Federal Jurisdiction Flashcards

1
Q

Two-step analysis for personal jurisdiction

A

1) satisfy a statute

2) satisfy the Constitution

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2
Q

Statutory analysis for personal jurisdiction

A

All you have to do on the bar exam is mention the need to meet a statute.

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3
Q

Constitutional analysis for personal jurisdiction

A

Does the defendant have such minimum contacts with the forum so that jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.

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4
Q

Cases where a court always has personal jurisdiction

A

If defendant is domiciled in the forum or consents, or is present in the forum when served with process.

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5
Q

Three factors to find personal jurisdiction

A

1) contact
2) relatedness
3) fairness

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6
Q

Contact

A

Contact to forum state must result from:

purposeful of availment and

must be foreseeable (meaning that defendant could foresee getting sued in the forum).

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7
Q

Relatedness

A

Does the plaintiff’s claim arise from the defendant’s contact with the forum?

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8
Q

Specific personal jurisdiction

A

Where the claim is related to defendant’s contact with the forum.

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9
Q

General personal jurisdiction

A

To have general personal jurisdiction defendant must have continuous and systematic ties with the forum so the defendant is essentially at home in the forum.

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10
Q

What does essentially at home mean

A

For a person it is where the person is domiciled.

For a business it is where formed and its principal place of business. (physical presence required).

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11
Q

Personal jurisdiction fairness factors

A

1) convenience-forum is acceptable unless it puts defendant at a severe disadvantage in the litigation which is almost impossible to prove
2) state’s interest
3) plaintiff’s interest

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12
Q

Requirements for diversity of citizenship cases

A

1) case is either between citizens of different states or between a citizen of a state and a citizen of a foreign country and
2) The amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

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13
Q

Complete diversity rule

A

No diversity if any plaintiff is a citizen of the same state as any defendant.

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14
Q

Determining citizenship

A

A person is is a citizen of the state she is domiciled in.

A corporation is a citizen where incorporated and the one state where the corporation has its principal place of business.

For unincorporated associations use the citizenship of all members.

For decadents, minors, or incompetents use their citizenship.

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15
Q

Domiciliary

A

A person is domiciled in the state that she is physically present in and the state she has an intent to make her permanent home.

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16
Q

Principal place of business

A

Where managers direct, control, and coordinate corporate activities.

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17
Q

Amount in controversy requirement

A

Must exceed $75,000 and whatever the plaintiff claims in good faith is okay unless it is clear to a legal certainty that she cannot recover more than $75,000.

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18
Q

Aggregation of claims

A

You can aggregate the plaintiff’s claims if it is one plaintiff and one defendant.

For joint tortfeasor’s use the total value of the claim.

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19
Q

Equitable relief and diversity

A

To establish diversity, even if asking for equitable relief if you prove either:

Plaintiff’s property would decrease by more than $75,000

Would cost defendant more than $75,000 to comply with the injunction.

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20
Q

Federal question jurisdiction

A

Complaint must show a right or interest founded substantially on a federal law.

Claim must arise under federal law.

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21
Q

Well pleaded complaint rule

A

To meet this rule ask if the plaintiff is enforcing a federal right.

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22
Q

Supplemental jurisdiction limitation

A

A non-federal, non-diversity claim can be heard in federal court if it meets the test for supplemental jurisdiction test unless

A) it is asserted by a plaintiff

B) in a diversity of citizenship case and

C) is against a citizen of the same state as the plaintiff

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23
Q

Supplemental jurisdiction test

A

The supplemental claim can come into federal court if it shares a common nucleus of operative fact with the claim that invokes federal subject matter jurisdiction.

The test is always met by claims that arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the federal subject matter jurisdiction claim.

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24
Q

Removal

A

A defendant can remove a case filed in state court to federal court within 30 days after service of the first paper that gives the federal court subject matter jurisdiction.

If more than one defendant all defendants must agree to remove.

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25
Q

Exceptions to removal

A

Only apply in diversity cases.

No removal if any defendant is a citizen of the forum court and

No removal more than one year after the case was filed in state court.

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26
Q

Where can a defendant remove a case to

A

A defendant can remove the case to the federal district embracing the state court where it was filed.

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27
Q

The Erie doctrine

A

A federal court sitting in diversity must always apply state substantive law.

If there is a federal law on point that directly conflicts with state law apply the federal law as long as it is valid.

if there is no federal law on point look for elements of a claim or defense, statute of limitations, rules for tolling statute of limitations, and conflict of law rules because they are substantive.

If there is no federal law and it is not one of the other kinds ask if it is outcome determinative, balance the interests of the state and federal government, and avoid forum shopping.

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28
Q

How to determine if a federal law is valid

A

Federal law is valid as long as it is arguably procedural. No rule has been stricken.

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29
Q

Venue

A

A plaintiff may lay venue in any district where all defendants reside or a substantial part of the claim arose.

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30
Q

Where do defendants reside

A

A human resides in the district where he or she is domiciled.

A business resides in all districts where they are subject to personal jurisdiction for the case at hand.

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31
Q

Transfer of venue

A

The Federal District Court may transfer to a proper venue that has personal jurisdiction over the defendant in all cases.

Court can transfer to any district at all if the parties consent and it finds cause for the relief.

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32
Q

Transfer when original venue is proper

A

Court has discretion to transfer to another district based on convenience for the parties and witnesses in the interest of justice.

Weigh public and private factors to determine that the other court is the center of gravity.

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33
Q

When venue is improper

A

Court may transfer in the interest of justice or dismiss the case.

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34
Q

Forum non conveniens

A

Where venue would be proper in a foreign country the court may dismiss or stay the case unless the foreign court proceeding is not adequate (a fair hearing is not provided).

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35
Q

Process

A

Includes a summons and a copy of the complaint.

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36
Q

Requirement of process

A

In any suit must provide defendant with service of process

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37
Q

Who can serve process

A

Any nonparty who is at least 18 years old.

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38
Q

How is process served

A

Can personally served defendant anywhere.

Service is proper if it is left at defendants usual abode and served upon someone of suitable age and discretion who resides there.

39
Q

Other methods for service of process

A

Process can be delivered to defendant’s agent if within the scope of agency.

Process can be accomplished by any method of service permitted by state law of the state where the federal court sits or where service is effected.

40
Q

Rule 11

A

Requires a attorney to sign all pleadings, written motions and papers.

41
Q

Effects of rule 11

A

You certify that to the best of your knowledge and belief, after reasonable inquiry:

A) paper is not for improper purpose

B) legal contentions are warranted by law

C) factual contentions and denials of factual contentions have evidentiary support.

42
Q

Can a party move for rule 11 sanctions

A

No not until it has giving you notice and allowed you 21 days to fix the problem

43
Q

Requirements of a complaint

A

A) statement of grounds of subject matter jurisdiction

B) short and plain statement of the claim, showing entitled to relief

C) demand for relief sought

44
Q

Cases requiring pleading with even more detail

A

Fraud, mistake, and special damages

45
Q

Defendant’s response to complaint

A

Rule 12 requires defendant to respond by motion or by answer within 21 days after service of process.

46
Q

Rule 12 B defenses

A

Lack of subject matter jurisdiction

Lack of personal jurisdiction

Improper venue

Insufficiency of process

Insufficient service of process

Failure to state a claim

Failure to join indispensable party

47
Q

Waivable 12 B defenses

A

Lack of personal jurisdiction, improper venue, insufficiency of process, and insufficient service of process are we mobile.

Waivable defenses must be put in the first rule 12B response or else they are waived.

48
Q

What must an answer contain

A

Must either admit, deny, or state that you lack sufficient information to admit or deny.

Must raise any affirmative defenses.

49
Q

Counterclaim

A

A claim against an opposing party.

50
Q

Compulsory counterclaim

A

A counterclaim that arises from the same transaction or occurrence as a plaintiff’s claim must be filed in the pending case or it is waived.

51
Q

Permissive counterclaim

A

Does not arise from the same transaction or occurrence as plaintiff’s claim and may be filed with your answer or you can asserted in a separate case.

52
Q

Cross-claim

A

A claim against a co-party.

Must arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the underlying action.

It is permissive so you do not have to file it in this case.

53
Q

Plaintiff’s right to amend

A

Plaintiff has a right to amend once within 21 days after defendant serves her first rule 12 response.

54
Q

Defendant’s right to amend

A

Defendant has a right to amend wants within 21 days of serving his answer

55
Q

If no right to amend

A

If there is no right to amend seek leave of court and it will be granted if justice so requires after considering delay, prejudice and futility of the amendment.

56
Q

Variance

A

When the evidence at trial does not match what was pleaded the court will allow plaintiffs to amend the complaint to conform to the evidence.

57
Q

Relation back

A

Amended pleadings relate back if they concern the same conduct, transaction or occurrence as the original pleading to the date the original pleading was filed.

58
Q

Depositions

A

Can depose nonparties or parties. Nonparty should be subpoenaed however or she’s not compelled to attend.

59
Q

Required disclosures

A

Must identify persons, electronically stored info and documents that are likely to have discoverable information that the disclosing party may use to support its claims or defenses.

Must identify experts who may be used at trial.

No later than 30 days before trial must give detailed information about trial evidence.

60
Q

Interrogatories

A

Questions propounded in writing to another party to be answered in writing under oath.

Must respond with answers or objections within 30 days.

61
Q

Request to produce

A

Request to another party or to nonparty if accompanied by subpoena requesting that she make available for review and copying various documents or things including electronically stored info or permit entry upon designated property for inspection, measuring, etc.

62
Q

Physical or mental examination

A

Only available through court order on showing that party’s health is in actual controversy and good cause.

63
Q

Request for admission

A

A request by one party to another party to admit the truth of any discoverable matters.

64
Q

What can be discovered

A

Anything relevant to a claim or defense.

Relevant things include those that are reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.

65
Q

Work product

A

Work product materials are generally not discoverable unless they are a witnesses statement and the party can show substantial need and that the statement is not otherwise available.

66
Q

Partial violation of discovery rules

A

Receiving party answers some questions and objects to other questions.

67
Q

Total violation of discovery rules

A

Receiving party fails completely to attend deposition, respond to interrogatories or to respond to requests for production.

68
Q

Sanctions for partial violations

A

A) can move for an order compelling the party to answer the unanswered questions

B) if the party violates the order compelling him to answer you can move for sanctions plus costs

69
Q

Sanctions for total violations

A

Can get sanctions plus cost immediately.

70
Q

Permissive joinder of parties

A

A party may be joined if:

A) claim arises from the same transaction or occurrence and

B) raise at least one common question.

71
Q

Who is a necessary party

A

A) without A, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties

B) A’s interest may be harmed if he isn’t joined

C) A claims an interest which subjects a party to a risk of multiple obligations

72
Q

Test for indispensable parties

A

A) a necessary party

B) that can be joined

73
Q

Test for who can be joined

A

Court must have personal jurisdiction over the joint party and joining the party will not make it impossible to maintain diversity.

74
Q

If a necessary party cannot be joined

A

The court can decide to either proceed without necessary party or dismiss the case.

Looks at these factors: is there an alternative form available, what is the actual likelihood of prejudice, and the court shape relief to avoid the prejudice.

75
Q

Impleader

A

A defending party wants to bring in a new third-party defendant because the third-party defendant may owe indemnity or contribution to the defending party on the underlying claim.

76
Q

Right to Impleader

A

There’s a right to implead within 14 days of serving answer after that you need approval from the court.

77
Q

Intervention

A

Absentee wants to join a pending suit and may choose to do so as either a plaintiff or as a defendant because either her interest maybe harmed if she is not joined or her claim and the pending case have at least one common question.

78
Q

Requirements for a class action

A

A) too many class members for practicable joinder

B) some question of law or fact in common to class

C) representative’s claims/defenses typical of those of the class

D) class representative will fairly and adequately represent class

79
Q

Three types of class actions

A

A) necessary to avoid harm either to class members or to the nonclass party

B) injunction or declaratory judgment sought because class was treated alike by other party

C) common questions predominate over individual questions and class action is a superior method to handle the dispute.

80
Q

Certifying the class

A

Court must determine at an early practicable time whether to certify the case to proceed as a class action.

If the court certifies the class it must define the class and the class claims, issues, or defenses.

81
Q

Notification to class members

A

In type III class actions the court must notify class members that they are in a class, that they can opt out, that they will be bound if they do not opt out, and they can enter a separate appearance through counsel.

82
Q

Citizenship in class actions

A

For citizenship consider only the representative of the class’s citizenship.

83
Q

Failure to state a claim

A

Court ignores legal conclusions and looks at allegations of facts and asks if the facts were true would the plaintiff win a judgment.

Court cannot look at any evidence.

84
Q

Summary judgment

A

Must show no genuine dispute on a material fact and that you are entitled to a judgment as a matter of law.

Firsthand knowledge evidence is admissible for summary judgment.

85
Q

Right to a jury trial in federal court

A

The seventh amendment preserves the right to a jury trial in civil actions at law but not in suits at equity.

Must demand a jury trial in writing no later than 14 days after service of the last pleading raising jury triable issue.

86
Q

Motion for judgment as a matter of law

A

Exceptional order the effect of which is to take the case away from the jury.

Can only be brought after the other side has been heard at trial.

Standard for granting the motion is whether reasonable people could not disagree on the results.

87
Q

Renewed motion for a judgment as a matter of law

A

Same standard applies as motion for judgment as a matter of law.

Must have made a motion for judgment as a matter of law before the trial went to jury for the court to grant this motion.

88
Q

Motion for a new trial

A

Something happened that makes the judge think that the parties should start over and retry the case.

Must move for a new trial within 28 days after the judgment.

89
Q

Final judgment rule

A

Can appeal only from final judgment which means an ultimate decision by the trial court of the merits of the entire case.

File notice of appeal in trial court within 30 days after entry of final judgment.

90
Q

Requirements of claim preclusion

A

Case one and case two were brought by the same claimant against the same defendant.

Case one ended in a valid final judgment on the merits.

Case one and case to asserted the same claims.

91
Q

What constitutes the same claim for claim preclusion

A

Majority rule is that a claim is any right to relief arising from a transaction or occurrence.

A minority view says there are separate claims for property damage and for personal injuries.

92
Q

Requirements of Issue preclusion

A

Case one ended in a valid final judgment on the merits

Same issue was actually litigated and determined in case one

Issue was essential to the judgment in case one

Issue is brought against somebody who was a party to the action

Under the traditional rule must be brought against a person who is a party to case one. Under the new modern trend will allow the issueto be precluded even if not a party to case 1 if it is not unfair.

93
Q

Factors to determine if issue preclusion fair

A

A full and fair opportunity to litigate in case one

Ability to foresee multiple suits

Person asserting preclusion could not have been joined easily in case number one

No inconsistent judgments about this issue