FF Mini Exam #1 (50Q Exam) Flashcards
Which outcome measure would be MOST beneficial to assess the quality of life of the patient?
A. QuickDASH
B. Short Form Health Survey
C. 9 Hole Peg Test
D. Neck Disability Index
B. Short Form Health Survey
-If the question asks about the best assessment for quality of life (QoL) ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS pick the QoL OM not a function based one
You are treating a patient s/p THA (anterior approach) 3 days post-op in inpatient acute care. The pt complains of 4/10 pain and pain in the anterior hip region. The pt’s goal is to be able to navigate stairs to safely enter & exit the home. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?
A. AROM of knee & ankle joint of the affected extremity in sitting
B. Stair climbing w/UE support & a focus on hip hyperextension to improve reciprocal stair negotiation
C. Standing marching on ground w/UE support & emphasis on weight transfers
D. Stair tapping w/UE to improve stair negotiation tolerance
B. Stair climbing w/UE support & a focus on hip hyperextension to improve reciprocal stair negotiation
-The patient had an anterior approach s/p hip replacement. Contraindications for anterior hip approach are excessive hip extension, ER, and hip flexion >90 degrees
A patient presents to the clinic 4 weeks after a reverse arthroplasty for R shoulder. Which of the following movements would you perform while treating the pt at this stage?
A. Shoulder extension beyond 0 degrees
B. Shoulder ER beyond 20 degrees
C. Shoulder IR up to 30 degrees
D. Shoulder elevation in scapular plane up to 90 degrees
D. Shoulder elevation in scapular plane up to 90 degrees
-Phase of 1 rehab post reverse shoulder arthroplasty lasts up to 6 weeks and motions that are restricted are:
-No GH ext or IR past neutral
-No combined ext, add, & IR
-0 to 20 degrees of ER
-Up to 90-120 degrees of arm elevation in the scapular plane
Joe presents to the clinic with a large burn on his forearm. When the therapist tries to touch it, he does not complain of pain on pressure or light touch. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY presentation of this wound?
A. Mixed red, waxy white appearance w/blanching & slow capillary refill
B. Erythematous pink, w/no blisters
C. Erythematous w/blanching & quick capillary refill
D. White or tan, w/no blanching
D. White or tan with no blanching
-Full-thickness burns are white or tan and are usually anesthetic with poor circulation
A PT is assessing a patient with a CC of LBP and a diagnosis of L2-L3 nerve compression. Which of the following gait deviations at the hip and pelvis are NOT to be expected in this patient?
A. Trunk lurches backward and toward the unaffected stance leg from heel off to mid-swing
B. Posterior tilt of the pelvis during initial swing
C. Semicircle movement of the hip during swing–combining hip flexion, abduction, and forward rotation of the pelvis
D. Excessive hip flexion at initial & mid-swing
D. Excessive hip flexion at initial& mid-swing
Rationale:
-L2-L3 nerve compression leads to weak hip flexors. Hence excessive hip flexion will not be seen at the initial & mid-swing phase of the gait cycle
A 22 year old patient complains of gradual onset of thoracic & SI pain. Lumbar ROM is limited to 50%. Pt reports his stiffness is worse in the morning & gradually improves. He recently started a new job at Comcast and has been sitting for long periods of time. Which of the following would you MOST likely suspect?
A. Spinal tumor
B. Thoracic hypomobility
C. Pec muscle adaptive shortening
D. Ankylosing spondylitiis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
Rationale:
-Ankylosing spondylitis is a rheumatic disease that affected shoulders, T spine, ligaments of lumbar spine, and SI joint. Affects individuals in teens and 20s.
You are treating a patient in inpatient rehab w/deficits in pupillary light reflex in the R eye and a failure to look at the nose w/right eye. When testing lateral deviation of the eye, the pt is able to follow the stimulus. No deficits noted in chewing. Which anatomical location is MOST likely affected?
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Cerebellum
D. Midbrain
D. Midbrain
Rationale:
-Cranial nerves III & IV are located in the midbrain. Cranial nerve III is oculomotor and damage to this nerve causes ptosis (drooping eyelid), dilation of the pupil, and loss of accommodation of the light reflex. Cranial nerve IV is trochlear. This nerve innervates motor innervation to the eye for rotating it down & in
You are assessing a patient in the ICU who opens eyes to pain, has an abnormal flexion response to motor stimuli, and is oriented verbally. You would MOST likely categorize this patient on the Glasgow Come Scale as having what type of brain injury?
A. Severe
B. Very severe
C. Mild
D. Moderate
D. Moderate
Rationale:
-Opens eyes to pain: 2
-Abnormal flexion response to motor stimuli: 3
-Oriented verbally: 5
Total score: 10 which is considered a moderate brain injury
While assessing a pt w/ a R CVA, the therapist asks the pt to fold a piece of paper into half and notices that the pt dos not use the L hand at all. On asking the pt what is wrong with the L hand, she says that she slept funny so the hand is not moving for now and that it should be moving by the end of the day. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY medical diagnosis for this presentation?
A. R-L discrimination disorder
B. Somatoagnosia
C. Anosognosia
D. Ideational apraxia
C. Anosognosia
Rationale:
-Anosognosia is the denial or lack of awareness of the presence or severity of one’s paralysis
-R-L discrimination is the inability to identify the R & L sides of one’s own body
-Somatoagnosia: lack of awareness of the body structure & relationship of body parts to oneself or to others
-Ideational apraxia: inability to perform a task on motor or on command
A patient with subluxation of the shoulder presents to the PT clinic. During evaluation, the therapist noticed atrophy of the flexor surface of the upper arm along with weakness of elbow flexion w/supinated forearm. Which of the following findings will MOST LIKELY be associated with this finding?
A. Loss of 2 point discrimination on the lateral aspect of the upper arm
B. Loss of 2 point discrimination on the lateral aspect of the forearm
C. Loss of 2 point discrimination on the posterior aspect of the arm
D. Loss of 2 point discrimination on the posterior aspect of the forearm?
B. Loss of 2 point discrimination on the lateral aspect of the forearm
Rationale:
-With an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve, the pt is unable to flex the elbow w/the forearm supinated and may have some instability in the shoulder w/atrophy on the flexor surface of the upper arm (C5 myotome too). The sensory supply of C5 is the lateral aspect of the forearm
You are assessing a pt with a CVA who presents w/R sided body weakness, inability to understand commands, weakness of the R half of the face and homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following will MOST likely be absent in this patient?
A. Topographic disorientation
B. Lack of fluency while talking
C. Loss of sensation on the R side of the body
D. Limb-kinetic apraxia
A. Topographic disorientation
Rationale:
-The symptoms of weakness of R body & face, inability to understand commands (Wernicke’s Aphasia), and homonymous hemianopsia are suggestive of an L MCA infarct.
Commonly seen in L MCA infarct:
-Brocha’s aphasia
-Limb kinetic apraxia
-Loss of sensation on R UE & face
TOPOGRAPHIC DISORIENTATION is usually seen with lesions involving non-dominant primary visual areas
A pt presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of pain on the sole of the foot. The patient’s symptoms were gradual in onset w/no history of trauma. Weight-bearing on the affected extremity and hyperextending of the great toe aggravate the symptoms. Tenderness is present in the web spaces of the toes with pressure. The pt has full pain-free AROM and 5/5 strength w/no increase in symptoms during testing. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this condition?
A. Plantar fasciitis
B. Retrocalcaneal bursitis
C. Morton’s neuroma
D. Midfoot sprain
C. Morton’s neuroma
Rationale:
-Morton’s Neuroma:
1. Gradual in onset with no known cause
2. Pain on the sole of foot which increase w/WB w/overpressure into toe extension during pasive ROM
3. AROM is full & pain free w/intact strength
4. Pain may be present in the web spaces of the toes
PLANTAR FASCIITIS:
-pain is present w/insertion of the plantar fascia and weak intrinsic muscles of the foot are present
A 65 year old patient with diabetic neuropathy presents to the clinic w/a complaint of frequent falls especially at night. Which of the following conditions of the Sensory Organization Test is the patient MOST LIKELY to score poorly?
A. Conditions 5 & 6
B. Conditions 1 & 3
C. Conditions 2 & 4
D. Conditions 4 & 6
A. Conditions 5 & 6
Rationale:
-Due to peripheral neuropathy, the pt is more dependent on their vision & vestibular systems. Patients depending on vision become unstable in conditions 2,3,5, & 6 whether that being dependent on somatosensory due to closing eyes (affecting vision) or vestibular.
A patient with a diagnosis of Parkinson’s is referred to an outpatient PT clinic. He is beginning to show signs of bilateral involvement, but has had no falls so far. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE stage of Hoehn-Yahr classification?
A. Stage 3
B. Stage 5
C. Stage 1
D. Stage 2
D. Stage 2
Rationale:
-Level 2 indicates minimal bilateral or midline involvement w/no balance impairment
We know that patients with a T6 or higher level of injury are at risk of Autonomic Dysreflexia (AD), what steps should we take if we believe they are experiencing symptoms of that?
TREAT AS MEDICAL EMERGENCY
-Patient should be brought into a sitting position
-Noxious stimuli, tight clothing, and abdominal binder should be removed
-Catheter must be unclamped
A. 1 on the Modified Ashworth Scale and increased tone in quads
B. 1+ on Modified Ashworth Scale & increase tone in hamstrings
C. 3 on Modified Ashworth Scale & increase tone in quads
D. 3 on the Modified Ashworth Scale & increase tone in the hamstrings
B. 1+ on Modified Ashworth Scale & increase tone in hamstrings
A. 2 + reflex & pt has a confirmed L4 nerve root syndrome
B. 1+ reflex & pt has a confirmed S1 nerve root syndrome
C. 3+ and pt has a confirmed L4 nerve root syndrome
D. 2+ reflex and pt does not have L4 nerve root syndrome
A. 2+ reflex & pt has a confirmed L4 nerve root syndrome
Rationale: 2+ reflexes are considered normal. A false negative indicates that the test is normal but the patient has pathology
A. Score of 18s on TUG test
B. Score of 18 on Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment
C. Score of 49 on BBS
D. Score of 25 on FGA
B. Score of 18 on Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment
Rationale:
-TUG>30s
-Performance-Oriented <19=high fall risk
-BBS: 41-56 is ideal
-FGA: >22
A. Semont maneuver for canalthiasis w/sidelying on the L
B. Semont maneuver for cupulolithiasis w/sidelying on the R
C. BBQ rol for cupulolithiasis maneuver starting on the R
D. BBQ roll for canalithiasis starting on the R
D. BBQ roll for canalithiasis starting on the R
Rationale:
-Pt presents with w/horizontal canal BPPV (canalithiasis) on the R side since geotropic nystagmus is stronger on the R. Most appropriate intervention is BBQ roll w/head turned to the involved side first
A. Keel too short
B. Socket too far posterior
C. Insufficient plantarflexion
D. Knee flexion contracture
B. Socket too far posterior
Rationale:
-A socket placed too far posterior would cause delayed knee flexion
A. The child has a normal traction reflex
B. The child has a normal moro reflex
C. The child has an abnormal traction reflex
D. The child has an abnormal moro reflex
C. The child has an abnormal traction reflex
Rationale:
-A normal response is to fully flex and grasp while an extensor response would be considered abnormal
A. Stage 0 lymphedema
B. Stage 4 lymphedema
C. Pt has CHF
D. Stage 2 lymphedema
D. Stage 2 lymphedema
A. Herberden’s nodules
B. Rheumatoid nodules
C. Bouchard’s nodules
D. Neurofibromatosis
A. Herberden’s nodules
Rationale:
-Age & symptoms indicate OA
*Nodules on DIP are called Herberden’s nodules and nodules on PIP are Bouchard’s nodules.
-Absence of systemic symptoms & morning stiffness lasting <60mins rule out RA
A. 40% duty cycle would have off time of 4msec and on time of 6msec
B. 40% duty cycle would have off time of 6msec and on time of 4msec
C. 40% duty cycle would have off time of 10msec & on time of 4msec
D. 40% duty cycle would have off time of 4msec & on time of10msec
B. 40% duty cycle would have an off time of 6msec & on time of 4msec
