A

crop

203
Q

For a contrast study of the gastrointestinal tract, you should produce survey ____________ radiographs just prior to the contrast study.

A

Ventrodorsal and right lateral

204
Q

To prepare an avian patient for a cloacagram, you will:

A

Administer retrograde barium into the vent

205
Q

For birds, a longer scale of contrast associated with kVp in the ________ range is preferred.

A

40 to 60 kVp

206
Q

How does respiration in the avian patient affect imaging?

A

Positive-pressure ventilation can be applied to an intubated, anesthetized bird for air sac inflation, In the bird, the air is continously moving into the pulmonary parenchyma, Air sacs and the lungs are nonexpansile

207
Q

For a mediolateral view of the foot in a parrot, direct the central ray to the:

A

Condyles of the tarsometatarsal bone

208
Q

Identify an appropriate contraindication for avian urography

A

Intolerance for anesthesia or sedation

ANSC 152 Radiology (1 decks)

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