Federal Review Flashcards

0
Q

What was the quarterly turnover rate at a facility that had 18 separations in the quarter, and that averaged 225 employees in the first month, 220 employees in the second month, and 215 employees in the third month of the quarter?

A. 8 percent
B. 18 percent
C. 92 percent
D. 32 percent

A

A. 8 percent

First add all your averaged employees for the quarter 225 + 220 + 215 = 660. Take 660 and divide it by the number of months in the quarter to determine your average for the whole quarter which equals 220. Then take your total number of turnovers (18) and divide it with you average employees for the whole quarter (220) which equals 0.08..
Then you take your decimal (0.08) and multiply by a 100 to get your percentage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Which of the following is part of standard precautions?

A. Wearing a gown each time there is a clothing change for an incontinent resident.

B. Placing soiled linens on the floor rather than on the bed or other furniture.

C. Washing hands after touching a residents blood or urine, if gloves were worn at the time of contact.

D. Using and anti microbial soak for routine hand washing.

A

C. Washing hands after touching a resident blood or urine, if gloves were worn at the time of contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Advantages of the participatory method of budget making include all except which one of the following?

A. Input into the budget by staff members who are knowledgeable about daily operations.

B. Low consumptions of time and effort.

C. Greater awareness by department heads of the facilities resources and the needs of other departments.

D. Greater willingness by department heads to comply with the budget.

A

B. Low consumption of time and effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following describes the line staff relationship between a charge nurse and a nurse consultant?

A. The charge nurse is in a staff position and the consultant is in a line position.

B. The charge nurse is in a line position and the consultant is in a staff position.

C. Both are in a line position.

D. Both are in a staff position.

A

B. The charge nurse is in a line position and the consultant is in a staff position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is part of the managers controlling function?

A. Developing rules
B. Writing job descriptions
C. Discipline staff who break rules
D. Doing a SWOT analysis

A

C. Disciplining staff who break rules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a facility must notify a residents physician about a significant change in the residents status but the residents attending physician cannot be reached, which of these steps should the facility take first?

A. Call the medical director

B. Send the resident to the hospital ER

C. Call the physician designated by the attending physician to cover for him/her in his/her absence.

D. Assign another physician to the case.

A

C. Call the physician designated by the attending physician to cover for him/her in his/her absence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ADA accessibility standards are aimed at making buildings used by the public accessible to which of the following?

A. persons with dementia
B. persons with disabilities
C. the elderly
D. fire department and other emergency response teams

A

B. persons with disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following professionals is authorized to dispense medications?

A. Registered Nurse
B. licensed nurse, physician, in some states, medication aide
C. Licensed nurse and physician
D. Pharmacist

A

D. Pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At the beginning of a standard federal certification survey, the facility will be expected to provide the survey team with all except which one of the following?

A. incident reports
B. Copies of menus’
C. copies of each of the facility’s types of admission contracts.
D. Names of all residents receiving psychoactive medication.

A

A. Incident reports

Note: They are protected under QA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A list of the types and amounts of services that have been rendered would be found in which of the following?

A. clinical record
B. care plan
C. Minimum Data Set (MDS)
D. policies and procedures manual

A

A. clinical record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fire drills shall be conducted how often, at a minimum?.

A. once each quarter
B. once each quarter on each shift
C. once each year on each shift
D. Once each month on each shift.

A

B. once each quarter on each shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A resident has been restrained against his will by a CNA. This resident has not been given a bath today, not has he been seen by his physician for a month. How many resident rights were violated?

A. none
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

A

B. Two

Note - being restrained is a form of abuse and not being seen by a physician in a month is neglect. In regards to the bath per state guidelines once a week is all that is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A corporation’s distributions of profit to its shareholders are called?

A. Contributions
B. participations
C. dividends
D. Surpluses

A

C. Dividens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A facility with more than 120 beds must employ a fulltime?

A. MDS coordinator
B. medical director
C. dietician
D. social worker

A

D. Social worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Spread of cancer cells from on part of the body to another is referred to as…

A. dysphagia
B. metastasis
C. myasthenia
D. necrosis

A

B. metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be an expression of tardive dyskinesia?

A. fainting
B. dry mouth
C. involuntary jaw movements
D. urinary incontinence

A

C. Involuntary jaw movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For a facility to have a policy of serving breakfast more that 14 hours later than breakfast the following day, which of the following must occur?

A. The resident council or some other resident group agrees to this time span
B. An order is obtained from each resident’s attending physician
c. the evening meal must meet special standards regarding portion size and nutrient content
D. residents must have the option of having their breakfast served to them either in their bedrooms or in on or more dining rooms.

A

A. The resident council or some other resident group agrees to this time span.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A resident’s active record must contain all resident assessments completed..

A. since admission
B. within the previous 12 months
C. within the previous 15 months
D. within the previous two quarters

A

C. within the previous 15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is not usually a sign of depression or other mood disorder?

A. feelings of sadness
B. bodily complaints
C. loss of appetite
D. complete loss of language skill

A

D. Complete loss of language skill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Last year’s total food cost for a 150 bed facility were $210,109. The facility averaged 82 percent occupancy. What was this facility’s food cost per resident day?

A. $4.68
B. $3.84
C. $5.04
D. cannot be determined

A

A. $4.68

Total number of resident days =

150 X 365 days in a year X .82 average occupancy rate =

150 X 365 = 54,750 X .82 = 44,895

Food cost per resident day =

total food cost $210,109 / 44,895 total number of resident days = $4.68

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which class of fire extinguishers is appropriate for use on a grease fire?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

B. B class fire extinguishers should only be used on grease fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what should be the temperature range in the dry storage area?

A. 50 to 70 degrees F
B. below 45 degrees F
C. 60 to 80 degrees F
D. 72 to 82 degrees F

A

A. 50 to 70 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 125 bed facility has 100 residents. What is its occupancy rate?

A. 80 percent
B. 1.25
C. 100
D. Not possible to determine with these data

A

A. 80%

Occupancy rate 100 residents divided by total beds 125 = 0.80.

To convert to percent multiply 0.80 by 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following types of drugs is given to a stroke victim?

A. antihistamine
B. anticoagulant
C. antipsychotic
D. antidepressant

A

B. Anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A facility has $500,000 is assets and $450,000 in liabilities. Which of the following statements is best supported by this information?

A. The facility is in financial trouble
B. The facility has $50,000 in cash on hand
C. The facility has enough revenue to cover expenses
D. Owners equity is $50,000

A

D. Owners equity is $50,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

According to federal regulations, how many dietary staff are required in a certified nursing facility?

A. one for every 15 residents
B. on the day shift, one for every 0 and, on the evening shift, one for every 15 residents
C. A sufficient number competent to carry out the functions of the dietary service
D. Minimum dietary staffing is not addressed in the federal regulations

A

C. A sufficient number competent to carry out the functions of the dietary staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The type of therapeutic diet often prescribed for people with hypertension is

A. low fat
B. low sodium
C, bland
D. liquid

A

B. low sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the “8 and 80” option?

A. the maximum hours that can be worked by non-exempt staff are 8 in a 24-hour period and 80 in a 14-day period.
B. Wages at overtime rate are paid for all hours worked over 8 in each 24-hour period, but only after 40 hours have been worked in a 14-day period.
C. Wages at overtime rates are paid for all hours worked in excess of 8 in a 24-hour period and 80 in a 14-day period.
D. Wages at the overtime rate are paid for any hours over 40 in a 8-day period, and for any hours over 80 in a 14-day period.

A

C. Wages at overtime rates are paid for all ours worked in excess of 8 in a 24-hour period and 80 n a 14-day period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The facility employee most likely to assist a resident who is about to be discharged in contracting an outside resource agency is the

A. physical therapist
B. nurse’s aide
C. social worker
D. director of nursing

A

C. Social worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effective delegation of authority occurs when…

A. subordinates are given the responsibility to complete a task, but all authority is retained by the supervisor
B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions
C. tasks are delegated to subordinates who do not as yet have the necessary competence for the tasks, so that they will learn from the experience.
D. only part of the job, rather than the whole job, is delegated to subordinates.

A

B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which one of the following is an outcome measure of the quality of care provided to residents with urinary incontinence?

A. number of staff available to provide assistance with toileting
B. appropriate use by staff of prompted voiding behavioral programs
C. proper insertion and maintenance of urinary catheters
D. number of episodes of urinary incontinence

A

D. number of episodes of urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mr. Luchetti, enjoys talking about his adventures as a merchant seaman and hardly ever talks about the present. When he brings up those memories what should a caregiver do?

A. tell him not to dwell on the past
B. tell him how interesting it must have been in those days and ask some questions about his experience
C. change the subject by telling him about the activities schedule for later in the day
D. ignore him

A

B. tell him how interesting it must have been in those days and ask some questions about his experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If someone needs to be fed by a tube that is passed through an artificial opening in the abdomen into the stomach, that person would need a ________?

A. gastrostomy
B. jejunostomy
C. nasogastric
D. endotracheal

A

A. gastrostome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In collective bargaining, when labor and management select a third party to decide an issue, and agree to accept that third party’s decision as final and binding on both sides, the process is called?

A. mediation
B. arbitration
C. conciliation
D. subrogation

A

B. arbitration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A resident incurs a serious injury that may have been caused by a defect in the wheelchair he was using. After the facility learns about this event, among the reports that it must make is which of the following?

A. immediately to the FDA
B. within 10 working days to the FDA and to the wheelchair manufacturer
C. Immediate to the wheelchair manufacturer
D. within 10 working days to the wheelchair manufacurer

A

D. Within 10 days to the wheelchair manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The facility must notify each resident that receives Medicaid benefits when the personal funds in the resident’s account reaches _____ the limit at which the resident may lose Medicaid eligibility.

A. less than $200
B. exactly
C. greater that $200
D. anywhere between $200 less than and $200 greater than

A

A. less than $200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The facility must complete a preformance evaluation of every nurse aide at least once every ______

A. month
B. quarter
C. 12 months
D. two years

A

C. 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The facility must disclose all persons an ownership interest in the facility. This must include any person or corporation holding which one of the following?

A. any amount of direct interest
B. a direct interest of 5% or more
C. a direct or indirect interest of 5% or more
D. a direct interest of 5% or more, and a indirect interest of 10% or more

A

C. a direct or indirect interest of 5% or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A resident bedroom housing two residents must have at least how many square feet of floor space?

A. 80
B. 100
C. 160
D. 200

A

C. 160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When may residents organize and participate in resident groups?

A. according to a schedule set by the facility and posted at least one week in advance of the meetings
B. according to a schedule jointly determined by residents and facility staff
C. if the facility is able to provide the space and privacy for meetings, and staff support
D. whenever the residents wish

A

D. whenever the residents wish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A common mistake made in hiring is…

A. interviewing a lot of applicants
B. having a supervisor make the choice
C. hiring the first qualified person available
D. saying too much about what the job entails

A

C. hiring the first qualified person available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In financial recording, every transaction is first recorded in which one of the following?

A. Journal
B. Ledger
C. Prospectus
D. book of posting entries

A

A. Journal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A resident who is a medicaid recipient is hospitalized and the hospital stay exceed the bed hold period under the states Medicaid plan. Which one of the following statements describes the Medicaid-certified facility’s duty in readmitting the resident, if the resident still requires services provided by the facility?

A. readmit the person immediately to the bed he/she had prior to the hospital transfer
B. The facility is under no obligation to readmit this person
C. readmit the person as soon as a bed becomes available in a semi-private room shared with another resident of the same sex
D. place the person on the facility’s waiting list, and readmit as soon as possible after all the other persons already on the waiting list have been admitted.

A

C. readmit the person as soon as a bed becomes available in a semi-private room shared with another resident of the same sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) requires employers to provide protected leave to eligible employees to care for all except which one of the following relatives when they have a serious health condition?

A. son or daughter
B. spouse
C. parent
D. mother-in-law or father-in-law

A

D. mother-in-law or father-in-law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a corporation?

A. continued existence despite the death or disability of the owners
B. ease in operating in various states because it is organized and created under federal statutes
C. potential for growth by the sale of stock
D. limited liability of stackholders

A

B. ease in opening in various states because it is organized and created under federal statuntes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Residents complain of lack of privacy when making use of the facility’s public pay phones. Which of the following statements best describes the most immediate response that the facility can make to fulfill its responsibility in this matter.

A. arrange to provide a phone and phone service for each resident
B. allow residents to use the telephones in staff offices or at the nurses station.
C. promptly lend out a cordless phone to those who request it and provide a place where it can be used without being overheard.
D. tell the resident to use the available phone at night when corridor traffic is lor

A

C. promptly lend out a cordless phone to those who request it and provide a place where it can be used without being overheard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Medicare certified facilities must use which one of the following?

A. accrual basis of accounting
B. perpetual inventory
C. centralized meal service
D. paid feeding assistance

A

A. accrual basis for accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

It is considered unacceptable and a reason for a comprehensive reassessment when a resident undergoes an unplanned weight loss that exceeds..

A. 5% on one month
B. 5% on one month or 10% in 6 months
C. 5% on 3 months or 10% in 6 months
D. 10% in one month

A

B. 5% on one month or 10% in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The person who should most often be called upon to resolve employee problems and grievances is

A. the nursing home administrator
B. the immediate supervisor
C. a labor union representative
D. the governing body

A

B. the immediate supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Within how many days after admission must an admission MDS be completed for a resident not being admitted for a Medicare Part A covered stay?

A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days

A

C. 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The initial orientation of new employees would not include a review of..

A. fire and disaster procedures
B. functions of all the departments
C. sick call policy
D. medication administration procedures

A

D. medication administration procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who orders a therapeutic diet?

A. dietician
B. attending physician
C. food service manager
D. supervisory nurse

A

B. attending physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A facility has an average census of 100 in December. Total cost per resident day were $80 and average daily revenues were $100. What was the facility’s profit for the month.

A. $248,000
B. $62,000
C. $2,000
D. Not possible to determine with this information

A

B. $62,000

Average daily profit = average daily revenues minus cost per resident day = $100 - $80 = $20 average profit

Total number of resident days = 31 days in December X 100 residents = 3,100 resident days

Profit for December = 3,100 resident days X $20 average daily profit = $62,000 facilities monthly profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When immediate jeopardy has been found among the remedies that may be imposed is a per-day civil money penalty falling into which of the following ranges of amounts?

A. $50 to $3,050
B. $1,000 to $10,000
C. $3,050 to $10,000
D. $1,000 to $3,000

A

C. $3,050 to $10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

For federal certification survey to result in a determination of substandard quality of care one or more deficiencies must be found in any except which one of the following sections of the federal rule?

A. Resident rights
B. Quality of Life
C. Quality of Care
D. Resident Behavior and facility practices.

A

A. Resident Rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A facility hires 75 of the 100 persons of the majority race who submitted application for job openings. Under the “4/5th rule” used in the enforcement of the civil rights act the employer might have to defend itself against the charge of adverse impact in its hiring decisions if fewer than how many members of the minority race were hired?

A. 45
B. 36
C. 48
D. 60

A

B. 36

Selection rate for minority race = 75/100 = 75%

75% X 80% = 60%

60% of 60 minority race applicants = 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A facility might have to turn over to a court a copy of a residents clinical record in response to an order called?

A. resondeat superior
B. subpoena duces tecum
C. warranty
D. habeas corpus

A

B. subpoena duces tecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A material safety data sheet (MSDS) must contain which of the following sets of information about a hazardous chemical?

A. precautions for safe handling, emergency and first aid procedures, phone number of a poison control
B. signs and symptoms of exposure, known acute and chronic health hazards, recommended brands and sources
C. odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, emergency and first aid.
D. whether gloves, eye protectors, or other protective clothing is required during use; whether the chemical is listed as a carcinogen (cancer causing agent); net weights of containers commonly available for purchase.

A

C. odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, emergency and first aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for handicapped parking spaces?

A. at lest one accessible space per 25 spaces in the parking lot.
B. an access aisle at least 60 inches wide
C. location on the shortest accessible route of travel from the adjacent parking lot to n accessible building entrance
D. cross-hatching across the entire width of the space.

A

D. cross-hatching across the entire width of the space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Advertising is usually differentiated from public relations by which one of the following?

A. promotion of a product
B. targeting to market segments
C. use of paid media
D. concern with image

A

C. use of paid media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When a supervisor disciplines an employee for inappropriate attire based on a dress code that is supposed to apply to all staff, the supervisor is demonstrating ___

A. consistency
B. rigidity
C. the halo effect
D. management by objectives

A

A. consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following coordinates the completion of the MDS for a new resident?

A. The Director of Nursing
B. A registered nurse
C. a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse
D. any member of the professional team designated by the Director of Nursing

A

B. Registered nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following types of therapists is especially trained to assist a resident in regaining the ability to swallow food?

A. occupational therapist
B. physical therapist
C. orthotist
D. speech-language pathologist

A

D. speech-language pathologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The facility submits a request for an IDR when it wishes to ____

A. refute survey findings that have resulted in a statement of deficiencies
B. expand its number of Medicare certified beds
C. challenge the reimbursement it has received under Medicare Prospective Payment System
D. obtain a determination as to whether a Medicare beneficiary meets the “need for skilled services” criterion for a Part A covered stay

A

A. Refute survey findings that have resulted in a statement of deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An A & O resident tells the staff that she does not want to see a person who has come to the facility to visit her/him. What would be the most appropriate response from the staff?

A. Tell the visitor how to contact the resident’s immediate family
B. Tell the visitor that the resident is not available and to come back at a later time
C. Tell the visitor that the resident refuses to see him and has the right to refuse to see visitors
D. Arrange for the resident and visitor to meet only when a staff member is present throughout the visit.

A

C. Tell the visitor that the resident refuses to see him and has the right to refuse to see visitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The facility Administrator and other staff members should attend meetings of the resident council ____

A. only when invited by the council
B. whenever they feel a need to address the council on important issues or to respond to previous recommendations made by the council
C. routinely, whenever a meeting is held
D. only when the council is being organized

A

A. only when invited by the council

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Under the accrual basis of accounting, revenues are recorded when _________ and expenses are recorded when _________

A. cash is received – cash is paid out
B. revenues are earned – expenses are incurred
C. revenues exceed expenses – expenses exceed revenues
D. the fiscal year ends – expenses are incurred

A

B. revenues are earned – expenses are incurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When milk and meat must be refrigerated they should be held at or below how many degrees Fahrenheit?

A. 50
B. 32
C, 47
D. 0

A

C. 47

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A chemical restraint is defined as psychoactive drug that ____

A. produces adverse reactions and side effects requiring the attention of the interdisciplinary team
B. is useful in managing agitation in persons with dementia
C. may serve as an appropriate substitute for a physical restraint
D. is impermissibly used for discipline or convenience and is not required to treat medical symptoms

A

D. is impermissibly used for discipline or convenience and is not required to treat medical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A patient develops an infection. Which of the following should be the facility’s response in every case?

A. place the resident in isolation
B. have the staff observe universal precaution
C. report the case to the public health authorities
D. ask the resident’s physician to prescribe an antibiotic

A

B. have the staff observe universal precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When an employee in the course of carrying out the job duties commits a negligent act that results in an injury to a resident, who may the resident sue in civil court for monetary damages?

A. the employee
B. the employer
C. the employer and the employee
D. the employer, the employee, and the employer’s labor union, if any

A

C. the employer and the employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many full time employee’s (FTEs) do you have if you have two employees who work 2,080 hours per pay, and 4 employees who work 1,040 hours per pay year?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

A

B. 4

Number of hours per year that the positions are filled =

(2080 x 2) + (1040 x 4) = 8320

Number of FTEs = 8320/2080 = 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In addition to placing wet floor signs to ensure that no one walks on a wet floor, which of the following is part of the correct procedures for mopping a hallway?

A. close off the entire hallway, mop the entire hallway, and then open the hallway only when it is dry
B. Mop no more that one yard of the full hallway width at a time
C. Mop the entire hallway, then place a non skid runner down the entire length until the hallway is dry
D. Mop one half of the length of the hallway at a time, leaving the other half open to traffic

A

D. mop one half of the length of the hallway at a time leaving the other half open to traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The facility emergency power source must be capable of providing illumination for all the means of egress how soon after loss of regular electric power?

A. immediately
B. within five seconds
C. within ten seconds
D. within thirty seconds

A

C. Within 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A competent resident who is on a “no salt added” diet request to have her meals in the dining room. What should be the facility’s response?

A. refuse to allow the resident to eat in the dining room
B. allow the resident to eat in the dining room
C. allow the resident to eat in the dining room but only at a table with other residents who are on the same diet
D. allow the resident to eat in the dining room but only at a table by herself/himself

A

B. allow the resident to eat in the dining room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix “hemi”?

A. blood related
B. half
C. kidney related
D. whole

A

B. half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

If a facility decides to serve breakfast more than 14 hours after the substantial evening meal, who must approve this decision?

A. a resident group
B. the state survey agency
C. the attending physician of the residents affected
D. the dietician

A

A. a resident group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Under the straight-line method, what would be the annual depreciation expense for a piece of equipment having a cost of $6,000, a manufacturer’s warranty for 2 years, and an estimated useful life of 6 years?

A. $1,000
B. $3,000
C. $6,000
D. An amount that decreases each year over a six year period

A

A. $1,000

Annual depreciation expense =

acquisition cost of $6,000/6 years in estimated useful life =

$1,000

(duration of the manufacturers warranty is irrelevant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the following would be the best agency to assist the facility in developing its Fire Safety Plan?

A. OSHA
B. NFPA
C. the state survey agency
D. the local fire department

A

D. the local fire department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Return on equity is calculated by ___

A. dividing annual net income by owners equity
B. subtracting liabilities from assets
C. subtracting expenses from revenues
D. dividing long-term dept by owners equity

A

A. dividing annual net income by owners equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A certified nurses aide had a baby. By when does she have to return to work as a CNA so that she does not lose her certification?

A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

A

C. 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A resident expired at 2:00 a.m. Who needs to complete the cause of death section of the death certificate and sign the certificate?

A. the charge nurse
B. the medical director
C. the attending physician
D. the administrator

A

C. the attending physician

83
Q

A physician who specializes in physical rehabilitation is a

A. Geriatrician
B. Osteopath
C. Physiatrist
D. Physicalist

A

C. Physiatrist

84
Q

The Life Safety Code permits skilled nursing facilities to have which of the following _____?

A. bedroom doors with ventilation louvers
B. non-fire retardant Christmas tree as long as they are placed next to a fire extinguisher
C. handrails with one inch clearance from the wall
D. self-closing stairwell doors.

A

D. self-closing stairwell doors

85
Q

Rooms can be kept under negative pressures by ___

A. exhausting more air from the room to the outside than is being supplied to it by the ventilation system
B. forcing air from the room and into the adjacent corridor and rooms
C. supplying more air to the room from the outside than is being exhausted from it by the ventilation system
D. having a minimal number of air changes per hour

A

A. exhausting more air from the room to the outside than is being supplied to it by the ventilation system

86
Q

According to the federal certification standards, the responsibility for establishing and implementing policies regarding the management of the facility is assigned to the ____

A. administrator
B. the administrator and one or more owners
C. the owners
D. the governing body

A

D. the governing body

87
Q

The rights of a resident who has been declared incompetent by a state court are exercised by ____

A. the facility
B. an individual designated by the resident
C. an individual appointed by the court
D. a member of the residents immediate family

A

C. an individual appointed by the court

88
Q

A surveyor finds 2 significant medication errors and 3 non significant errors while observing 50 opportunities for error in the medication passes by 2 nurses to 9 residents. What is the facility’s medication error rate?

A. 5/50 = 10%
B. 2/50 = 4%
C. 5/25 = 20%
D. 5/50 divided by 2 = 5%

A

A. 5/50 = 10%

89
Q

The term for inability to use a utensil due to loss of ability to coordinate learned movements is ____

A. amnesia
B. agnosia
C. apraxia
D. aphasia

A

C. apraxia

90
Q

According to the federal certification standards, if the facility has a resident service furnished by an outside person or agency, there must be a written agreement that the facility assumes responsibility for “obtaining services that meet professional standards and principles” and for which one of the following?

A. On-going training of the person furnishing the services
B. Income tax withholding and payment of FICA taxes for the person
C. The timeliness of the services
D. Representation of the person or agency at the residents care plan conference

A

C. The timeliness of the services

91
Q

Medicare is a _____

A. Federal welfare program for the poor
B. Federal welfare program for aged and disabled persons
C. social insurance program for the poor
D. social insurance program for aged and disabled persons

A

D. Social insurance program for aged and disabled persons

92
Q

A written care plan must be developed within ____

A. 7 days of completing the MDS
B. 14 days of completing the MDS
C. 14 days of admissions
D. 21 days of admissions

A

A. 7 days of completing the MDS

93
Q

In residents rooms that are sprinklered, all resident belongings must be ____

A. fire retardant
B. stored no closer that 18 inches from the ceiling
C. stored in closets or containers made of materials with a certain minimum fire resistance rating
D. stored in such a way that they would be directly exposed to the spray when the sprinkler system was activated

A

B. stored no closer that 18 inches from the ceiling

94
Q

What is the major symptom of clostridium difficile?

A. diarrhea
B. persistent cough
C. involuntary limb movements
D. difficulty swallowing

A

A. diarrhea

95
Q

A body mass index is calculated by using measurements of the resident’s _____

A. weight and height
B. weight and balancing ability
C. self-perceived body image
D. range-of-motion and muscular strenght

A

A. weight and height

96
Q

Which of the following is a question that an employer may legally ask of job applicants?

A. where were you born?
B. do you have any physical problems or injuries?
C. have you ever been treated for drug abuse?
D. can you speak and understand Spanish?

A

D. can you speak and understand Spanish?

97
Q

In a corporation, which of the following specifies the functions and composition of the governing board?

A. bylaws
B. articles of incorporation
C. prospectus
D. policies and procedures manual

A

A. bylaws

98
Q

Risk management replaces which one of the following?

A. care plans
B. individuals assessment of care plans
C. reactive approach to accidents
D. holistic approach to resident care

A

C. reactive approach to accidents

99
Q

While on the job, a kitchen employee slips on a wet spot near the dishwasher and nearly falls, This is ____

A. an accident for which an accident report should be completed
B. an incident for which an incident report does not need to be completed
C. an incident for which an incident report should be completed
D. an incident for which and incident report should be completed and which should be considered recordable for OSHA purposes.

A

C. an incident for which an incident report should be completed

100
Q

You observe your dishwashers scrapping plates before putting them in the dishwasher, wearing gloves while handling dirty dishes, and storing the clean items after removing them from the dishwasher. A screened window has been opened to let in a breeze. Which of the following is a serious violation of sanitation procedures?

A. wearing gloves while handling kitchenware
B. scraping the plates before washing them
C. failing to wash their hands after handling soiled articles and before handling clean ones
D. opening a window in the food service area

A

C. failing to wash their hands after handling soiled articles and before handling clean ones

101
Q

A Director or Nursing announces new personnel rules to the nursing staff at a meeting. This communication would be an example of the ______direction of communication

A. vertical
B. lateral
C. horizontal
D. diagonal

A

A. vertical

102
Q

Holistic care refers to care that ____

A. is based on an interdisciplinary team approach
B. shows concern for the whole person, not just the physical aspects
C. assumes that healing is most likely to be based on religious faith
D. is directed to the whole families of residents and not just to the residents as individuals

A

B. shows concern for the whole person, not just the physical aspects

103
Q

Which of the following is not an example of rehabilitation nursing?

A. using a Foley catheter to heal bedsores
B. providing range-of-motion exercises for residents with a limited range-of-motion
C. using prompted voiding for residents with urinary incontinence
D. using task segmentation in assisting a resident to perform tasks

A

A. using a Foley catheter to heal bedsores

104
Q

The accessibility guidelines requires that all of the following except which one?

A. elevator cars that sound an audible signal when they pass or stop at a floor
B. Braille numbers or alphabet letter next to elevator control buttons
C. Braille telephones
D. Handrails on both sides of stairways

A

C. Braille telephones

105
Q

Which of these is not a legal question that employers may ask of job applicants?

A. are you able to perform the essential functions of this job or without a reasonable accommodation?
B. would you demonstrate how you would perform a job function?
C. are you able to meet the attendance requirements of this job?
D. do you have a disability that would interfere with your ability to perform this job?

A

D. do you have a disability that would interfere with your ability to perform this job?

106
Q

If a resident begins showing mental confusion, impaired judgment, and balance problems, which of the following possible casual factors should be considered first?

A. adverse drug reaction
B. malnutrition
C. conflict with a roommate
D. a foot injury

A

A. adverse drug reaction

107
Q

If a facility has a current rate of 1.00 or higher, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A. it will have difficulty in paying its bills
B. it should consider raising its rates charged to private pay residents
C. its current assets exceed its current liabilities
D. its revenues exceed its expenses

A

C. its current assets exceed its current liabilities

108
Q

At least how often must a pharmacist review the drug regimen of each resident?

A. weekly
B. monthly
C. quarterly
D. annualy

A

B. monthly

109
Q

“A general statement that guides thinking and action, and permits interpretation” is the definition of which of the following?

A. rule
B. procedure
C. program
D. policy

A

D. policy

110
Q

A stage III pressure ulcer is characterized by ____

A. dark red areas with blue discoloration in the center
B. damage to the muscle and bone
C. break in skin down to and including underlying fatty tissues
D. blisters

A

C. break in skin down to and including underlying fatty tissues

111
Q

A PRN medication order means the medication ____

A. should be taken at bedtime
B. must be given immediately
C. should be taken after food or meals
D. can be given as needed

A

D. can be given as needed

112
Q

Which of the following is part of the information on an OSCAR report 4?

A. deficiencies cited in past surveys
B. the facility’s ranking among all the state’s facilities in terms of percentage of residents who are physically restrained
C. the facility’s medication error rate
D. the names of all persons and corporations who have any percentage of direct and indirect ownership in the facility

A

B. the facility’s ranking among all the state’s facilities in terms of percentage of residents who are physically restrained

113
Q

Tylenol is an example of ____

A. an antibiotic
B. an analgesic
C. an hypertensive
D. a sedative

A

B. analgesic

114
Q

Aphasia occurs frequently as a result of ____

A. diabetes
B. death of a spouse
C. pressure ulcers
D. stroke

A

D. Stroke

115
Q

A facility had $98,000 worth of food on hand as of June 30. It had $107,000 as of July 31. During the month of July, a total of $165,000 was spent on food purchases, and 100,000 meals were served. What was the food cost per meal?

A. $1.07
B. $1.56
C. $1.65
D. $1.74

A

B. $1.56

Total cost of food consumed = value of food on hand at beginning of month plus amount spent on food during the month minus value of food at end of the month

$98,000 + $165,000 - $107,000 = $156,000

Food cost per meal =

$156,000/100 meals served = $1.56

116
Q

When a physician refers to a resident’s prognosis, the reference is to ____

A. the resident’s chances for recovery
B. a medical procedure
C. the residents willingness to comply with medical orders
D. a part of the body

A

A. the resident’s chances for recovery

117
Q

Which of the following costs is the best example of a fixed cost?

A. salary of the director of nursing
B. medical supply cost
C. postage for sending resident’s bills
D. electricity cost

A

A. salary of the director of nursing

118
Q

If a resident who is recovering from a stroke takes a long time in putting on his/her shirt, the nurse aide should ___

A. ignore the resident so as not to embarrass him/her
B. put the shirt on for the resident
C. encourage the resident in his/her efforts
D. set a time limit for completing the task

A

C. encourage the resident in his/her efforts

119
Q

The main aim of discipline should be to ____

A. enable the supervisors to assert their authority
B. satisfy the demands of residents
C. comply with the requirements of regulatory agencies
D. prevent a recurrence of unacceptable behavior

A

D. prevent a recurrence of unacceptable behavior

120
Q

One name given to the adverse physical and psychosocial effects resulting from a move to an unfamiliar environment is ____

A. psychosis
B. parapelegia
C. sundowner’s syndrome
D. transfer trauma

A

D. transfer trauma

121
Q

The report used by surveyors in the federal certification surveys that shows the recent compliance history of the facility is called the ____

A. OSCAR report 3
B. OSCAR report 4
C. Quality measure/Quality indicator report
D. PASSR report

A

A. OSCAR report 3

122
Q

Which of the following statements is the primary reason why nurse’s aides should receive training in communication skills?

A. They are the staff who most frequently come into contact with residents and family
B. they must develop plans of correction when the facility is cited for deficiencies by surveyors
C. it is important that they clearly express their job dissatisfaction’s to the facility administrator
D. Such training is required by federal certification standards and sometimes also by state licensure regulations

A

A. They are the staff who most frequently come into contact with residents and family

123
Q

The main role of the Ombudsman is to ____

A. inspect the facility and enforce state licensing law
B. provide legal advice at state expense to residents with legal problems
C. screen applicants for admission to nursing homes to ensure appropriate placement of persons with serious mental illness or mental retardation
D. seek informal resolution of resident problems and complaints

A

D. seek informal resolution of resident problems and complaints

124
Q

Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a dietician?

A. cooking meals
B. ordering food
C. planning meals
D. hiring food service staff

A

C. planning meals

125
Q

If a nurses aide has a habit of coming to work late, an appropriate supervisory response would be to ____

A. suspend the employee without pay
B. discuss the matter with the employee in a private conference
C. reprimand him/her before his/her workmates in the employee’s dining room
D. take no action because the offense is minor

A

B. discuss the matter with the employee in a private conference

126
Q

When a three-compartment sink is used in the food service for the manual washing of pots and pans and other kitchenware, what goes in the second sink?

A. hot water with detergent
B. clean rinse water
C. a chemical sanitizing agent
D. water hot enough for sanitizing

A

B. clean rinse water

127
Q

Which of the following approaches is least likely to be helpful in reducing urinary incontinence among nursing home residents?

A. schedule toileting by staff
B. use of sedative hypnotics
C. more timely response by staff to residents request for toileting assistance
D. conducting activity programs near well marked toilet rooms

A

B. use of sedative hypnotics

128
Q

Transferring of a journal entry to an account in a ledger is called ____

A. journalizing
B. reconciliation
C. posting
D. a trial balance

A

C. posting

129
Q

The type of job interview where the employer seeks to avoid influencing applicants and allows them maximum freedom to ask questions and provide information is called ____

A. close ended
B. panel
C. non-directive
D. patterned

A

C. non-directive

130
Q

A check should generally be issued only when which one of the following is available and properly signed ____

A. purchase order
B. lien
C. warranty
D. general ledger

A

A. purchase order

131
Q

Which of the following is the most prudent approach to pest control?

A. open traps
B. above ground poison bait
C. contracting with a licensed pest control company
D. aerosol sprays applied by staff

A

C. contracting with a licensed pest control company

132
Q

A resident who is competent and alert has requested a CNA to accompany him/her to a care plan meeting. The CNA has been her assigned CNA for seven years. What should you tell the resident?

A. tell the resident that she cannot bring the CNA because the CNA is not a professional member of the team
B. deny the request and inform the resident that she can invite only family members to attend her care plan meeting
C. allow the CNA to accompany the resident and to participate in the discussion
D. permit the CNA to attend the meeting but omit personal information about the resident in the discussion

A

C. allow the CNA to accompany the resident and to participate in the discussion

133
Q

Who pays the tax under the Federal Unemployment Tax Act?

A. employee only
B. employer only (in all but a few states)
C. employer and employee equally in all states
D. employer and employee but at different rates

A

B. employer only (in all but a few states)

134
Q

To insure that pesticides and disinfectants, when used as directed, are effective in the situations listed on the label and will not harm people or the environment, the label should bear a registration number from the:

A. Environment Protection Agency (EPA)
B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C. U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

A. Environment Protection Agency (EPA)

135
Q

Why should an administrator get department heads involved in the budget making process?

A. to remain in compliance with federal certification requirements
B. to obtain more accurate cost estimates and more control over costs
C. to satisfy a generally accepted accounting principle (GAAP).
D. to conserve time in developing a budget

A

B. to obtain more accurate cost estimates and more control over costs

136
Q

According to OSHA rules, all occupational injuries must be recorded if they result in any except which one of the following?

A. one or more days away from work
B. first aid
C. restricted work activity
D. transfer to another job

A

B. first aid

137
Q

Communication is successful when ___

A. messages are in writing
B. there is a face-to-face meeting of sender and receiver
C. messages flow upward as well as downward in the organizational structure
D. the sender and the receiver have a shared understanding of the message

A

D. the sender and the receiver have a shared understanding of the message

138
Q

A project team in a nursing home that follows Total Quality Management (TQM) approaches would be most likely to have which of the following as members?

A. Nurses, a physician, and other professional caregivers
B. The administrator, the personnel director, the financial director, and other top staff
C. Department heads and variety of consultants
D. Representatives of affected departments, residents, and family members

A

D. Representatives of affected departments, residents, and family members

139
Q

Which of the following is the best activity for a resident with MS?

A. attending community-based events such as concerts
B. any of the activities that he formerly enjoyed
C. An activity determined on the basis of an assessment of the residents preferences and his physical and cognitive abilities
D. playing chess, checkers, and other other board games

A

C. An activity determined on the basis of an assessment of the residents preferences and his physical and cognitive abilities

140
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way to improve the functioning of committees?

A. carefully define the duties of the chairman
B. prepare an agenda and send it to members well in advance of the meeting
C. keep and distribute committee minutes
D. keep discussion to a minimum and bring motions to a vote as rapidly as possible

A

D. keep discussion to a minimum and bring motions to a vote as rapidly as possible

141
Q

The most important step in preventing transmission of infectious diseases in a nursing facility is ____

A. comprehensive physical examination of residents at the time of admission and of employees at start of employment
B. timely and thorough hand washing by staff
C. routine culturing of the staff and the physical environment
D. walking around through resident care areas

A

B. timely and thorough hand washing by staff

142
Q

How soon after delivery of mail to the facility by the postal service must the facility deliver residents mail to the residents?

A. immediately
B. within 4 hours
C. within 24 hours
D. within 48 hours

A

C. within 24 hours

143
Q

An employee who is dissatisfied is most likely to do which of these?

A. work fewer hours
B. produce less
C. quit
D. ask for a raise

A

B. produce less

144
Q

A resident repeatedly reports seeing birds flying in his/her room. No one else can see these birds. This resident may be having which one of the following?

A. aspirations
B. alienations
C. hallucinations
D. delusions

A

c. hallucinations

145
Q

Which of the following is not part of correct body mechanics when lifting a resident or other heavy object?

A. bending your back and keeping your knees in a locked position
B. bring the resident or object as close to your body as possible
C. avoid twisting the torso
D. lifting with your legs and pushing with your thigh muscles

A

A. bending your back and keeping your knees in a locked position

146
Q

A resident is admitted on August 25th and is seen by a physician on September 15th. For the facility to be compliance with the federal certification standards, when is the latest date that this resident can next be seen by a physician?

A. October 15
B. October 25
C. November 15
D. November 25

A

B. October 25

147
Q

A meaningful staff development program begins with __

A. selection of the instructor
B. development of a course outline
C. an assessment of employee needs for training
D. selection of a teaching method

A

C. an assessment of employee needs for training

148
Q

The most common cause of fires in nursing homes is

A. build-up of laundry lint
B. kitchen grease spills
C. misuse of smoking materials
D. extension cords

A

C. misuse of smoking materials

149
Q

On a balance sheet, net receivables is calculated by subtracting which of the following from gross accounts receivables?

A. allowance for bad dept
B. depreciation expense
C. aging of accounts receivables
D. notes receivables

A

A. allowance for bad dept

150
Q

When assisting a stroke victim to put on a shirt, a nurses aide encourages the resident to put on by himself the one sleeve he is capable of manipulating, and then offers only minimum assistance with the other sleeve that the resident has difficulty with. In this way, the aide is putting into practice the ideal of ___

A. reality orientation
B. task segmentation
C. remotivation
D. redirection

A

B. task segmentation

151
Q

If a facility takes out a loan which must be paid off in six months, which one of the following pairs of accounts are affected when double entry accounting is done?

A. an increase in cash and a decrease in accounts receivables
B. an increase in owners equity and an increase in long term liabilities
C. an increase in interest expense and a decrease in accounts receivable
D. an increase in cash and an increase in notes payables

A

D. an increase in cash and an increase in notes payables

152
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal recruitment of personnel (versus recruiting from external sources)?

A. the employer will have less knowledge of the strengths and weaknesses of job candidates
B. job candidates will know little about the organization, and therefore their risk of becoming dissatisfied on the job is greater
C. new ideas and innovations are less like to be brought to the organization
D. attracting and evaluating potential employees is more difficult

A

C. new ideas and innovations are less like to be brought to the organization

153
Q

A nursing home is considering the purchase of a new dish-washing machine that cost $6,000 and has a useful life of 10 years (with no salvage value). It is estimated that the machine will reduce annual operating cost by $800 over each of the next years. What would be the payback period?

A. 0.75 years
B. 1.33 years
C. 7.50 years
D. cannot be determined with the provided information

A

C. 7.50 years

154
Q

The OSHA summary of work-related injuries and illnesses must be posted how often?

A. annually
B. quarterly
C. monthly
D. whenever a recordable injury or illness occurs

A

A. annually

155
Q

When should preventative maintenance be done?

A. according to a schedule
B. only when physical inspection of the equipment shows wear and tear,
C. Only for equipment with a long estimated useful life
D. after the first breakdown of an equipment

A

A. according to a schedule

156
Q

Incident reports should be made out for ____

A. only serious injuries to residents and employees
B. all injuries to residents and serious injuries to employees
C. only for those accidents that were caused by negligence or by intent
D. all incidents to residents, employees, and visitors that either resulted in injury or that may have resulted in injury

A

D. all incidents to residents, employees, and visitors that either resulted in injury or that may have resulted in injury

157
Q

Which of the following is not a proper method of thawing frozen food?

A. holding it in a refrigerator
B. directly cooking it
C. immersing it in a basin of cold water (70 degrees or below)
D. microwaving it immediately prior to cooking

A

C. immersing it in a basin of cold water (70 degrees or below)

158
Q

The largest category of expense in the nursing home is?

A. salaries and wages
B. food
C. depreciation
D. insurance

A

A. salaries and wages

159
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding delirium?

A. usually develops rapidly (over a few days or hours)
B. part of the normal again process
C. commonly mistaken for a stage of dementia
D. may be a side effect of many kinds of medications

A

B. part of the normal again process

160
Q

Which of the following statements about laundry is NOT true?

A. storage of clean linen in enclosed carts that are wheeled to resident floors or kept in clean utility rooms helps to protect it against airborne contamination
B. ventilation should flow from the cleanest to the dirtiest areas
C. clean linen should be stored in a manner that will protect it from contamination, such as is a portable covered cart or closed closet used solely for storing linen
D. residents should be encouraged to collect their own linen form linen carts or closets

A

D. residents should be encouraged to collect their own linen form linen carts or closets

161
Q

Which of the following things are lawful for supervisors to communicate to employees during a union organizing drive?

A. threats to discontinue benefits to or demote workers who support the union
B. inquires of the employees on how they will vote in a union election
C. promises of a pay increase to employees if they do not support the union
D. information on the unions dues and strike record

A

D. information on the unions dues and strike record

162
Q

OSHA requires all employees to report within ___ any on the job accident that results in the death of an employee or ____?

A. five working days – the hospitalization of an employee
B. 24 hours – the hospitalization of an employee
C. 8 hours – the hospitalization of three or more employees
D. five working days – the hospitalization of three or more employees

A

C. 8 hours – the hospitalization of three or more employees

163
Q

All except which one of the following are possible advantages of leasing versus purchasing a piece of equipment?

A. tax advantages
B. fixed monthly costs are lower than those required by loans
C. total cost is normally less
D. dept is kept off the balance sheet

A

C. total cost is normally less

164
Q

Workers compensation provides which one of the following?

A. full medical and hospital payments
B. partial medical and hospital payments
C. punitive damages
D. replacement of all lost wages

A

A. full medical and hospital payments

165
Q

The biggest source of revenues for nursing homes is

A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. private-out-of- pocket payments
D. long-term care insurance

A

B. Medicaid

166
Q

OBRA assets some separate committees can be folded into the Quality improvement/assurance committee. Safety, Pharmacy and which committee below can be added into QA/QI committee?

A. Ethics
B. Republican
C. Infection Control
D. Resident/Family Council

A

C. Infection Control

167
Q

Nursing homes are responsible for obtaining and providing dental care for residents. Who usually pays for dental services?

A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. The resident or a family member
D. the facility

A

C. The resident or a family member

168
Q

A facility is not allowed to charge a resident who is Medicaid and Medicare eligible except for ___

A. in house activities
B. laundry services
C. meal services
D. Medicaid co-pay

A

D. Medicaid co-pay

169
Q

You calculate the average percent of occupancy rate by:

A. dividing the total census (occupied bed-days) by the total number of days, divide by the total number of beds, then multiply by 100
B. dividing the average census for the month by total number of beds, then multiply by 100
C. subtract total number of empty beds from the total number of potentially full beds, then divide by 100
D. dividing the daily census by 365 and multiplying by 100

A

A. dividing the total census (occupied bed-days) by the total number of days, divide by the total number of beds, then multiply by 100

170
Q

Residents rights should be explained to the resident and or family member

A. during the admission process
B. within five business days of admission
C. within seven business days of admission
D. prior to admission

A

D. prior to admission

171
Q

In case of emergency, when no attending or back up physician is available, the decision as to who will attend the resident is to be made by the:

A. Director of Nursing
B. Administrator
C. charge nurse
D. family member

A

B. Administrator

172
Q

Federal law states that facilities must retain menus of food actually served for at least:

A. as long as the leftovers hold up
B. 6 months
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

A

C. 30 days

173
Q

A resident with a living will and DPOA specified she wants to receive heroic measures if necessary. Six months later the resident requires CPR, but is not incompetent and the son request CPR be withheld. What is the right thing to do?

A. honor the son’s request
B. ask the resident again about his/her wishes
C. contact the DPOA
D. provide the CPR

A

D. provide the CPR

174
Q

A resident asks to see his chart. The doctor tells the nurse not to allow the resident access to the chart. What do you do?

A. tell the doctor the law gives the resident the right to view medical records
B. negotiate with the doctor on what is objectionable
C. honor the physicians request, because he would not restrict access without a good reason
D. tell the resident to work it out with the physician

A

A. tell the doctor the law gives the resident the right to view medical records

175
Q

Medial records belong to the ___

A. the facility
B. the resident
C. the State
D. the Federal Government

A

A. the facility

176
Q

When a resident passes away, the personal funds deposited with the facility must be given to the residents estate with a final accounting of the funds within ___

A. 72 hours
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 21 days

A

C. 30 days

177
Q

The suffix “algia” refers to

A. pain
B. apathy
C. green sea growth
D. inflammation

A

A. pain

178
Q

Physical restraints must be removed __

A. by a license nurse
B. every two hours
C. every 30 minutes
D. Both A and B

A

B. every two hours

179
Q

Depression is one of many psychological changes related to the aging process. Others include the following except for:

A. fearfulness
B. hearing loss
C. feelings of worthlessness
D. hallucinations

A

B. hearing loss

180
Q

Nosocomial refers to ___

A. nasal occlusions
B. food borne illness
C. infections occurring inside the facility (institutionalized)
D. inherited infections from outside the facility

A

C. infections occurring inside the facility (institutionalized)

181
Q

A capital budget is mostly about:

A. equipment and real estate
B. monthly profit and loss
C. expense budget items like gas and electricity
D. monthly forecast for operational cash

A

A. equipment and real estate

182
Q

Current debts are debts that are:

A. due this month
B. due this quarter
C. due this year
D. due within one year

A

D. due within one year

183
Q

A ledger is a complete listing of:

A. vendor purchases and payment
B. customer financial activity
C. accounts payable and receivable
D. fixed assets and liabilities

A

C. accounts payable and receivable

184
Q

Which resource usually provides the least revenue for a nursing home?

A. Family
B. Medicaid
C. Medicare
D. Insurance

A

D. Insurance

185
Q

Past due accounts should not exceed:

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 7%

A

B. 5%

186
Q

All of the following are a cash expense except:

A. salaries
B. depreciation
C. utilities
D.insurance

A

B. depreciation

187
Q

A pro forma is primarily:

A. a best guess budget
B. a business review
C. a monthly P&L statement
D. a financial statement or prediction

A

D. a financial statement or prediction

188
Q

Speed is a communication barrier because, on average, a person speaks about 180 words per minute, but thinks at:

A. 250 words per minute
B. 300 words per minute
C. 350 words per minute
D. 1500 words per minute

A

B. 300 words per minute

189
Q

To be eligible for FMLA and employee must work

A. through probation
B. 1250 hours in the last 12 months
C. 1000 hours in the last 12 months
D. 625 hours in the last 12 months

A

B. 1250 hours in the last 12 months

190
Q

A function of management is controlling, which means

A. fixing employee mistakes
B. developing policies guidelines
C. taking charge of unruly staff
D. measuring outcomes against benchmarks, then responding

A

D. measuring outcomes against benchmarks, then responding

191
Q

OBRA requires every facility to have

A. equal pay
B. french benefits
C. a governing body
D. group health insurance

A

C. a governing body

192
Q

Management by objectives means:

A. you object to everything being done
B. only tangible results are used in determining effectiveness
C. a system that determines goals and objectives
D. a system that projects the right amount of staff through forecasting

A

C. a system that determines goals and objectives

193
Q

Policies are ___

A. immovable rules set by the governing body
B. designed to meet minimum requirements by OBRA
C. general and flexible statements that guide thinking
D. updated at least every two years

A

C. general and flexible statements that guide thinking

194
Q

Short range goals can be accomplished ___

A. in less than one year
B. with less than a majority of employees
C. by the end of the quarter
D. in less than one month

A

A. in less than one year

195
Q

Policies should be developed by the:

A. governing body
B. department heads
C. administrator and governing body
D. administrator and executive staff

A

D. administrator and executive staff

196
Q

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y discuss individual’s:

A. chromosomes
B. employees attitudes towards work
C. managements attitudes towards work
D. employees attitudes towards management

A

B. employees attitudes towards work

197
Q

Fire safety regulations come primarily from:

A. OSHA
B. CMS
C. LSC
D. ANSI

A

C. LSC

198
Q

The purpose of an enunciation panel is to:

A. reduce noise
B. automatically start emergency lighting
C. indicate the zone of a fire
D. alert staff to an elopement

A

C. indicate the zone of a fire

199
Q

Employees right to know refers to:

A. lock out/tag out
B. labor rights
C. hazardous communications
D. infection control

A

C. hazardous communications

200
Q

The primary fire - defense tools of a nursing home staff are:

A. automatic sprinklers
B. smoke detectors and phones
C. smoke barriers, corridor walls, and resident rooms
D. fire extinguishers

A

C. smoke barriers, corridor walls, and resident rooms

201
Q

Class C fires involce:

A. paper
B. scissors
C. rock
D. electricity

A

D. electricity

202
Q

Chronic renal failure where little or no urine is being produced is called

A. kidney failure
B. ESRD
C. renal deficiency
D. renal stenosis

A

B. ESRD

203
Q

By 2020, ____% of our population will be above 65 years old?

A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%

A

D. 15%