Final 1

Question 1

When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve.
A) precision
B) accuracy
C) reliability
D)all of the above
E) none.

Answer 1

B)Accuracy

Question 2

2) Which step of the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information?
A) revising hypothesis
B) designing an experiment
C) making observations
D) carrying out an experiment.
E) stating a theory

Answer 2

C) making observations

Question 3

3) Dr. Smith reads two research papers that present different conclusions about the same question. He knows the researcher who wrote Paper A, but does not know the authors of Paper B. When asked which paper he thinks has more merit, Dr. Smith replies, “Paper A.” Because of Dr. Smith’s personal connection to some of the researchers, he could be exhibiting
A) bias.
B) inference.
C) observation.
D) skepticism.
E) peer review

Answer 3

A) bias

Question 4

4) The first step in the scientific method is______
A) using technology
B) making observations
C) forming a hypothesis
D) doing experiments
E) proposing a theory

Answer 4

B) Making observations

Question 5

5) There is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning because most people start work at 9. This would be a(n)
A) observation
B) hypothesis
C) experiment
D) theory
E) all the above

Answer 5

B) hypothesis

Question 6

6) In order to enhance your learning in chemistry, you should NOT_____
A) study a little every day
B) form a study group
C) go to office hours
D) be an active learner
E) wait until the night before the exam to study

Answer 6

E) wait until the night before the exam to study

Question 7

7) In the number 12.345, the 4 is in the_____ place.
A) tens
B) ones
C) tenths
D) hundredths
E) thousandths

Answer 7

D) hundredths

Question 8

8) In the number 12.345, the 1 is in the____place
A) tens
B) ones
C) tenths
D) hundredths
E) thousandths

Answer 8

A) tens

Question 9

9) The product of (-4)(-5) is
A) -20
B) +20
C) -1
D) +1
E) 0

Answer 9

B) +20

Question 10

10) Written in scientific notation, 540 000 is
A) 0.54 × 10^6
B) 54 × 10^8
C) 5.4 × 10^-5
D) 5.4 × 10^5
E) 5.4

Answer 10

D) 5.4 × 10^5

Question 11

11) Written in scientific notation, 8300 is
A) 8.3 × 10^2
B) 8.3 × 10^3
C) 8.3 × 10^4
D) 8.3 × 10^-3
E) 8.3 × 10^-2

Answer 11

B) 8.3 × 10^3

Question 12

12) Written in scientific notation, 0.000 000 33 is
A) 3.3 × 10^7
B) 3.3 × 10^-7
C) 3.3 × 10^-8
D) 3.3 × 10^8
E) 3.3

Answer 12

B) 3.3 × 10^-7

Question 13

13) Select the correct numerical prefix to complete the equality.
1 cm =
mm
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 0.001
D) 10
E) 1

Answer 13

A) 100

Question 14

14) Select the correct numerical prefix to complete the equality.
1 g=
kg
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 0.001
D) 10
E) 1

Answer 14

C) 0.001

Question 15

15) The measurement of the gravitational pull on an object is its___
A) volume
B) weight
C) mass
D) length
E) size

Answer 15

B) weight

Question 16

16) The amount of space occupied by a substance is its
A) mass
B) density
C) weight
D) length
E) volume

Answer 16

E)Volume

Question 17

17) Which of the following is the basic unit of volume in the metric system?
A) liter
B) kilogram
C) meter
D) centimeter
E) gram

Answer 17

A) liter

Question 18

18) Which of the following measured numbers has three significant figures?
A) 10.01 cm
B) 0.001 cm
C) 1.01 cm
D) 1.0 x 103 cm
E) 100 cm

Answer 18

C)1.01 cm

Question 19

19) Significant figures are important because they indicate___
A) a counted number
B) the number of digits on a calculator
C) the number of measurements
D) the number of digits in a measurement
E) the accuracy of the conversion factor

Answer 19

D) the number of digits in a measurement

Question 20

20) A calculator answer of 423.6059 must be rounded off to three significant figures. What answer is reported?
A) 423
B) 424
C) 420
D) 423.6
E) 423.7

Answer 20

D)423.6

Question 21

21) What is the answer, with the correct number of significant figures, for this problem?
4.392 g + 102.40 g + 2.51 g =
A) 109.302 g
B) 109 g
C) 109.3 g
D) 109.30 g
E) 110 g

Answer 21

C) 109.3 g

Question 22

22) The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is_____
A) 13.071 g
B) 13 g
C) 13.0 g
D) 10 g
E) 13.1 g

Answer 22

B) 13 g

Question 23

23) Which of the following is an example of random error?
A) An electronic instrument is influenced by pH.
B) Using a 50 ml beaker to collect 25 ml of a solution.
C) Estimating the mass of a sample
D) Measuring the mass of a solution
E) rounding the measure value.

Answer 23

C) Estimating the mass of a sample

Question 24

Which of the following measurements are NOT equivalent?
A) 25 mg = 0.025 g
B) 183 L = 0.183 kL
C) 150. msec = 0.150 sec
D) 84 cm = 8.4 mm
E) 24 dL = 2.4 L

Answer 24

D) 84 cm = 8.4 mm

Question 25

25) What is the conversion factor for the relationship between millimeters and centimeters?
A) 1 mm/1 cm
B) 10 mm/1 cm
C) 1 cm/1 mm
D) 100 mm/1 cm
E) 10 cm/1 mm

Answer 25

B) 10 mm/1 cm

Question 26

26) A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold?
A) 10.4 g/mL
B) 6.77 g/mL
C) 1.00 g/mL
D) 0.0518 g/mL
E) 19.3 g/mL

Answer 26

E) 19.3 g/mL

Question 27

27) Mercury has a density of 13.6 g/mL. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?
A) 0.0257 mL
B) 0.026 mL
C) 25.7 mL
D) 26 mL
E) 4760 mL

Answer 27

C) 25.7 mL

Question 28

28) In this list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?
A) salt
B) sleep
C) cold
D) heat
E) temperature

Answer 28

A) salt

Question 29

29) Which of the following is NOT a chemical?
A) salt
B) water
C) light
D) carbon dioxide
E) sugar

Answer 29

C)light

Question 30

30) Systematic error lead to a lack of
A) Accuracy in the measurement.
B) significant digits in the measurement
C) Precision in the measurement
D) Gradations of the measuring instrument.
E) The agreement of repeated measurements.

Answer 30

A) Accuracy in the measurement.

Question 31

1) Which of the following elements is a metal?
A) nitrogen
B) fluorine
C) argon
D) strontium
E) phosphorus

Answer 31

D) strontium

Question 32

2) The element in this list with chemical properties similar to magnesium is
A) sodium
B) boron
C) carbon
D) strontium
E) chlorine

Answer 32

D) strontium

Question 33

3) What elements are in hydroxyapatite, Ca5(PO4),3OH, a major compound in human bones and
teeth?
A) carbon, potassium, oxygen, hydrogen
B) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen
C) carbon, phosphorus, oxygen, helium
D) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, helium
E) carbon, potassium, oxygen, helium

Answer 33

B) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen

Question 34

4) Identify the noble gas in the following list.
A) helium
B) nitrogen
C) oxygen
D) gold
E) chlorine

Answer 34

A) helium

Question 35

5 According to the Atomic Theory,
A) all atoms are different
B) atoms are created and destroyed during a chemical reaction
C) atoms of different elements combine to form compounds
D) all matter is made up of tiny particles called electrons
E) a compound can contain different numbers of atoms as long as it has the same kinds of atoms

Answer 35

C) atoms of different elements combine to form compounds

Question 36

6) Compounds can be broken down into their elements by_____
A) physical processes
B) melting
C) evaporation
D) cooling
E) chemical processes

Answer 36

E) chemical processes

Question 37

7) Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
A) sand mixed with oil
B) salt dissolved in water
C) table sugar
D) gasoline mixed with water
E) ball bearings in a box

Answer 37

B) salt dissolved in water

Question 38

8) Which of the following is a chemical change?
A) wood burning in a fireplace
B) ice melting to water
C) chopping wood for a fire
D) sewing a button on a shirt
E) pouring water into a glass

Answer 38

A) wood burning in a fireplace

Question 39

9) Which of the following is a physical change?
A) wood burning in a fireplace
B) water freezing
C) iron rusting
D) digesting food
E) milk souring

Answer 39

B) water freezing

Question 40

10) When you observe the formation of fog on a cool, humid day, what type of event are you observing?
A) a chemical change in oxygen
B) a physical change in air
C) a physical change in water
D) a chemical change in water
E) a combination of nitrogen and oxygen

Answer 40

C) a physical change in water

Question 41

11) According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, in a balanced chemical equation, the total mass of the products always equals the
A). molar mass of the reactants
B) atomic mass of the reactants
C) total mass of the reactants
D) proportional masses of the reactants
E) proportional masses of the product

Answer 41

C) total mass of the reactants

Question 42

12) Which of the following is a property of a solid?
A) It takes the shape of the container.
B) It fills the volume of the container.
C) The particles move at a rapid rate.
D) The interactions between its particles are very weak.
E) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

Answer 42

E) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

Question 43

13) Identify the physical change in the following list.
A) A candle is burned to give light.
B) A silver candlestick tarnishes in the presence of air.
C) The chemical silver nitrate produces a dark brown stain on skin.
D) A piece of copper placed in a solution of siver nitrate develops a coating of silver metal.
E) Silver is melted and formed into a candlestick.

Answer 43

E) Silver is melted and formed into a candlestick.

Question 44

14) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
A) grinding coffee beans
B) baking a cake
C) converting water to hydrogen and oxygen
D) digesting a cheeseburger
E) burning coal

Answer 44

A) grinding coffee beans

Question 45

15) The temperature of liquid nitrogen is -196 °C. What is the corresponding reading on the Kelvin scale?
A) 77 K
B) -127 K
C) -91 K
D) 48 K
E) 146 K

Answer 45

A) 77 K

Question 46

16) A temperature of 41 °F is the same as____C
A) 5
B) 310
C) -9
D) 16
E) 42

Answer 46

A) 5 C

Question 47

17) Absolute zero is
A) the freezing point of water using the Celsius scale
B) the boiling point of liquid nitrogen
C) the temperature on the Kelvin scale corresponding to 32 °F
D) the coldest temperature possible
E) the freezing point of liquid nitrogen

Answer 47

D) the coldest temperature possibleq

Question 48

18) On a hot day, the thermometer reads 95 °F. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
A) 77 °C
B) 113 °C
C) 35 °C
D) 63 °C
E) 178 °C

Answer 48

C) 35 °C

Question 49

19) In the winter, the outdoor temperature is -12 °F. What is the temperature in the Kelvin scale?
A) 249 K
B) 262 K
C) 284 K
D) 273 K
E) 178 K

Answer 49

A) 249 K

Question 50

20) Which of the following descriptions of a subatomic paride is correc?
4) A proton has a positve charge and a mass of approximately 1amu.
B) An electron has a negative charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
C) A neutron has no charge and its mass is negligible.
D) A proton has a positive charge and a negligible mass.
E) A neutron has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

Answer 50

4) A proton has a positve charge and a mass of approximately 1amu.

Question 51

21) In an atom, the nucleus contains
A) an equal number of protons and electrons
B) all the protons and neutrons
C) all the protons and electrons
D) only neutrons
E) only protons

Answer 51

B) all the protons and neutrons

Question 52

22) Protons, neutrons, and electrons are examples of
A) elements
B) ions
C) compounds
D) subatomic particles
E) metals

Answer 52

D) subatomic particles

Question 53

23) The gold foil experiment demonstrated that atoms.
A) consist of an almost empty nucleus surrounded by a dense cloud of electrons
B) are homogeneous
C) are visible to the naked eye
D) consist of a dense nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space
E) consist of a single type of subatomic particle

Answer 53

D) consist of a dense nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space

Question 54

24) A neutron has an electrical charge of
A) 0
B) -1
C) +1
D) -2
E) +2

Answer 54

A)0

Question 55

25) The lightest of the subatomic particles is the
A) neutron
B) electron
C) nucleus
D) proton
E) atom

Answer 55

B) electron

Question 56

26) The atomic number of fluorine is
A) 28
B19
С)9
D) 10
E) 29

Answer 56

С) 9

Question 57

27) The mass number of an atom can be calculated from the
A) number of electrons
B) number of protons plus neutrons
C) number of protons
D number of electrons plus protons
E) number of neutrons

Answer 57

B) number of protons plus neutrons

Question 58

28) The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n)
A) electron
B) neutron
C) proton
D) atom
E) nucleus

Answer 58

D) atom

Question 59

29) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 64
E) 94

Answer 59

A) 30

Question 60

30) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The mass number for this atom is
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 64
E) 94

Answer 60

D) 64

Question 61

31) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is _
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 64
E) 94

Answer 61

A)30

Question 62

32) Which of the following is a characteristic of the modern periodic table?
A) A group is a horizontal row on the periodic table.
B) A period is a column on the periodic table.
C) The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.
D) The B groups contain the representative elements.
E) The A groups contain the transition elements.

Answer 62

C) The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.

Question 63

33) The Group 8A (18) elements -
A) are unredcuive
B) are good conductors of electricity
C) melt at high temperatures
D) are liquids at room temperature
E) react vigorously with water

Answer 63

A) are unredcuive

Question 64

34) Identify the noble gas in the following list.
A) helium
B) nitrogen
C) oxygen
D) gold
E) chlorine

Answer 64

A) helium

Question 65

35) Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals?
A) shiny
B) malleable
C) good conductors of heat
D) low melting points
E) good conductors of electricity

Answer 65

D) low melting points

Question 66

1) Consider an sotope of sodium with a mass number of 25, The number of neutrons in this
isotope of sodium is
A) 11
B) 14
C) 16
D) 25
E) 36

Answer 66

B) 14

Question 67

2) A sample of chlorin has two naturally occuring isotopes. The Isotope C1-35 makes up 75.8% of the Sample, and the isotope ci 37 maker up 24.3% of the sample. Whatis the average atomic mass for chlorine
A) 36.0 g
B) 35 g
C) 36.6 g
D) 35.5 g
E) 35.521 g

Answer 67

E) 35.521 g

Question 68

3) Which of the following is NOT true for the atoms ^13N, ^14N, and ^15N?
A) They all have the same mass number.
B) They are isotopes.
C) They all have the same atomic number.
D) They all have 7 protons.
E) They all have 7 electrons.

Answer 68

A) They all have the same mass number.

Question 69

4) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have
A) different atomic numbers
B) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of protons
C) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of electrons
D) the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons
E) the same atomic mass but different numbers of protons

Answer 69

D) the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons

Question 70

85/38 Sr, there are

A) 85 protons and 38 neutrons
B) 47 protons and 38 neutrons
C) 38 protons and 47 neutrons
D) 38 protons and 85 neutrons
E) 85 protons and 47 neutrons

Answer 70

C) 38 protons and 47 neutrons

Question 71

6) How many protons are in an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25?
A) 11
B) 14
C) 15
D) 25
E) 36

Answer 71

A)11

Question 72

7) Which is NOT a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?
A) wearing a lead apron
B) keeping a good distance
C) standing behind a thick concrete wall
D) wearing lead-lined gloves
E) staying a longer time

Answer 72

E) staying a longer time

Question 73

8) When a positron is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, what effect does this have on the nuclear mass?
A) It increases by two units.
B) It decreases by one unit.
C) It increases by one unit.
D) It decreases by two units.
E) It remains the same.

Answer 73

B) It decreases by one unit.

Question 74

9) Gamma rays require the heaviest shielding of all the common types of nuclear radiation because gamma rays have the
A) highest energy
B) most intense color
C) lowest energy
D) largest particles
E) heaviest particles

Answer 74

A) highest energy

Question 75

10) Radium-226 decays by alpha emission to
A) barium-131
B) cobalt-60
C) carbon-14
D) polonium-218
E) radon-222

Answer 75

E) radon-222

Question 76

11) Alpha particles can be used to bombard beryllium-9 to give carbon-12 and what other particle?
A) a positron
B) a neutron
C) an electron
D) a helium nucleus
E) a proton

Answer 76

B) a neutron

Question 77

12) One common consumer item that takes advantage of radioactive decay is the
A) gas stove
8) furnace
C) smoke detector
D) carburetor
E) air conditioner

Answer 77

C) smoke detector

Question 78

13) The process in which a nuctes spontaneously breaks don by aniting radlation is known
A) transmutation
B) transformation
C) fusion
D) a chain reaction
E) radioactive decay

Answer 78

E) radioactive decay

Question 79

14) A nuclear equation is balanced when
A) the same elements are found on both sides of the equation
B) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation
C) the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation
D) different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation
E) the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation

Answer 79

B) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation

Question 80

15) The process of changing one element into another is called
A) transmutation
B) fission
C) fusion
D) precipitation
E) neutralization

Answer 80

A) transmutation

Question 81

16) Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 hours. How many hours is three half-lives?
A) 5.0 hours
B) 45 hours
C) 30 hours
D) 15 hours
E) 7.5 hours

Answer 81

B) 45 hours

Question 82

17) A sample of I-131 has an initial activity of 64 Ci. After 24 d, the activity of the sample is
8.0 Ci. What is the half-life of 1-131?
A) 72 d
8) 24 d
C) 16 d
D) 12 d
E) 8.0 d

Answer 82

E) 8.0 d

Question 83

58) dine 23, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 hours, iF
50.0 mg of 23 were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Meinty, to many mg would remain at 10:00
A.M. on the following day?
A) 50.0 mg
B) 25.0 mg
C) 12.5 mg
D) 6.25 mg
E) 3.13 mg

Answer 83

C) 12.5 mg

Question 84

19) Krypton-79 has a hat-ife of 35 hours How many hal-Iives have passed after 105 hours?
A) 1 half-life
B) 2 half-lives
C) 3 half-lives
D) 4 half-lives
E) 5 half-lives

Answer 84

C) 3 half-lives

Question 85

20) When an atom of uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits into smaller nuclei and produces a great amount of energy. This nuclear process is called
A) fission
B) fusion
C) decomposition
D) chain reaction
E) ionization

Answer 85

A) fission

Question 86

21)A radioactive form of an element is called a
A) positron
B) gamma ray
C) radioisotope
D) stable nucleus
E) rad

Answer 86

C) radioisotope

Question 87

22) The visible light spectrum covers the wavelength range
A) 400 to 700 nm
B) 250 to 400 nm
C) 700 to 900 nm
D) 900 to 1400 m
E) 1400 to 2000 nm

Answer 87

A) 400 to 700 nm

Question 88

23) Infrared radiation has a shorter wavelength than
A) visible light
B) radio waves
C) ultraviolet radiation
D) X-rays
E) gamma radiation

Answer 88

B) radio waves

Question 89

24) Green light has a wavelength of 510 nm. What is the wavelength in m?
A) 5.1 × 10^-9m
8) 5.1 m
C) 510 m
D) 5.1 × 10^-7 m
E) 5.1 x 10^-11 m

Answer 89

D) 5.1 × 10^-7 m

Question 90

25) The smallest particle of light is called a
A) frequency
B) packet
C) photon
D) wavelength
E) velocity

Answer 90

C) photon

Question 91

26) Atomic emission spectra are due to electrons
A) being removed from an atom
B) in an atom rising from one energy level to a higher one
C) in an atom dropping from one energy level to a lower one
D) being added to an atom
E) changing state from solid to liquid

Answer 91

C) in an atom dropping from one energy level to a lower one

Question 92

27) The principal quantum numbers have the designation
A) s, p, d….
B) 1, 2, 3…
C) a, B, y…
D) k, m, s…
E) H, Li, He…

Answer 92

B) 1, 2, 3

Question 93

28) Electromagnetic radiation normally travels in the form of
A) beats
B) circles
C) waves
D) cycles
E) seconds

Answer 93

C) waves

Question 94

29) The number of electromagnetic waves that travel past a certain point in a given time is the _of the radiation.
A) frequency
B) wavelength
C) speed
D) color
E) count

Answer 94

A) frequency

Question 95

30) The symbol for wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is
A) λ
B) v
C) B
D) a
El c

Answer 95

A) λ

Question 96

what dose a graduated cylender do?

Answer 96

measures the volume of liquids