Federal Law Flashcards by Tinos Worksew | Brainscape

Q

Which legislation prohibits adulteration or misbranding of foods and drugs?

A

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

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Q

Which legislation was urged by 107 accidental deaths caused by anti-freeze diethylene glycol poisoning?

A

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) of 1938

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Q

Which legislation requires new drugs to be proven safe when used according to labeled directions?

A

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) of 1938

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Q

Which legislation requires that medications include labels with adequate directions for use?

A

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) of 1938

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Q

Which legislation requires that labels include warnings about habit-forming risk?

A

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) of 1938

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Q

Which drugs available at pharmacies today have not been evaluated for their safety?

A

Those in use before the FDCA of 1938, which have been “grandfathered” in

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Q

Which legislation distinguished legend from non-prescription drugs?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

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Q

Which legislation provided for verbal orders and refills on prescriptions?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

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Q

Which legislation was adopted as a result of public concern about thalidomide?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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Q

Which legislation is also referred to as the Drug Efficacy Amendment?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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Q

Which legislation required new drugs must be EFFECTIVE in addition to being safe?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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Q

Which legislation gave the FDA authority to regulate prescription drug advertisements?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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Q

Which legislation created Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) requirements?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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Q

Which entity regulates OTC advertising?

A

Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

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Q

Which entity regulates legend drug advertising?

A

FDA

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Q

Which legislation provides tax and licensing incentives to manufacturers to develop drugs used to treat rare diseases?

A

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

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Q

What is another name for the Drug Price Competition and Patent-Term Restoration Act?

A

Hatch-Waxman Amendment

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Q

Which legislation provided a streamline approval process for generic drugs with the creation of the Amended New Drug Application (ANDA)?

A

Hatch-Waxman Amendment or Drug Price Competition and Patent-Term Restoration Act

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Q

Which legislation regulated prescription drug sample distribution?

A

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

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Q

Which legislation required federal licensing of wholesalers and prohibited resale of prescription drugs purchased by hospitals?

A

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

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Q

Which legislation expedites the approval of an Amended New Drug Application for serious or life-threatening conditions?

A

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

Which legislation draws the distinction between compounding (to be regulated by states) and manufacturing (federally regulated)?

A

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

Which legislation abbreviated the required “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription” CHANGE to “Rx only”?

A

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

Which legislation eliminated the need for certain substances to be labeled “Warning - May be habit forming”

A

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

Which legislation specifically prohibits manufacturers from disseminating information about unapproved uses for drugs?

A

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

What must a pharmaceutical manufacturer do to obtain an additional six months of market exclusivity on top of regularly approved exclusivities?

According to which legislation?

A

perform a pediatric studies during drug study.

FDA Modernization Act of 1997

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Q

What are the four programs of the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003?

A

Medicare Parts A, B, C, and D

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Q

What does Medicare part A cover?

A

Hospitalization

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Q

What does Medicare part B cover?

A

Physician services

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Q

What does Medicare part C cover?

A

Managed care

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Q

What does Medicare part D cover?

A

Prescription drugs

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Q

What is the primary purpose of the Investigational New Drug Application (IND)?

A

To prove a new drug is safe for human trials

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Q

Which phase during clinical trials is intended to evaluate pharmacokinetics and toxicology of a new drug?

A

Phase I

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Q

Which phase during clinical trials evaluate efficacy, but also to help determine appropriate dosing, risk of ADRs, etc?

A

Phase II

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Q

Which phase during clinical trials are likely to be randomized double-blinded, placebo controlled trials?

A

Phase III

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Q

Under which circumstance may an IND be used to treat a disease?

A

Imminent life threatening stage of an illness for which there is presently no cure, or current drugs are inneffective

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Q

ANDA or SNDA: new indication

A

SNDA

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Q

ANDA or SNDA: new generic

A

ANDA

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Q

Which end of the chemical classification of drugs (type 1 to 6) refers to the most difference from existing drugs?

A

Type 1

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Q

What form a pharmacy should use to apply for DEA registration

A

DEA 224 either online or request paper app

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Q

What form a pharmacy should use to renew pharmacy DEA registration?

A

DEA 224a

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Q

What form can a chain retail pharmacy use to renew DEA registration?

A

DEA 224b

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Q

Registration requirement regarding the sale of SCLP?

A

retails store just have to self-certify, don’t need registration

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Q

Closed door pharmacies?

A

those pharmacies that sell quantities of SLCPs to institutions, including

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Q

What form to use for DEA chemical distributor registration?

A

DEA 510

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Q

What form should the registered reverse distributor who will destroy the controlled substances is responsible for submitting?

A

a DEA Form 41 (Registrants Inventory of Drugs Surrendered) to the DEA when the controlled substances have been destroyed

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Q

Rules for employing a person has been convicted of a felony relating to controlled substances, or who, at any time, has had an application for DEA registration denied, revoked, or surrendered for cause

A

Not allowed to hire them unless applying for a waiver

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Q

What form pharmacy use to notify the DEA of theft, loss?

A

DEA Form 106 Report of Theft or Loss of Controlled Substances

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Q

What form pharmacy use to notify the DEA of breakage and spillage of CS?

A

DEA Form 41 (Registrants Inventory of Drugs Surrendered)

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Q

How long should record for CS should be kept for?

A

for at least two years for inspection and copying by duly authorized DEA officials

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Q

Should pharmacy submit initial and biennial inventory to DEA?

A

No - not required

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Q

Requirement by the DEA on a rx for CS?

A

patient’s full name and address
the practitioner’s full name, address, and DEA registration number,
drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity prescribed, directions for use, # of refills

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Q

Is there a deadline to refill a CS from the day of issuance per fed law?

A

No - it’s only specific to state

Q

What does pharmacist have to record on refills of a CS rx?

A

Dispensing pharmacist initial

- Amt of drugs dispensed on the refill (if different than the full Amt of the rx)

Q

How many times can CIII-V be transferred?

A

Once unless it’s chain stores

Q

Exemption of the Ryan Haight Act for online pharmacies

A

The pharmacy is limited to dispensing new and refilling rx of CIII-V

Q

Which form to use to prescribe and dispense methadone?

A

DEA-363

Q

Limit quantity for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine and phenylpropylamine

A

9 gm per every 30 days

Q

Exception of the log book requirement for ephedrine, pseudoephedrine and phenylpropylamine

A

does not apply to purchase of any individual of a single sale package that contain not more than 60 mg of pseudoephedrine

Q

How many days to report lost/theft of scheduled listed chemical products (SLCP)?

A

15 days

Q

What was the focus of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?

A

Only focused on PURITY – addressed adulteration/misbranding

o Did not address safety
o Therapeutic false claims were not prohibited
o did not require listing of ingredients, directions for use, warnings
o did not regulate cosmetic products/medical devices

Q

What was the focus of the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938?

A

Required drug manufactures to prove SAFETY of a drug via a new drug application before it could be sold

o This was in response to the sulfanilamide disaster
o Pre 1938 drugs were exempt

Required that labels include adequate directions for use/warnings about Habit-Forming drugs that were contained in the product

Applied to foods, drugs, cosmetics, and medical devices

Q

What was the focus of the Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951?

A

Creation of 2 drug categories – OTC and RX

Also required rx drugs to have the words “caution fed. Law prohibits dispensing w/out a rx” on label

Aka the Rx drug amendment

Authorized oral rx and refills of rx drugs

Q

What was the focus of the Kefauver-Harris Act of 1962?

A

Evidence of effectiveness must be provided by the drug manufactures before a drug can be sold
Aka “drug EFFICACY act”
Made retroactive to all drugs b/w 38 and 62
Transferred jurisdiction of rx drug advertising to fda
Established good manufacturing practices (GMP)
Required informed consent of research subjects and reporting of adverse drug rxns

Q

What was the focus of the Controlled Substance Act of 1970?

A

Records for controlled substances must be kept separate from other rx records
You can only do partial fill for C2 drugs if the remainder can be filled w/in 72hrs
If partial was given by remainder cannot be filled w/in 72 hrs, prescriber must be notified
Schedule 3-5 can be transferred to another pharmacy only 1 time (unless pharmacies that share real-time online database)

Q

What did the Poison Prevention Packaging act of 1970 change in the way we dispense drugs

A

Required child-resistant packaging (exceptions → nitroglycerin SL tabs)
Must use packaging that is significantly difficult for children under 5 yo to open and not difficult for normal adults to open
Goal: protect children from serious injury or illness from handling/using/ingesting medications and certain household substances

Q

What did the Rx Drug Marketing Act of 1987 say?

A

You cannot sell, trade, or buy drug samples

Q

What is the Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA ’90)

A

Required DURs and pharmaceutical care (counseling etc) for MEDICAID PATIENTS

offer to counsel became standard of practice after this to be sure that every patient obtains the same level of service although OBRA 90 only covers medicaid patients

Q

What did the FDA Modernization Act of 1997 change about rx labeling

A

Allowed the statement “caution federal law prohibits dispensing w/out a prescription” to “rx only”

Q

What is the orphan drug act of 1983

A

Provides tax/exclusive licensing incentives to manufactures who develop and market drugs/biologics for the tx of rare dz and conditions
o Defined as affecting

Q

What is the medical device amendment of 1976

A

Classified devices according to function
Premarket approval
Established performance standards and conformed with GMP
Adherence to record and reporting requirements

Q

What was the medicare modernization act of 2003

A

Introduced part D

Q

what year/act established adulteration requirements

A

purity act of 1906

AKA.
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

Q

what year/act established misbranding requirements

A

purity act of 1906

AKA
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

Q

what year/act established safety requirements

A

FDCA 1938

Q

what year/act established efficacy requirements

A

Kefauver-Harris Act of 1962

Q

what was the drug price competition and patent term restoration act of 1984

A

waxman-hatch amendment

sped up the generic development and incentivized her drug development

Q

what did the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 establish

A

dietary supplies are more like food than drugs

they can make claims

Q

what is a class 1 recall

A

there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to the recalled product will cause SERIOUS ADVERSE health consequences up to and including death

Q

what is a class 2 recall

A

there is a possibility that the use of or exposure to the recalled product could cause TEMPORARY or MEDICALLY REVERSEBAL adverse health consequences

Q

what is a class 3 recall

A

the recalled product is UNLIKELY to case adverse health consequences

Q

T/F - schedule 1 controlled substances can be dispensed pursuant to a valid, hand-signed prescription

A

F - have no accepted medical use and cannot be prescribed, the only place a schedule 1 controlled substances can be legally utilized is in the legit research lab registered w/ and authorized by the DEA to use schedule 1 controlled sub

Q

T/F - schedule 2 controlled substance records can be stored in the same file as other rx medications

A

F - they must be stored separate from all other rx records

Q

how frequently must inventory of controlled substances be taken

A

at least every 2 years

Q

when taking inventory of controlled substances, do you account for drug samples

A

yes

Q

when a schedule 2 controlled substance is sent to a reverse distributor d/t expiration, damage, or otherwise unuseable, what form should be used and who is responsible for filling out the form

A

DEA 222

the reverse distributor

Q

when schedule 3-5 controlled substances are returned, is a DEA 222 form used?

A

no, C3-5 may be transferred using only an invoice (DEA 222 forms are for Schedule 1 and 2 drugs only)

Q

in accordance to fed law, how long are pharmacies required to keep controlled substance records (return records, rx records, and inventory records)

A

2 years

Q

T/F - fed law prohibits e-scribing of C2 drugs

A

F - C2-5 controlled substances may be escribed as long as the prescriber and pharmacy use escribe software that meeds DEA requirements

Q

according to federal law, C2 rx must be filled within how many days after being signed by the prescriber

A

there is no time limit regarding C2 rxs according to federal law, the prescription is considered valid for an unlimited period of time after it is issued

exception: LTC facilities or terminal illness - only valid for 60 days

Q

what is the law that limits the amount of benzos/opioids dispensed to 30 day supply

A

the Addison Sharp Prescription Regulatory act of 2013

Q

when is an individual required to show their ID to pick up a controlled substance rx

A

C2-5 opioids, benzos, barbituates, zolpedim or carsiprodol

exceptions: if the dispenser knows the individual
if the individual does not have an ID bc he/she is homeless

Q

when are verbal C2 orders allowed and what are the restrictions

A

only in emergency situations, quantity must be limited to the amount adequate to treat the nation for the duration of the EMERGENCY PERIOD (NOT up to 72 hr supply)

the prescriber must provide the pharmacy with a written/signed hard copy within 7 days (according to federal law)

Q

what are the 3 exceptions for allowance of C2 facsimile rx to serve as the original rx

A

rx is being COMPOUNDED for HOME INFUSION (IV, SQ, IM, intraspinal)
rx is for a pt in LTCF
rx is for a patient enrolled in HOSPICE

Q

can a prescriber post date a prescription for a controlled substance (i.e. date it for 8/15 when it was written 7/15)

A

no- the day the rx was signed must be the date written, this does not mean that they cannot write >1 rx for the same drug all dated on the day written and in the instructions post date the fill on or after date

Q

can a controlled substance be delivered/shipped to an individual in another country if it is dipensed pursuant to a valid rx?

A

NO exportation of a controlled substance is prohibited by the federal controlled substance act

Q

if a prescriber whats to prescribe a C3-5 controlled substance for treatment of a narcotic addiction (i.e. buprenorphine), they must display what on the face of the rx

A

their unique DEA reg. id number that begins with an X (this indicates that the prescriber has revived a waver from the DEA) their standard DEA number must also be on the rx

Q

what should be done in the event of theft of loss of a controlled substance

A

notify the DEA IMMEDIATELY of theft/loss and complete the DEA 106 form to document the theft/loss

Q

according to federal law, can any controlled substances be sold to patients without and rx

A

yes, limited quantities of schedule V controls (i.e. in a 48hr period up to 240mL or 48 dosage units of an opium-containing product OR 120 mL or 24 dosage units of other schedule 5 controlled substances)

must be dispensed by the pharmacist to an individual 18 years or older

RPh must log each sale in a record book (including name/address of purchaser, name/quantity of controlled substance purchased, date of purchase, name/initials of pharmacist dispensing the substance) this should be kept for 2 years and if the customer is not known by the pharmacist, the patient must present their ID

Q

schedule 5 controlled substances number of refills allowed

A

as many as indicated on the rx

Q

schedule 3-4 controlled substances how many refills are allowed

A

no more than 5 within 6 months

Q

what is DEA form 224 used for

A

applying for pharmacy DEA registration

Q

how frequently does a pharmacy’s DEA registration need to be renewed

A

q 3 years

Q

if you make an error on a DEA 222 from what needs to happen

A

must start over on a new form and that form must be voided and retained in your records

Q

what do you do with each page of the DEA 222 form and what color are they

A

first page (original) - brown - give to supplier first two pages to supplier without separating the forms - supplier must keep the original
second page - green - given to supplier as noted above, the supplier will give this copy to the DEA
third page - blue - pharmacy must retain this form

all forms must be retained x 2 years

Q

what is DEA 222a used for

A

ordering more DEA 222 forms

Q

what is the DEA 106 form used for

A

reporting loss/theft of a controlled substance

Q

what is DEA 104 used for

A

closing a pharmacy/surrendering pharmacy permit

Q

what is the DEA form 41 used for

A

reporting the destruction of controlled substances

Q

professionals with prescribing authority (9)

A

Doctor of Med (MD)
Doctor of Osteopathic Med (DO)
Doctor of Dental Med (DMD)
Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS)
Doctor of Optometry (OD)
Doctor of Pediatric Medicine (DPM)
Doctor of Vet. Med (DVM)
Physician assistant (PA)
Nurse Practitioner (NP)

**cannot prescribe meds to treat conditions outside of their scope of practice.

note - some states my authorize prescription authority for the rhealthcase professionals (e.g. certified nurse-midwives)

Q

How do you ensure the prescribers DEA number is valid

A

first letter: type of practitioner or registrant
A, B, F - physicians, dentists, vets, hospitals, pharmacies
M - midlevel practitioners
P, R - drug distributors
X - prescribe subutex/suboxone outside of narcotic tx program

second letter: same as the first letter of the prescribers last name or first letter in the name of the place of business

part 1 - add the 2nd, 4th, 6th numbers and multiply by 2 to get X

Part 2 - add the 1st, 3rd, and 5th numbers to get Y

Part 3 - X+Y = Z

Part 4 - Z will be a two digit number, the second digit of that number should match the last digit of the DEA number

Q

when was HIPPA established

A

1996

Q

what happens if an individual’s PHI is breached

A

the individual must be notified by the person or entity holding the information of the exposure HIPPA BREACH NOTIFICATION RULE

Q

when does Minimum necessary use and disclosure of PHI not allpy

A

disclosure to healthcare provider for tx

discloser to patient upon requires

discloser if authorized by patient

if necessary to comply with other laws

to the dept of health and human services for compliance investigation, review, or enforcement

Q

vioxx is taken off the market due to safety issues, can it be legally compounded

A

no, the FDA bans the compounding of a drug that is unsafe or ineffective

Q

what is one major issue with compounding bio-identical hormone products

A

bio-identical hormone formulations contain estradiol, estrone, estriol, progesterone and testosterone. ESTRIOL is not an FDA approved drug so compounding with estriol is illegal

Q

manufacturers of bulk products used in compounding must be registered with

A

the FDA

Q

a drug that is compounded cannot be a copy of

A

a commercially available product

Q

T/F - a pharmacy can advertise compounding of a type of drug

A

False - you would need to be registered as a manufacturer to advertise in that manner. a pharmacy cannot promote the compounding of any specific drug, drug class, or type of drug

Q

you compound a drug without a prescription, is that okay

A

no, this would be considered manufacturing. when compounding you need to be compounding for a specific prescription

Q

what are the packaging requirements for solid oral dosage forms of pseudoephedrine

A

must be packaged and sold in blister packs, pseudo ephedrine can NEVER be sold as loose tabs/caps

Q

what is the daily pseudoephedrine

A

3.6 g/day

Q

monthly (30 day) sales of pseudoephedrine are limited to what amount FEDERALLY

A

9 grams

Q

what information must be logged when purchasing pseudoephedrine

A

product name
quantity sold
name/address of purchaser
date and time of sale
signature of purchaser

Q

according to federal law, pseudoephedrine sale records must be kept for how long

A

2 years

Q

butyl nitrite

A

C7

Q

tetrahydrocannabinols

A

C6

Q

marijuana

A

C6

Q

list of Mid-level practitioners (7)

A

nurse practitioner, 
nurse midwife, 
nurse anesthetists, 
clinical nurse specialists,
physician assistants, 
optometrists
homeopathic physicians.

Q

Definition of Drug

A

Part A - Article recognized in the official US Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF) or the official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplements of these references.

Part B - Article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or other animals.

Part C - Article (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals.

Part D - Article intended for use as a component of any articles specified in the above but not including devices or their components, parts, or accessories.