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Phase 3 > Female GU/breast > Flashcards

Female GU/breast Flashcards

1
Q

What is salpingitis and how does it present?

A

pelvic inflammatory disease affecting fallopian tubes

fever, lower abdominal or pelvic pain, pelvic masses

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2
Q

Name three complications associated with salpingitis.

A

tubo-ovarian abscess
tubal ectopic pregnancy
infertility

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3
Q

What are the two most common tubal malignancies? What gene mutation is associated with it?

A

serous tubal carcinoma
endometriod carcinoma
BRCA1

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4
Q

List the four features of polycystic ovaries.

A

oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, infertility, obesity

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5
Q

What four sporadic mutations are associated with ovarian neoplasms?

A

BRCA, HER2 overexpression, KRAS mutation, p53

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6
Q

Which three cell types do ovarian neoplasms arise from?

A

surface epithelium, germ cells, sex cord/stromal cells

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7
Q

Both benign and malignant ovarian surface epithelial tumours can be cystic and stromal. Describe how their naming is different.

A
  • benign: cystic = cystadenoma. Solid = cystadenofibroma

- malignant: cystic = cystadenocarcinoma. Solid = adenocarcinoma

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8
Q

Carcinomas of the ovaries may be HGSC, LGSC, endometrial, clear cell and mucinous. How do each of these arise?

A
  • HGSC: epitheial precursor lesions in fallopian tubes. Abnormal p53 and BRCA1
  • endometrioid and clear cell: ovarian endometriosis
  • LSGC: abnormal KRAS and BRAF
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9
Q

Describe the appearance of benign serous ovarian tumours.

A

large cystic tumours, smooth shiny serosal covering

cysts filled with clear serous fluid, lined by a single layer of tall columnar epithelium

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10
Q

Describe the morphology of serous ovarian carcinoma.

A 
cell anoplasia, obvious stromal invasion
Psammona bodies (concentrically laminated calcified concretions) in the papillae
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11
Q

Which type of ovarian tumour appears large, multifocular and without psammona bodies? It also mimics a Krukenburg tumour, one which has metastases from the GI tract.

A

mucinous

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12
Q

The PTEN tumour suppressor gene is often lost in which type of ovarian cancer and where is said neoplasm though to arise?

A

endometrial carcinoma

endometriosis

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13
Q

Aside from endometrial carcinoma, which other ovarian cancer is though to arise from the endometrium?

A

clear cell carcinoma - poor prognosis

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14
Q

Describe the gross appearance of a mature germ cell ovarian tumour.

A

smooth capsule, often filled with sebaceous fluid and hair, bone, cartilage, teeth, thyroid, GI, resp. tissue

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15
Q

How does an immature cystic teratoma differ from a mature one?

A

contains immature neuro-ectodermal elements - more aggressive

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16
Q

What is the major complication associated with cystic teratomas?

A

prone to torsion which is an acute surgical emergency

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17
Q

How can ovarian sex cord tumours develop into endometrial hyperplasia/carcinoma?

A

granulosa and theca cell tumours produce oestrogen

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18
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion

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19
Q

What are Brenner tumours?

A

uncommon mixed surface epithelial-stromal ovarian tumours - usually benign, unilateral, variable size, solid, yellow

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20
Q

Describe the histological appearance of Brenner tumours.

A

nests of transitional epithelial cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and abundant fibrous stroma

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21
Q

Name four common developmental abnormalities of the breast.

A

ectopic breast tissue
breast hypoplasia
stromal overgrowth
nipple inversion

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22
Q

List 5 common inflammatory conditions of the breast and their causes.

A
  • acute mastitis: associated with breast feeding
  • granulomatous inflammation: sarcoidosis, TB, vasculitis, cat scratch disease
  • idiopathic granulomatous mastitis
  • foreign body reactions: around implants
  • recurrent subareolar abscesses: mamillary fistula, smoking, squamous metaplasia of lacteriferous ducts
  • periductal mastitis: often asymptomatic but may have discomfort, a mass, nipple retraction, calcified luminal secretions, middle aged, smoker
  • fat necrosis following trauma
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23
Q

List 5 fibrocystic changes which can be seen on biopsy of breast tissue.

A 
adenosis
apocrine metaplasia
epithelial hyperplasia
radial scars
intraduct papilloma: benign tumour of epithelium lining of mammary ducts
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24
Q

Describe the two types of stromal proliferations seen in the breast.

A
  1. Diabetic fibrous mastopathy
    - stromal fibrosis with infiltrating lymphocytes
    - type 1 DM, usually in women
  2. Pseudo-angiomatous stromal hyperplasia
    - proliferation of myoblasts
    - may cause mass and require biopsy to exclude malignancy
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25
Q

What are the three common benign breast neoplasms?

A

fibroadenoma: overgrowth of epithelium and stroma
Phyllodes tumour
adenoma

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26
Q

Describe the characteristics of breast fibroadenoma.

A

presents in young women, regresses after menopause, usually firm, non-tender, <25-30mm

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27
Q

Describe the histological appearance of Phyllodes tumour and what this means for its treatment.

A

combining epithelium and mesenchyme, with increased stromal cellularity, mitotic activity, cytological atypia, infiltrative border
require surgical excision, unlike FA, with a margin of breast tissue

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28
Q

In which benign neoplasm does the nipple’s appearance mimic that Paget’s disease of the nipple?

A

adenoma

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29
Q

Briefly outline the stages of the menstrual cycle.

A
  • 3-7d: proliferative stage
  • 8-14d: decreases in follicular phase
  • 15-20d: myoepithelial changes and proliferation in luteal
  • secretory changes
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30
Q

List some of the risk factors associated with development of breast malignancy.

A

early menarche, late menopause, corticosteroid use, HRT, obesity, alcohol, family history

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of breast malignancy?

A
  • new lump or thickening of breast or axilla
  • altered size, shape or feel of breast
  • skin changes: puckering, dimpling, oedema, rash, redness
  • nipple changes: tethering/inversion, discharge, eczema like changes
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32
Q

How would you investigate a suspected breast malignancy?

A
  • clinical exam
  • imaging: US, mammography, MRI
  • fine needle aspirate
  • core biopsy
  • excisional biopsy
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33
Q

Breast cancers are excised with a margin and followed by radiotherapy. What drugs are also available? (3)

A

steroid hormone receptor antagonists e.g. tamoxifen
aromatase inhibitors e.g. Letrazole
herceptin - for cancers which overexpress Her2

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34
Q

What index is used to determine prognosis following surgery in breast cancer?

A

Nottingham Prognosis Index
NPI = [0.2 x S] + N + G
S: size of the index lesion (cm)
N: 0 nodes = 1, 1-3 nodes = 2, >3 nodes = 3
G: Grade I = 1, Grade II = 2, Grade III = 3

<2.4 = excellent prognosis, > 5.4 = poor prognosis

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35
Q

Define an in situ carcinoma.

A

malignant proliferation of epithelial cells contained within the basement membrane - no extension to breast stroma, no communication with blood vessels or lymphatics nor possibility of metastases

36
Q

How are ER+ breast cancers classified?

A

Luminal A: low grade, less proliferation, better prognosis

Luminal B: high grade, more proliferation, do less well

37
Q

How are ER- breast cancers classified?

A
  1. normal breast-like
  2. HER2 molecular expression
  3. basal-like - overlap with cancers which occur in BRCA1 carriers
38
Q

What are the indicators of HER2 gene amplification?

A
  • increased gene copy number
  • increased mRNA transcription
  • increased cell surface receptor protein expression
  • increased release of receptor extracellular domain
39
Q

Discuss how FNA and core biopsy are classified.

A 
1 normal or insufficient
2 benign
3 atypia, probably benign
4 atypia, probably malignant
5 malignant
40
Q

What are the benefits of using core biopsy over FNA?

A 
differences in situ vs invasive
fewer false positives and negatives
correlation with mammogram
visualises calcification
diagnosis of borderline lesions
41
Q

Describe the changes in the cervical epithelium that occur during puberty and menopause.

A
  • prior to puberty: ectocervix = non-keratinising stratified squamous, endocervix = columnar
  • with growth of cervix after puberty, the squamocolumnar junction is everted into the vagina and the squamous epithelium adapts to the vaginal environment by metaplasia in the ‘transitional zone’
  • these changes are reversed during menopause - it is in this region that most cervical cancers arise
42
Q

Which two strains of the human papilloma virus are most common in Glasgow?

A

16 and 18

43
Q

Discuss the purposes of cervical screening, including who is offered the test.

A

women aged 25-50: 3 yearly. 50-65: 5 yearly

  • samples cells from the transitional zone to detect changes ass. w/ HPV and cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
  • dyskaryosis (nuclear abnormalities) suggestive of CIN - referral to colposcopy
44
Q

To what ages of girls is the HPV vaccine offered and which strains does it cover?

A

12/13

6, 11, 16, 18

45
Q

Describe the progression of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.

A

CIN 1: low grade dyskaryosis with koilocytosis - confined to basal 1/3 epithelium
CIN 2: high grade squamous dyskaryosis - confined to basal 2/3 epithelium
CIN 3: severe dysplasia with neoplastic cells (cervical carcinoma in situ) - may involve full thickness
CIN 2 and CIN 3 are more likely to progress to invasive squamous cervical carcinoma

46
Q

What is the commonest treatment available for cervical carcinoma in situ? What are the complications associated with this treatment?

A

LETZ : loop excison of transitional zone

pain, haemorrhage, infection, cervical stenosis, infertility

47
Q

What are the symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
  • often asymptomatic

- postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, irregular vaginal bleeding, pain

48
Q

What impact does low oestrogen have on the vagina after menopause?

A

atrophic vaginitis with discomfort, dysparenuia and bleeding

49
Q

List some infections common to the vagina.

A

bacterial vaginosis, thrush, trichomonas, vaginalis, actinomyces (IUCD), herpes simplex

50
Q

Name some non-cancerous pathologies of the vulva.

A

skin tags
melanocytic nevi
benign cysts

51
Q

What are two non-infective inflammations of the vulva?

A
  • lichen planus

- lichen sclerosus: ass. w/ anogenital skin in females and vulval squamous carcinoma

52
Q

Differentiate between vulval squamous cell carcinoma association with VIN and dermatoses.

A
  • VIN: females < 60, associated with CIN and invasive cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18, warty or basaloid cancer
  • dermatoses: older age group, well differentiated and keratinising, no associated with HPV, adjacent squamous hyperplasia and/or lichen sclerosus
53
Q

Describe when developmental abnormalities of the uterus occur.

A

at 6 weeks, coelomic lining epithelium forms the lateral mullerian ducts, which grow downwards into the pelvis and fuse with the urogenital sinus
fused = uterus, unfused = fallopian tubes

54
Q

What abnormalities can occur in the development of the uterus?

A

dysmorphic uterus, septate uterus, bicorporeal uterus, hemi uterus, aplastic uterus

55
Q

What is the difference between endometriosis and adenomyosis?

A

endometriosis: presence of endometrial tissure outside of the uterus
adenomyosis: endometrial tissue within myometrium

56
Q

Where might endometriosis spread and what symptoms is it associated with?

A

ovaries, peritoneal surfaces, bowels, appendix, cervix mucosa, vagina, fallopian tubes

dysmenorrhoea, pelvic pain, infertility

57
Q

Briefly describe the two mechanisms by which it is thought that endometriosis develops.

A
  1. Metastatic theory: retrograde menstruation

2. Metaplastic theory: endometrium arises directly from coelomic epithelium as this is where the endometrium develops

58
Q

What are endometrial polyps?

A

exophytic masses of variable size which project into the endometrial cavity

59
Q

Which drug are endometrial polyps associated with?

A

tamoxifen

60
Q

How do endometrial polyps present and how can they treated?

A

present with abnormal bleeding

treated via hysteroscope in outpatient clinic

61
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of endometrial polyps.

A

haphazardly arranged glands with preservation of a low gland to stroma ratio
thick walled blood vessels and fibrous stroma
glands are usually inactive but can show proliferation, secretory changes or metaplasia

62
Q

Discuss the possible causes of endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma.

A

anovulatory cycles

endogenous: obesity, PCOS, oestrogen secreting ovarian tumours
exogenous: oestrogen only HRT

63
Q

What is the main symptom of endometrial hyperplasia?

A

post menopausal bleeding

64
Q

What does an increased gland:stroma ratio in the endometrium indicate?

A

endometrial hyperplasia

65
Q

Atypical EH is a precursor to which condition?

A

endometriod adenocarcinoma

66
Q

Discuss the different management plans for endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma.

A
  • hyperplasia: progesterone therapy e.g. Mirena IUS, hysterectomy
  • adenocarcinoma: hysterectomy
67
Q

What name is given to a benign muscle tumour of the myometrium that is often asymptomatic but may present with abnormal bleeding, urinary frequency and impaired fertility?

A

leiomyoma/fibroids

68
Q

Describe the pathology of leiomyomas.

A

sharply demarcated round grey-white tumours with a whorled cut surface
microscopically, resemble normal smooth muscle

69
Q

What are the management options available for leiomyoma?

A
  • varies depending on number, size and symptoms
  • medical: progesterone secreting IUS, hormonal therapies, tranexamic acid, GnRH agonists
  • surgery: uterine artery embolisation, myomectomy, hysterectomy
70
Q

Define leiomyosarcoma.

A

uncommon malignant smooth muscle tumour of the myometrium

peak incidence 40-60 years

71
Q

Give three areas where a leiomyosarcoma may spread and what impact does this have on 5 year survival rate?

A

lungs, liver, brain

40%

72
Q

Which type of endometrial cancer has a diffusely infiltrative ‘worm-like’ growth pattern?

A

endometrial stromal sarcoma

73
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

a group of pregnancy-relater disorders including hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinoma

74
Q

How do hydatidiform moles present?

A

spontaneous miscarriage, abnormalities detected on US

75
Q

How does a partial mole develop and what risk does this pose to the uterus?

A

fertilisation of one egg by two sperm
microscopy shows oedematous villi and subtle trophoblast proliferation
risk of invasive mole which destroys uterus

76
Q

How does a complete mole develop and what risk does this pose to the uterus?

A

fertilisation of an egg with no genetic material usually by one sperm which duplicates its chromosomal material
microscopy shows enlarged oedematous villi with central cisterns and circumferential trophoblast proliferation
risk of invasive role and choriocarcinoma (malignant, invasive, metastases widelty, treated with chemo)

77
Q

What are the four special characteristics of cancer cells?

A

uncontrolled proliferation, loss of original function, invasiveness, metastasis

78
Q

List some of the toxic effects associated with cancer chemotherapy.

A 
bone marrow suppression - anaemia, immune suppression, infections, impaired wound healing
loss of hair
damage to GI epithelium
liver, heart, kidney
in children, depression of growth
sterility
teratogenicity (damage to embryo)
79
Q

What kinds of drugs are used as chemotherapy?

A 
alkylating agents
antimetabolites
cytotoxic antibiotics
microtubule inhibitors
steroid hormones and antagonists
80
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of alkylating agents.

A

form covalent bonds with DNA, interfere with both transcription and replication

81
Q

Nitrogen mustards are a type of alkylating agent. Can you name three and what their indications are?

A

1 mechlorethamine: Hodgkins and NHL
2 melphalan: multiple myeloma, ovarian and breast cancer
3 cyclophosphamide: many cancers

82
Q

Each of the antimetabolites disrupts DNA synthesis. Can you list all 4 and give an example of each?

A

1 folate antagonists e.g. methotrexate
2 pyrimidine analogues e.g. fluoro-uracil
3 purine analogues e.g. mercaptopurines
4 nucleotide analogues e.g. cytarabine

83
Q

Dactinomycin and doxorubicin are examples of which type of chemotherapy drugs that has a direct action on DNA as intercalators?

A

cytotoxic antibiotics

84
Q

Name one microtubule inhibitor and describe its mechanism of action.

A

vincristine

bind to microtubular protein and blocks spindle production and so disrupts cell division

85
Q

In which type of breast cancers is tamoxifen used as a treatment?

A

those which are oestrogen dependent to stimulate their growth
as tamoxifen is an oestrogen receptor antagonist

86
Q

How would you treat prostate cancer?

A

most as dependent on testosterone

therefore, testosterone receptor antagonists e.g. flutamide, bicalutamide

87
Q

What causes a so-called ‘chocolate cyst’ on the ovaries on US?

A

endometriosis

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