Federal Securities Regulations Flashcards

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1
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 (also called the Paper Act, the Truth in Securities Act,
and the _______) regulates the issuing of corporate securities sold to the public
(initial public offerings or IPOs) and through subsequent public offerings (SPOs),
sometimes referred to as “SEOs,” seasoned (i.e., secondary) equity offerings of U.S. equity
securities.

A

Prospectus Act

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2
Q

Issuer information must be disclosed to the Securities and Exchange Commission
(SEC) in a registration statement and published in a

A

Prospectus

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3
Q

The fundamental definition of a security was determined in a case heard before the
U.S. Supreme Court. That case, known as the

A

Howey Case

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4
Q

investment contract is a security if it met four conditions:

A

■■ the investment of money;
■■ in a common enterprise (pooling);
■■ with an expectation of profits; and
■■ that results solely from the efforts of others.

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5
Q

On the basis of Howey, a security is any of the following

A
Stock
■■ Bond
■■ Debenture
■■ Right or warrant
■■ Note
■■ Put, call, or other option
■■ Limited partnership interests
■■ Certificate of interest in a profit-sharing arrangement
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6
Q

Any person who issues or proposes to issue any security is an

A

issuer

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7
Q

Most issuers are

businesses, and the term issuer would also apply to a

A

government entity

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8
Q

Any person who has purchased from an issuer with a view to selling is an

A

underwriter

**This term does not include a brokerage firm earning a commission on a retail sale to the
public.

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9
Q

A _______ is any notice, circular, letter, or communication, written or broadcast
by radio or television, that offers any security for sale or confirms the sale of a security.

A

Prospectus

***Does not include oral communication

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10
Q

A ______ advertisement (one that simply identifies the security, the price, and the underwriters)
is not considered a prospectus nor an offering of the subject security.

A

tombstone

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11
Q

The term ___ or ____ includes a contract for sale or the disposition of a security for
value.

A

sale, sell

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12
Q

The sale of a security does not include:

A

■■ preliminary negotiations or agreements between the issuer and
underwriter; or
■■ a gift of securities.

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13
Q

the SEC merely attempts to make certain that all pertinent information
is fully disclosed in the registration statement and prospectus by requiring that:

A

the issuer file a registration statement with the SEC before securities are offered or sold
in interstate commerce;
■■ a prospectus that meets the requirements of the act be provided to prospective buyers;
and
■■ penalties (civil, criminal, or administrative) be imposed for violations of this act.

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14
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 makes it unlawful to sell or deliver a security
through any
instrument of interstate commerce unless a registration statement is in effect. However,
certain securities are exempted from the registration requirements of the act. The following
issues qualify as exempted securities:

A

Any security issued or guaranteed by the United States, any state, or any political subdivision
of a state (all federal government issues and municipal securities are exempted
securities)

Any commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance of no more than
nine months (270 days), with the stipulation that the proceeds are to be used by the
issuer to increase working capital and not for the purchase of fixed assets; there is no
minimum denomination or rating requirement similar to that found in the Uniform
Securities Act (exemptions there will be covered in Session 2)

Any security issued by a person organized and operated exclusively for religious, educational,
benevolent, fraternal, or charitable purposes and not for pecuniary profit

Any interest in a railroad equipment trust (for purposes of the law, interest in a railroad
equipment trust means any interest in an equipment trust, lease, or other similar
arrangement entered into, guaranteed by, or for the benefit of a regulated common
carrier to finance the acquisition of rolling stock, including motive power)

Any security issued by a federal or state bank, savings and loan association, building
and loan association, or similar institution

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15
Q

The following issue qualifies as an exempt security under federal law but is not exempt
under the Uniform Securities Act and will probably have to register with the state:

A

Rule 147 issue: any security offered and sold only to persons resident within a single
state or territory, where the issuer of such security is a person resident and doing business
within such state or territory

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16
Q

The Rule 147 exemption is available only if the entire issue is offered and sold exclusively
to residents of a

A

single state

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17
Q

If any sales take place to non-residents, the entire issue loses its

A

exemption

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18
Q

The following conditions must be met in order to have a distribution qualify as an intrastate offering
exempt from federal registration.

A

The securities must be offered or sold exclusively to persons
resident in one state;
persons purchasing the securities
must have their principal residence within the state.
■■ For nine months from the date of the last sale by the issuer of any part of the issue,
resales of any part of the issue by any person will be made only to persons resident
within the same state or territory. This will satisfy requirements that the issue come to
rest in the state in order to claim the exemption.
■■ At least 80% of the issuer’s gross revenue must be derived from operations within the
state.
■■ At least 80% of the proceeds of the offering must be used for business purposes within
the state.
■■ At least 80% of the issuer’s assets must be located within the state.

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19
Q

In addition to exempting certain securities, the act also exempts:

A

■■ transactions by any person other than an issuer, underwriter, or dealer; and
■■ transactions by an issuer that do not involve a public offering (private placement
under Regulation D).

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20
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 protects investors who buy new issues by:

A

requiring registration of new issues that are to be distributed interstate;
■■ requiring an issuer to provide full and fair disclosure about itself and the offering;
■■ requiring an issuer to make available all material information necessary for an investor
to judge the issue’s merit;
■■ regulating the underwriting and distribution of primary and secondary issues; and
■■ providing criminal penalties for fraud in the issuance of new securities.

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21
Q

An issuer must file a _________ with the SEC disclosing material information about the issue.

A

registration statement

22
Q

The information required in the registration statement

may be summarized as follows:

A

Purpose of issue
■■ Public offering price (anticipated range)
■■ Underwriter’s commissions or discounts
■■ Promotion expenses
■■ Expected use of the net proceeds of the issue to the company
■■ Balance sheet
■■ Earnings statements for the last three years
■■ Names, addresses, and bios of officers, directors, stockholders owning more than 10%
of the outstanding stock (i.e., control persons), and underwriters of the issue
■■ Copy of underwriting agreements
■■ Copies of articles of incorporation

23
Q

After the issuer files a registration statement with the SEC, a 20-day ______ begins

A

cooling-off period

24
Q

If the SEC finds something is not stated properly, is missing, or needs further explanation, a __________ will be sent describing what needs to
be done in order for the registration to proceed.

A

deficiency letter

25
Q

The SEC sometimes issues a _______

which demands that all underwriting activities cease.

A

stop order

26
Q

A _______ is used to acquaint investors with essential facts concerning the new issue. It is also used to solicit indications of buyer interest.

A

red herring

27
Q

However a red herring cannot be used:

A

as a confirmation of sale;
■■ in place of a registration statement; or
■■ to declare the final public offering price.

28
Q

A registration statement is normally a very long and complex document for an investor
to read. The act requires the preparation of a shorter document called a

A

Prospectus

29
Q

There is a specific SEC rule permitting investment companies to use what is known
as an omitting prospectus. The rule is

A

SEC Rule 482

30
Q

In a major effort aimed at facilitating the capital formation needs of small businesses,
the SEC adopted _______, the private placement exempt transaction

A

Regulation D

31
Q

Securities offered and sold in compliance with Regulation D are exempt from registration with the
SEC and, as we will learn in the next session, are considered federal covered securities
exempt from registration on the state level as well. Our primary concern is with SEC Rule
506, a private placement where there is

A

no dollar limit on the amount sold

32
Q

Rule 506 now consists of two sections, 506(b) and 506(c). A company seeking to raise capital through a private placement under Rule 506(b) can sell the offering to an unlimited number of accredited investors (defined below) and up to

A

35 non-accredited investors

33
Q

On the other hand, Section 506(c) permits the offering to be advertised. There are two primary (and interrelated) requirements in order to do this

A

All purchasers are accredited investors, or the issuer reasonably believes that they are
accredited investors.

The issuer takes reasonable steps to verify that all purchasers are accredited investors,
which could include reviewing documentation, such as W-2s, tax returns, bank and
brokerage statements, credit reports and the like.

34
Q

Under Rule 503 of Regulation D,
an issuer that is issuing securities in reliance on Regulation D must file Form D with
the SEC no later than _____ after the first sale (defined as the time when an investor
has delivered an irrevocable commitment to invest) of securities in the offering

A

15 days

35
Q

One other point worth mentioning is that there is a proposal that the Form D be filed 15 days _______ to the first sale for those offerings made under 506(c)
rather than the 15 days after as is the case with 506(b) offerings.

A

prior

36
Q

__________ are unregistered securities purchased by an investor in a private placement and are generally restricted from resale for a stated period of time. They are also called letter securities (or legend securities), which refers to the fact that purchasers must
sign an investment letter attesting to their understanding of the restriction upon resale
and to the legend placed on the certificates indicating restriction upon resale.

A

Restricted securities

37
Q

A corporate director, officer, greater than 10% voting stockholder, or the spouse of any
of the preceding is a

A

control person

38
Q

Control person are loosely referred to as _____ or ____ because of their unique status within the issuer.

A

insiders or affiliates

39
Q

_______ is stock held by a control person

A

Control stock

40
Q

An investor who is not a control person and has no other affiliation with the issuer other than as an owner of securities is a

A

nonaffiliate

41
Q

______ was created so that certain resales of already existing securities could be
made without having to file a complete
registration statement with the SEC. The time and
money involved in having to file such a registration are usually so prohibitive as to make it
uneconomical for the individual seller. In almost all cases, those who wish to sell control
stock or restricted stock must do so by filing a ____

A

SEC Rule 144

42
Q

A is any person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the account of others

A

broker

43
Q

A ______ is any person regularly engaged in the business of buying and selling securities
for his own account. Banks, insurance companies, investment companies, and any
persons engaged in investing, reinvesting, or trading in securities for their own account,
either individually or in some fiduciary capacity, but not as part of a regular business, are
not included in this definition

A

dealer

44
Q

A __________________ is any partner, officer, or director of the broker-
dealer (or any person performing similar functions) or any person directly or indirectly
controlling or controlled by the broker-dealer, including any employees of the brokerdealer,
except that any person associated with a broker or dealer whose functions are solely
clerical or ministerial, shall not be included in the meaning of the term.

A

person associated with a broker-dealer

45
Q

A ________ is a dealer who holds himself out as being willing to buy and sell a
particular security for his own account and on a regular or continuous basis. This holding
out may be by entering quotations in an interdealer communications system or otherwise

A

market maker

46
Q

A _______________ is any person engaged in the business of:
■■ collecting, processing, or preparing for distribution or publication information with
respect to transactions in, or quotations for, any nonexempt security; or
■■ distributing or publishing (whether by means of a ticker tape, a communications network,
a terminal display device, or otherwise), on a current and continuing basis,
information with respect to such transactions or quotations.

A

securities information processor (SIP)

47
Q

A transfer agent is any person who engages on behalf of an issuer of securities in:

A

countersigning the certificates;

registering the transfer of the issuer’s securities;

exchanging or converting the issuer’s securities;

transferring record ownership of securities by bookkeeping entry without physical issuance
of securities certificates.

48
Q

________ is defined as a stock or similar security. Stock means common or preferred
stock. Similar security would include:
■■ a security convertible into stock (e.g., convertible bond);
■■ any security with a warrant or right attached to subscribe to or buy stock (e.g., a bond
with warrants attached); and
■■ any warrant or right to purchase stock.

A

Equity Security

49
Q

A _________ is an account set up with preapproved authority for a securities
professional to make transactions without having to ask for specific approval.

A

discretionary account

50
Q

Discretion is defined as the authority to decide:

A

which security;
■■ the number of shares or units; or
■■ whether to buy or sell.

51
Q

To identify a discretionary order, try this method: an order is discretionary if
any one of the three A’s is missing. The three A’s are:

A

■■ Activity;
■■ Amount; and
■■ Asset.