female gu exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is included in the vulva?

A

mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule, skenes glands, bartholins glands, urethral meatus, vaginal introitus

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2
Q

fourchette

A

formed by inferior union of labia minora at posterior commissure

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3
Q

perineum

A

located between fourchette and anus

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4
Q

hymen

A

circular fold of tissue that may partially or completely occlude vaginal introitus

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5
Q

labia majora

A

rounded folds of adipose and connective tissue

extends from the mons to just pass the posterior commissures

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6
Q

labia minora

A

thinner, medial, pink red flods that extend anteriorly to form prepuce and clitoris

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7
Q

prepuce

A

female foreskin

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8
Q

innervation of the clitoris

A

dorsal nerve branches off the pudendal nerve to innervate

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9
Q

average length and width of clitoris and adult female

A

width= ~1 cm
length= 1.5-2 cm

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10
Q

what does the vestibule contain?

A

the urethral meatus and opening to the skene’s glands bilaterally

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11
Q

vaginal introitus

A

opening to the vagina, contains the hymen

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12
Q

site of episiotomy or tears during childbirth

A

perineum

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13
Q

if skenes glands are edematous or tender you should consider

A

infection- chlamydia or ghonorrhea

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14
Q

bartholins gland function

A

secrete watery fluid that serves as lubricant during intercours

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15
Q

cystocele

A

when the wall between the bladder and the vagina weakens

bladder falls through vaginal introitus

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16
Q

retrocele

A

wall between rectum and vagina weakens

rectum falls through vaginal introitus

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17
Q

uterine prolapse

A

Prolapse of the uterus results from weakness of the supporting structures of the pelvic floor and is often associated with a cystocele and rectocele. In progressive stages, the uterus becomes retroverted and descends down the vaginal canal to the outsid

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18
Q

vulva nerve innervation

A

pudendal nerve
-innervates majority of vulva
-responsible for proper functioning and control of urination defecation and orgasm

ilioinguinal and genitofemoral nerve
-innervate anterior to urethra

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19
Q

blood supply of vulva

A

predominately from internal pudendal arteries

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20
Q

where does the cervix turn into the uterus?

A

at the isthmus

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21
Q

what is the lining of the uterus called?

A

endometrium

*endometrial lining 2-10 cm thick depending on stage of menstrual cycle

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22
Q

length of vagina

A

~7-10 cm

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23
Q

length of cervix

A

~3 cm

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24
Q

muscle layers of the vagina

A

-inner circular muscle layer
-outer logitudinal smooth muscle layer

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25
Q

vaginal cells responsible for resistance to infection

A

superficial cells of vagina that contain glycogen which produce lactic acid with normal vaginal flora

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26
Q

what tissue lines the vagina?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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27
Q

describe the fornices of the vagina

A

anterior fornix
-shallow
-posterior to bladder
posterior fornix
-deep
-anterior to pouch of douglas
lateral fornices
-contain broad ligaments
-may palpate fallopian tubes and ovaries here

28
Q

corpus/ fundus= upper portion of uterus

A

-interlacing smooth msucle fibers
-freely mobile
-peritoneum covers fundus anteriorly

29
Q

what is the fundus of the uterus supported by?

A

-broad ligament
-uterosacral ligaments
-pelvic floor

30
Q

skin/tissue cells of the cervix

A

exocervix= squamous epithelium
endocervix=simple columnar epithelium

come together at squamocolumnar junction/transition zone

31
Q

adnexa

A

region that houses the female reproductive organs while lie close to the uterus

*ovaries, fallopian tubes, ligaments that hold uterus in place

32
Q

primary function of fallopian tubes

A

provide a conduit for and convey egg from ovary to uterus

33
Q

what is the most common site of ectopic pregnancies?

A

ampulla of fallopian tubes

34
Q

function of fimbriae

A

direct egg into fallopian tube

35
Q

primary funcitons of ovaries

A

-oogenesis
-hormone production

36
Q

innervation of the pelvic floor

A

-pelvic diaphragm= sacral nerve root s3-s5
-perineal membrane= pudendal nerve

37
Q

menarche

A

onset of menses

38
Q

menopause

A

absence of menses for 12 consecutive months usually occuring between 48 and 55 years

39
Q

amenorrhea

A

absence of menses; most common cause is pregnancy

40
Q

dysmenorrhea

A

pain with menses, often when bearing down, aching, or cramping sensation in the lower abdomen or pelvis

41
Q

premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

A

atleast one symptom associated with “economic or social dysfunction” that occurs during the 5 days before the onset of menses and is present atleast 3 consecutive menstrual cycles

42
Q

premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)

A
43
Q

primary vs secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Primary dysmenorrhea results from increased prostaglandin production during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, when estrogen and progesterone levels decline.

Causes of secondary dysmenorrhea include endometriosis, adenomyosis (endometriosis in the muscular layers of the uterus), pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and endometrial polyps

44
Q

patterns of abnormal bleeding

A

-Polymenorrhea, or less than 21-day intervals between menses
-Oligomenorrhea, or infrequent bleeding
-Menorrhagia, or excessive flow
-Metrorrhagia, or intermenstrual bleeding
-Postcoital bleeding- CANCER UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE

45
Q

premature ovarian failure

A

“early menopause” before 40 years old

46
Q

Chronic pelvic pain is a red flag for

A

hx of sexual abuse

47
Q

gynecological history

A

-date of last pelvic exam
-last pap smear and results
-hx of an abnormal PAP
-stis
-gyn procedures
-personal or fam hx of diabetes of cancer of the reproductive organs

48
Q

GTPAL

A

G= # of pregnancies
T=term births
P=preterm births
A=abortions
L=living children

49
Q

contraceptive hx

A

current method (type, length of time used, compliance, side effects, satisfaction)

previous methods and why discontinued

patient education about barrier methods

50
Q

sexual hx

A

-number sexual partners
-gender of partners
-sexual preferences
-high risk behavior
-prior stds

51
Q

genitourinary ros

A

urinary urgency
urinary incontinence
hematuria
painful urination
night time urination

52
Q

genital ros

A

vaginal odor, vaginal discomfort, vaginal discharge, itching, postcoital bleeding, painful intercourse

53
Q

components of female gu exam

A

-inspection external genitalia
-palpation external genatlia
-examination with speculum
*bimanual palpation
-rectovaginal palpation
-rectal exam

54
Q

list speculums largest to smallest

A

graves, peterson, huffman

55
Q

position of patient during pelvic exam

A

dorsal lithotomy

56
Q

steps of internal exam

A

speculum insertion
inspection of cervix
inspection of cervical os
culture collection
pap smear collection
internal exam of vaginal mucosa

57
Q

choose speculum size based on

A

patients:
age
sexual experience
introital size

58
Q

nabothian cysts

A

cysts on cervix

59
Q

the wet prep

A

-vaginal discharge samples collected
-normal saline on one slide
-KOH on another slide
-take a whiff a fishy odor indicative of bv

60
Q

what is a normal vaginal ph

A

4-4.5

61
Q

what does a vaginal Ph of over 4.5 suggest in premenopausal women?

A

suggests infections such as bv or trichomoniasis

helps to exclude candida vulvovaginitis

62
Q

what do you have to do to feel a retroverted uterus?

A

you need to do a rectovaginal exam

63
Q

what HPV subtypes are associated with genital warts?

A

subtypes 6 and 11

64
Q

what are the 14 high risk types of HPV?

A

16,18,31,33,35,39,45,51,52,56,58,59,66,68

65
Q

health promotion and counseling

A

Cervical cancer
Menopause and hormone replacement therapy
Ovarian cancer

66
Q
A

The ACIP recommends routine vaccination for females and males beginning at age 11 or 12 years, though vaccinations can be first given at age 9

For persons first being vaccinated at ages 15 through 26 and immunocompromised persons ages 9 through 26, the recommendation is for three doses of HPV vaccine

67
Q

which age to end cervical cancer screening

A

Age >65 yrs, assuming three consecutive negative results on cytology or two consecutive negative results on cytology plus HPV testing within 10 yrs before cessation of screening, with the most recent test performed within 5 yrs