Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OS Final > Fin > Flashcards

Fin Flashcards

1
Q

What was burns’s major research?

A

Spinal fixation on animals (spinal lesions)

S-V and V-S reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When was burns born and when she die

A

1870-1958

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Wilbur Cole famous for

A

Reproduced burns’s experiments for internal validation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who developed the osteopathic lesion, worked with reflex activity in the spinal extensors and facilitation of the spinal cord?

A

J.S. Denslow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who performed studies involving somatic dysfunction?

Also axoplasmic flow and trophies functions and sympatheticotonia?

A

I.M. Korr, Ph.D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who performed reliability and validity studies?

Also did Viscerosomatic reflexes?

A

William L. Johnston

1921-2003

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is the 2nd great philosopher of Osteopathic medicine?

What did he promote?

A

I.M. Korr

Entire DO-patient interaction, not just OMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When did the Spanish influenza occur?

What was result?

A

1918

.25% mortality w/DO
5% MD

Lower mortality from pneumonia too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When was the L.A. County Osteopathic Hospital established?

A

1932

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What was the epidemiology like in DO only vs MD and DO?

A

Lower mortality, lower LOS

Of course, do’s da bomb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What was the result of the OMT care vs Standard care study of 1999?

A

No different outcomes in pts, but D.O. Patients required less mess and less PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What clinical trials were studied for inflammation cases?

What were the results?

A

Pancreatitis and ankle sprain

everything less, DOs the best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What clinical trials were studied for cases of infection?

What were the results?

A

Pneumonia, otitis media, spleen pump

DOs the best, everything always less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the special considerations in OMM research? (6)

A 
BCS DIP
Blinding
Control
Size/power
Dependent variables
Inclusion Criteria
Placebo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the ROM for flexion/extension of C spine?

A

45-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ROM side ending?

Rotation?

A

45

70-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the major motion of the OA joint?

Minor motion?

A

Flex/extend

Sidebending and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What mechanics OA joint?

A

Modified type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give example of dysfunction for OA joint

A

OA F SrRl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the primary motion of AA (C1-2) joint?

What does it not have?

A

Rotation

SB or flex/extend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of mechanics C2-7?

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Translation of cervical vertebra from Left to right is what kind of Sidebending?

What plane?

A

SB L

Coronal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the clavicle and scapula properly considered part of?

A

The upper extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the articulation between the manubrium and body called?

A

Sternal angle or angle of Louis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is the T spine divided?
Upper T1-4 Middle T5-8 Lower T9-12
26
What is the rule of 3 for the spinous processes and transverse processes?
``` 123 - sp and tp are in same plane 456 - sp 1/2 inch below tp in plane 789 - sp 1 inch below tp (i.e. 8 sp is at level of 9 tp) 10 - 1 inch below 11 - 1/2 inch below 12 - same plane ```
27
What pathway do visceral afferent neurons follow?
Same pathway as sympathetics
28
How can OMT affect somatic afferent input?
Reduce it, thereby reducing somatosympthetic activity of the organ
29
What does T1-4 innervate?
Sympathetics to head and neck
30
What does T1-6 innervate?
Heart and lungs
31
What does T5-9 innervate?
Sympathetics to upper abdominal viscera (stomach, duodenum, liver, gall bladder, pancreas, spleen) PG DLSS
32
What does T10-11 innervate?
Sympathetics to lower abdominal viscera (s.i., kidney, ureters, gonads, right colon) K-RUGS
33
What does T12-L2 innervate?
Sympathetics to left colon and pelvic organs
34
What do t-spinal motions follow?
Fryette's principles of spinal motion
35
Is flexion less than or greater than extension? Due to what?
Greater Normal kyphotic curvature and gravity
36
Where is rotation the greatest?
Upper and middle T spine segments | Second to AA joint
37
What limits T-spine Sidebending?
Rib cage
38
Where do ribs 2-9 articulate?
With vertebrae above and below
39
Where do ribs 1 and 10-12 articulate?
Unifacets that articulate with corresponding vertebrae only
40
Where does rib 1 attach ant and post?
Ant: inferior to clavicle Post: cephalad to border of scapula
41
Where does rib 2 articulate?
Ant with manubrium and body of sternum
42
Where does rib 3 articulate?
Post. At level of scapular spine
43
Where does rib 7 articulate ant and post?
Ant - xiphosternal junction Post - level of inf. Angle of scapula
44
Where does rib 10 articulate?
Cartilage at lowest part of thoracic cage at midclavicular line
45
Which ribs have no neck or tubercles?
Ribs 11 and 12
46
What ligaments does the costovertebral joint have?
Radiate | Interosseous
47
What connects the transverse process to next lower rib of the costotransverse joint?
Sup. Ligament
48
What muscles are responsible for inhalation?
Intercostals (externals) and diaphragm
49
Where do the crura of the diaphragm anchor?
L1, 2, 3
50
What muscles responsible for exhalation?
Rectus abdominus, internal and external oblique, transverse abdominus
51
What are the accessory muscles of inhalation? Exhalation?
SCM, scalene so Passive recoil, ab muscles
52
When was Louisa burns the AT still research director?
1917-1935
53
What motion is pump handle analogous to? Increase what?
Flexion/extension A/P Diameter
54
Which ribs have pump handle?
Rib 1 50% | 2-6 mostly pump
55
What is bucket handle motion analogous to? Increase what?
Abduction/Adduction Transverse diameter (ribs move laterally)
56
What ribs are bucket
Rib 1 50% | 7-10 predom
57
What is caliper motion analogous to? What ribs use it?
Internal/external rotation 11 and 12
58
Who found an INC in TV and RR after Tx? | They also found an INC in lung perfusion after Tx
A.J. Murphy | Think pulmonary fx
59
Who looked at respiratory function and lumbar lordosis? What were their findings?
Doran Tx DEC lordosis and INC TV Found INC of abdominal component to respiration after Tx
60
What kind of injury can trauma cause in the thorax?
``` Chest wall contusions Rib fractures (don't wear rib belts) ```
61
What is costochondritis? | How do you treat?
Inflammation of costochondral junction NSAIDS and OMM
62
What reflex is involved with pneumonia? What does it cause? How can you treat?
V-S reflex to T2-4 Cough w/rib dysfunction, lumbar or thoracic dysfunction Tx: Lymphatics to Area 1
63
What muscle is functionally an extension of the diaphragm? | What can happen here?
Quadratus lumborum DEC lymph pumping action
64
What are some Iatrogenic causes?
Thoracotomy (lobectomy) | Sternotomy (coronary bypass grafting)
65
What are common sites for metastasis?
Breast, prostate, lung BPL
66
What % of the general population will have LBP? What % of back pain in adults is due to MSK strains?
85 27
67
Who is more prone to recurrence of LBP?
Women 33% Men 26%
68
How much does LBP cost per year? What % of cost is attributed to what % of population?
100 billion 75% total cost attributed to 5% of patients
69
What is the majority of pain due to?
Mechanical dysfunction
70
What is the lumbar spine a frequent site of?
Strain Pain Disability
71
What motion mostly in lumbar spine? Thoracic?
Flexion/extension Rotation
72
What are the red flags in LBP?
Major trauma Cancer Cauda equine symptoms Constitutional symptoms - fever, chills, IV drug abuse, etc
73
What does folic acid prevent?
Neural tube defects aka spina bifida
74
Where spina bifida occulta occur?
L5-S1
75
Where does the spinal cord terminate?
L1-2
76
What symptoms are seen in Cauda Equina Syndrome?
Pain, numbness, weakness, paralysis of lower extremities, bladder and bowel incontinence
77
A pathological barrier is a decrease in what normal barrier?
Physiological (active ROM) barrier
78
What are the spinal mechanics of a the lumbar spine?
Type 1 in neutral Type 2 in non-neutral
79
What muscles maintain the lumbar spine?
Intertransversarii Multifidus Rototores
80
In type 1 mechanics of lumbar spine what occurs first? Type 2?
Sidebending Rotation
81
How do the sacrum and lumbar spine move?
Opposite directions
82
What are Chapman's reflexes?
Tender point clues used for dx of visceral dysfunction Ant. And post. Points
83
What are the ant points of champan's reflexes?
Peri umbilical: adrenal, kidney, bladder 5th ICS: stomach, liver 6th ICS: stomach, liver/gall bladder 7th ICS: spleen, pancreas
84
What are the posterior Chapman points?
``` BUCK UP Bladder Urethra Colon Kidney Uterus Pelvic organs ```
85
What V-S reflex organs are on the level of T10-L1?
Kidney Ureter Ovaries/testes Adrenals
86
What level is the pancreas located at?
T6-9
87
What level is the colon at?
T8-L2
88
What spinal level is the urinary bladder and prostate at?
L1-2
89
Appendix level?
T11-L2
90
Uterus level?
T10-L2
91
Rectum/anus level?
L1-2
92
L4 nerve root corresponds to which action?
Ankle dorsiflexion
93
L5 Nerve root corresponds to which action?
Great toe dorsiflexion
94
S1 nerve root corresponds to which action?
Ankle plantar flexion
95
What does the straight leg raise test (Lesegue Test) assess? When is a positive test found?
Sciatic nerve irritation Pain below 30 degrees or above 70 (nerve root irritation)
96
What is the lateral lumbar flexion (hip drop test)?
Stand on 1 leg, normal side bending is 25-30 degrees A positive test would be less than 25 degree Sidebending
97
Where does the physician position himself for Spurling's Maneuver? What are the 3 steps?
Standing behind seated patient Compress the head in neutral Compress head in extension Sidebend away from the affected side and then toward the affected side and compress
98
What is the carrying angle for cubitus varus?
Less than 5 degrees | Gunstock
99
What is the carrying angle for cubitus valgus
More than 15 degrees
100
How does the radial head glide with pronation and extension?
Posteriorly
101
Dorsal carpal glide occurs with what?
Flexion
102
Ventral carpal glide occurs with what?
Extension
103
Wrist adduction results in what kind of ulnar movement?
ABduction
104
What muscles do flexion?
Biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis
105
What muscles do extension?
Triceps
106
What muscles do supination?
Supinator, biceps
107
How is a positive Spurling's Maneuver indicated?
Pain down the arm in distribution of the nerve root indicating nerve root compression
108
What are the lumbar spine mechanics?
Type 1 in neutral Type 2 in non-neutral
109
Lumbar spine ROM: Flexion? Extension?
105 | 60
110
Lumbar spine ROM: SB? Rotation?
40 | 90
111
Thoracic spinal mechanics?
In neutral type 1 Flexion/extension improvement is type 2

OS Final (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions