Federal and Illinois Law for MPJE Flashcards

1
Q

Controlled Substances Act of 1970

A
  1. Gave FDA authority to determine the scheduling of controlled substances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Controlled Substances Closed System of Distribution

A

Access to controlled substances are restricted through REGISTRATION and SCHEDULING.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Registration of Controlled substances

A

All who come in contact with controlled substances must be registered (or employed by a registered entity) except the PATIENT who has a LEGITIMATE medical needed for medication and accesses it through a VALID RX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Scheduling of Controlled Substances

A

Substances that have the potential for abuse or can cause addiction are scheduled into one of 5 schedules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens if a patient no longer needs the controlled substance medication? Can they return it to the pharmacy?

A

NO! It has LEFT the closed distribution network when it was dispensed to the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the exceptions that allow a controlled substance to be returned to the pharmacy?

A
  1. When there has been a dispensing error
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is permitted to be an authorized collector of controlled substances? Who Isn’t?

A

Is: Manufacturers; distributors; reverse distributors; narcotic treatment programs; hospitals/clinics with and onsite pharmacy; and retailed pharmacies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If they are only registered to handle controlled substance schedules III-V; are they allowed to be an authorized collector of CS?

A

NO a registrant but also be registered to handle CII CS to qualify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can an authorized collector take back CS?

A
  1. Maintaining collection receptacles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can a patient or authorized collector destroy CS?

A

The regulations do not require a particular method of destruction. Only that the CS but be rendered “non-retrievable”. This allows for a variety of destruction methods as long as they are secure; convenient; responsible; and consistent with preventing diversion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does “non-retreivable” mean?

A

Permanently altered CS physical or chemical condition or state through irreversible means and thereby renders the CS unavailable or unusable for all practical purposes. Basically; when there is no way it can be transformed back into the CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can law enforcement agencies take back CS?

A

Yes. No DEA registration is required for law enforcement agencies either.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is a patient required to bring back their CS to an authorized collector?

A

Nope. A patient is permitted to destroy the substance themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most important CS registration categories for the MPJE

A
  1. Manufacterer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dispenser registration for CS

A

Applies to physicians or a mid-level practitioners as there is no such thing as a “prescriber” registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can IL and Federal registration be limited by schedule? Class?

A

Yes. A practitioner can have a DEA registration for only CIII-CV CS. It can also be limited to drug class (narcotic vs non-narcotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Application for CS is divided into the following categories

A
  1. II Narcotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Under Federal Law what is a Narcotic

A
  1. Opium; opiates; derivatives of opium/opiates. (does not include isoquinoline alkaloids of opium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does Illinois Law define a Narcotic?

A

The exact same way as federal Law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Owner; when applying for DEA CS registration; is defined as

A
  1. The “sole proprietor”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Power of Attorney when applying for DEA CS registration; is defined as

A
  1. A registrant may authorize one or more individuals; whether located as the registered location or not; to issue orders for schedule I and II CS on a DEA form 222;* on the registrants behalf by executing a POA for such individual.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who must execute a Power of Attorney?

A

Must be executed by the person who signed the most recent application for DEA registration (or re-registration); the person to whom the POA is being granted to; and TWO WITNESSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who can be given Power of Attorney?

A

ANYONE including pharmacists; non-pharmacist owners; technicians; pharmacy interns; and even unlicensed persons. It is PREFERRABLE that only the pharmacist handle CS ordered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pharmacies must register with the DEA under which registration? Do individual pharmacists need to register as well?

A

a Dispenser of CS. One registration covers all CII-CV substances. Employee pharmacists do not need to obtain a second registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DEA form 224/224a

A

224: initial registration as dispenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How often do federal DEA registration’s for dispensers expire?

A

Renewal is required every three year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can one dispenser registration cover multiple pharmacies owned by one person or entity?

A

No a separate registration is needed for each pharmacy owned or operated by the same entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Does the POA need to be a pharmacist?

A

No. However; under state (IL) law; the ordering; securing; and dispensing of CS is the responsibility of the PIC; regardless of whether the PIC is the registrant; and regardless of whether the PIC has POA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does granting some POA do?

A

It allows then to execute federal order forms to obtain schedule II CS. (DEA FORM 222)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How are Hospital registrations different?

A

Hospitals register “institutional practitioners” which allows employee practitioners; nurses; and pharmacists the authority to possess; prescribe; dispense; and administer CS. It also allows CS to be stored anywhere in the registered location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is a separate registration required for the hospital pharmacy?

A

NOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is an institutional practitioner registration also available to clinics?

A

Yes as long as they are licensed under state law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When would you need multiple registrations?

A
  1. Location: registration required for each site with a different street address.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When must a pharmacy register as a distributor?

A
  1. It participates in joint buying activites and is the location in which drugs are stored and shipped to other pharmacies..
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When must a pharmacy register as a manufacturer?

A
  1. It purchases CS for purposes of repacking for sale within a pharmacy w/o a Rx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When must a pharmacy register as a detox compounder?

A
  1. compounds CS for sale or distribution at NTP for purposes of addiction tx. (NTP must also be registered wit DEA).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DEA form 225/225a

A

Manufacturers; wholesalers; importers; exporters; and researchers register with DEA form 225 and renew with 225a (every 3 years).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When can the DEA deny an application?

A
  1. Falsified info in application
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When can the DEA revoke an application?

A
  1. Same reasons as it can deny the application and
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Does IL require a separate CS registration through the state of IL?

A

YES; separate registration required for dea; state of IL; and the pharmacy or practitioners state professional license. Need all three in order to dispense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Requirements for IL CS registration

A
  1. Proof of federal registration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does IL CS registration expire?

A

Registration expires on date certificate holders pharmacy license expires (march 31 of even years).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Does the practitioner’s state registration have to appear on a prescription?

A

NO just the DEA number; but they (and the pharmacy) must possess both registrations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DEA Registration number

A

series of two letters followed by seven numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DEA Registration: A/B/F/G

A

Hospital/Clinic/Practitioner/Teaching Institution/Pharmacy (G has been added for department of defense practitioners)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DEA registration: M

A

Mid-Level practitioners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DEA registration: L

A

Reverse distributors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

DEA registration: P/R

A

Manufacterer/distributor/researcher/analytical lab/importer/exporter/reverse distributor/narcotic treatment program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DEA registration: X

A

Practitioner in the treatment of addictions on an outpatient basis. This is issued and used IN ADDITION TO the A; B; F; or G DEA number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you verify a DEA number?

A

• add the 1st; 3rd and 5th number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Schedule I definition

A

High potential for abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Schedule I examples of drugs

A

Heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Schedule II definition

A

High potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Schedule II; examples of drugs?

A

Narcotic Analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Schedule III definition

A

Potential for abuse less than substances in schedules I or II and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Schedule III examples of drugs

A

Anabolic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Schedule IV definition

A

Low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III. May lead to only a limited physical or psychological dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Schedule IV examples of drugs

A

Anxiolytics; sedatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Schedule V definition

A

Low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in schedule IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Examples of Schedule V drugs

A

products containing not more than 10 mg of codeine per 100mL or per 100grams are considered CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

General rules for scheduling drugs

A

Short acting and/or quickly absorbed products are more prone to abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the entry point for newly scheduled controlled drugs?

A

CIV; but in reality drugs are placed in permanent schedule by the time it is approved for marketing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Can CV CS be dispensed with out a prescription?

A

IL and federal permit a pharmacy to sell certain CV without a prescription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How much CV CS can you buy without a Rx according to federal law?

A

up to 4 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Illinois Law on dispensing CV codeine products without Rx

A

No more than 120 mL or 120 grams of a CV which contained codeine; dihydrocodeine; or any salts thereof in any 96 hour period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Age requirement

A

IL: 21 y.o. + 2 forms of ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Time limitation

A

IL: 96 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Records

A

IL: Signature of purchaser; certification of no purchases w/in 96 hours; time of sale; and signature of RPh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Reporting

A

IL: maintain records for 2 years and send copy of IDPR by 15th of next month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Possession limits

A

IL: no more than 4.5 L per drug product plus amount of products needed for dispensing during busiest week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

IL vs Federal CV Exempt Products: Refills if Rx

A

IL: Max of 5 refills or 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In IL who can sell an except CV product?

A

only a pharmacist. they must complete the log book and verify the age of the seller; etc. Anyone can ring up the sale though once this transaction is complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In IL ephedrine (EPH) and pseudoephedrine (PSE) are scheduled?

A

CV CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

convenience packages of ephedrine are defined as what quantity

A

360 mg or less of EPH or PSE in liquid or liquid-filled capsule form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where can convenience packages be sold?

A

May be sold by non-pharmacy retailers as long as the requirements of the law are met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are targeted packages?

A

Any package; including convenience packages; containing ANY amount of a methamphenatime precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What if a patient has a valid Rx for a EPH or PSE?

A

Valid prescription is exempt from these limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Sale Limits on EPH or PSE

A
  1. No more than 7500 mg of EPH or PSE in a 30 d period (and pharmacy/employees cannot dispense more than this in a 30d period to any single person)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Sale restrictions of EPH and PSE

A
  1. Considered CV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

ID requirement of EPH and PSE

A
  1. Must provide drivers license or government issued ID showing purchasers name; DOB; and photograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Recordkeeping requirements of EPH and PSE

A

Purchasers must sign an log including their name; address; date and time of transaction; brand; product name; and quantity of PSE/EPH distributed. To be kept for not less than 2 years for retail distributors and 4 years for pharmacies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Product placement for PSE and EPH

A
  1. Must be behind pharmacy counter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Not more than 1.8 g of codeine per 100 mL or not more than 90 mg per dosage unit with:

A

CIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Not more than 300 mg of ethylmorphine per 100 mL or not more than 15 mg per dosage unit with

A

Schedule III:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Not more than 500 mg of opium per 100 mL or per 100 g or not more than 25 mg per dosage unit with:

A

Schedule III:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Not more than 50 mg of morphine per 100 mL or per 100g with:

A

Schedule III:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Not more than 200 mg codeine/100 mL/g

A

schedule V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Not more than 100 mg of dihydrocodeine per 100 mL/g

A

CV FEDERAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Not more than 10 mg of dihydrocodeine or any of its salts per 100ml/g

A

CV ILLINOIS LAW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Not more than 100 mg of ethylmorphine per 100ml/g

A

CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Not more than 2.5 mg diphenoxylate and not less than 25 ug atropine per dosage unit

A

CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Not more than 100 mg of opium per 100mL/g

A

CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Not more than 0.5 mg difenoxin and not less than 25 ug of atropine per dosage unit

A

CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Compounded products containing any amount of dihydrcodeinone/hydrocodone

A

CII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Can any compounded product be considered an exempt narcotic?

A

NOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

DEA form 222

A

-must be used whenever Sch I or II drugs are bought; sold or transferred between pharmacies or qualified distributors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How many DEA 222 forms can you receive?

A

Max of 6 order form books; each containing 7 numbered blank forms. Each form contains 10 lines. only 1 item per line with no alterations or erasures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

DEA form 222 must include:

A

Name of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When CII drugs are received a the registrant; POA; or any person designated by the registrant or POA must:

A

verify all drugs ordered have been received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How long is the sheet where the items received; recorded; and signed and dated is filed for?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How long is the form active if a CII is not received

A

60 days. Order can be completed any time in those 60 days. if not received within 60 days; item is voided and new order must be placed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

DEA 222 may be refused because:

A

-improperly completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Where do each copy of DEA 222 forms go to? what color are they?

A

1&2 go to supplier; Pharmacy keeps 3. Supplier retains 1 and forwards 2 to DEA by close of the month during which the order was filed. If order is filled by partial shipments; it must be forwarded at the close of the month during which the final shipment is made or the 60 day validity period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

CSOS

A

Controlled Substance Ordering System - allows pharmacies to order CI and CII substances electronically and replace paper 222 forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

PKI

A

using a technology called Public Key Infrastructure - CSOS requires that each individual purchaser enroll with DEA to acquire a csos digital certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

CSOS Benefits:

A

Ordering freedon: no line limit per single order; can also be used for CIII-VI; not just CI-II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

DEA audit of CSOS

A

One-time; independent; third party audit of any vendor’s software for CSOS purchaser or supplier functions to certify that it preforms the necessary PKI functions. No routine audits unless problem arrises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Acquiring CII’s from other pharmacies

A
  1. Only in emergency situations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

ABC Pharmacy borrows supply of OxyContin fron a neighboring pharmacy: which forms?

A

1: neighboring pharmacy

110
Q

Returning a C2 from ABC pharmacy to Neighboring pharamcy

A

1: ABC

111
Q

Lost or stolen DEA forms 222

A
  1. if forms are lost in transit and not received; new form should be submitted
112
Q

IL CII duplicate order requirement (Pentazocine (Talwin) only)

A
  1. Requires written order; in duplicate; containing the following info:
113
Q

Ordering CIII-CV substances

A

No special form required.

114
Q

CS Prescription Content requirements

A
  1. Signed and dated on time of ISSUANCE
115
Q

Pre-printed prescriptions: controlled drugs

A

IL Law does not allow pre-printed rx. “pre-printed” means a written rx in which the drug name has been indicated prior to the time of issuance. (if they are not prepared in advance of the time that the patient is seen by the practitioner).

116
Q

Do computer generated rx that are printed out or faxed need to be signed?

A

Yes they need to be manually signed

117
Q

Are faxed prescriptions considered electronic rx’s?

A

NO

118
Q

Persons authorized to issue CS rx’s

A

Federal law defers to state law

119
Q

Prescribing under hospital DEA number

A

Interns; residents; and foreign-trained physicians may if:

120
Q

If a hospital resident is practicing outside of the hospital can he still use the hospital DEA number

A

NO; if he is working from outside the hospital he must have is own; or have permission from the other hospital he is at to the that facilities DEA nubmer

121
Q

Can residents prescribe CII’s?

A

YES; there are no limitations on the prescriptive authority for a resident or other physician who is operating under a hospital’s DEA registration

122
Q

Prescribing for a Legitimate purpose (“good faith”)

A

Federal: must be for a legitimate medical purpose by a prescriber acting in the usual course of his professional practice; if not it is illegal.

123
Q

Pharmacist’s corresponding responsibility for illinois/federal good faith standard

A

Means dispensing of CS which in a rph’s professional judgement is lawful. Will look at:

124
Q

Federal vs IL: Self-prescribing CS

A

Fed: allows

125
Q

Federal vs IL: Quantity limit on CS

A

Federal: no limit

126
Q

Federal vs IL: Prescribing CS to immediate family members

A

Federal: allowed

127
Q

Federal vs IL: prescribng non-CS to immediate family members

A

Federal: Allowed

128
Q

CII rx’s must be:

A

WRITTEN; no verbal or fax unless an exception applies

129
Q

Time Limitations on CII’s

A

Fed: no time limit

130
Q

Quantity limit on CII’s

A

Fed: No limit

131
Q

How can you send a CII rx to a pharmacy

A

Original written; hand signed rx.

132
Q

When can a rph take a CII rx over the phone? Federal Law

A

Emergency Situations (all 3):

133
Q

When can a rph take a CII rx over the phone? IL Law

A
  • Situations that might result in Loss of life or intense suffering. The quantity dispensed must be limited to amount needed during emergency period.
134
Q

What happens if the rph does not get the written rx within 7 days?

A

Must notify DEA and Illinois department of human services; office of alcoholism and substance abuse; or the emergency dispensing authority is voided

135
Q

Facsimile Prescriptions

A
  • C III-V and non controls may serve as prescription
136
Q

Electronic Rx’s of CII’s

A

Law permits as long as requirements are met. Pharmacy cannot process electronic rx for cs until its application provider obtains a third party audit or certification review that determines the app complies with the DEA’s requirements and the application provider gives the audit/certification report to the pharmacy.

137
Q

Information that can be changed on a CII Rx: Federal

A

After consultation with prescribing dr pharmacist may change:

138
Q

Information that cannot be changed on a CII rx: ILLINOIS

A
  • date written OR ADD THE DATE
139
Q

Multiple/”sequential” CII rx’s for same drug on same date

A

A practitioner may provide individual pts up to three (3) 30 day supply rx’s for the same CII; written all on the same day; to be filled sequentially over the course of 90 days.

140
Q

Requirements for Multiple/”sequential” cII rx’s

A
  • Each has a legitimate medical purpose issued by a practitioner practicing in the usual course of practice
141
Q

Post-Dating CII rx’s

A

PROHIBITIED. State and federal law require that all rx’s for CS “be dated of; and signed on; the day when issued”

142
Q

Can a pharmacy accept a rx with a future date on it?

A

NO. They cannot even Hold the RX until the date of fill if it WAS accidentally postdated (even by one day)

143
Q

ALL (CII-CV) CS Prescription Requirements

A
  • dated and signed on day issued
144
Q

Patient ID for proper filling

A

Sex field is a verifying element of patient ID

145
Q

Partial Dispensing of CII

A

Comprehensive Drug Addiction and Recovery Act of 2016 allows 30 days to complete partial refil; IL requires 72 hours for complete fill; however; for terminally ill and LTCF patients; can partial fills as many times as needed as long as they are recorded and must be completed within 60 days;;; for emergency CII scripts; 72 hours also applies in IL

146
Q

Partial Refills for CIII-CV

A

Partial fills are permitted. Each partial fill should be recorded on RX. Six month time limitation still applies.

147
Q

Do partial fills count as refills?

A

NO but the partial fill should be recorded on the prescription until the full amount is dispensed; then it will be considered a refill.

148
Q

Transferring CS RX’s

A

Limited to one time transfer. Under federal law transfer of CS RX can only occur for purposes of refills. Original RX cannot be transferred.

149
Q

Who can transfer a CS rx?

A

PHARMACIST ONLY EVEN ELECTRONICALLY

150
Q

Physical transfer of CS rx: Transferor

A

-Transferor must write VOID on face of rx; record on reverse side the name; address; and DEA# of which it is transferred too; and name of RPh receiving info; and record date and name of RPh transferring information.

151
Q

Physical Transfer of CS Rx: Receiving RPh

A

-Must write TRANSFER on face of rx and record:

152
Q

How long must transfer CS rx’s records be filed?

A

Fed: two years

153
Q

Labels for CS Rx’s

A

Fed:

154
Q

Rx Filing Systems

A

File 1 - all CII

155
Q

Record Keeping: Federal law

A

CS records must be maintained for 2 years

156
Q

Record Keeping: IL Law

A

Requires all rx records (dispensing and purchasing) to be maintained for FIVE YEARS

157
Q

Central Record keeping is allowed if

A

invoices and financial data for controls may be maintained at a central location if

158
Q

Computerization of prescription information

A

Allowed for CIII-V

159
Q

Inventory requirements

A

Biennially (every 2 years).

160
Q

Requirements of the inventory record

A

Name of drug

161
Q

Inventory Requirements in IL

A

Every licensee shall conduct and annual inventory with an actual hand-count for CII’s and approximate inventory for CIII-V. Inventory maintained for period of 5 years.

162
Q

Disposal of controlled substances: Return to supplier

A

If CII; use form 222. For CIII-V; DEA recommends maintain written record showing:

163
Q

Disposal of CS: Send to Reverse Distributor

A

Entity registered by DEA and state law. It takes CS from pharmacy for disposal. Same records must be maintained (CII = 222; CIII-V: written record)

164
Q

Disposal of CS: By Pharmacy

A

Disfavored by DEA

165
Q

Disposal of CS by Pharmacy Steps

A
  1. Written request to DEA proposing date and method of destruction ; and listing names of at least two people who will witness destruction
166
Q

Disposal of CS by Pharmacy: IL Law

A

DEA regulations provide an exception to DEA authorization for destruction:

167
Q

DEA Form 106

A

report of theft or loss of controlled substances

168
Q

Notification to DEA after theft or loss

A

within one business day of discovery of theft or significant loss of CS; a pharmacy must contact nearest DEA diversion field office by telephone; facsimile; or a brief written message. Pharmacy should also notify local police.

169
Q

How to complete DEA form 106

A

Send original and a copy to DEA diversion field office. Must include:

170
Q

How to identify “significant loss”

A
  • CSA regulations do not define it
171
Q

Who can file a DEA 106?

A

Under the Illinois Pharmacy Practice Act; the PIC must file the 106.

172
Q

What if PSE is stolen or has a significant loss in stock?

A

Only schedule substances under FEDERAL law require reporting to DEA. PSE is not CS under federal law so you note NOT required to report that to DEA with form 106.

173
Q

Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act

A
  • Law provides that it is illegal under federal law to deliver; distribute; or dispense CS by means of internet unless online pharmacy holds a modification of DEA registration authorizing it to do so.
174
Q

Definition of online pharmacy

A

Any person; entity; or internet site; whether in the US or abroad; that knowingly or intentionally delivers; distributes; or dispenses; or offers or attempts to deliver; distribute; or dispense a CS by means of the internet

175
Q

Examples of online pharmacy

A

-Any person who pays someone to write rx’s for the website

176
Q

Online Pharmacy Registration Exceptions

A
  • Manufacturers or distributors registered; who do not dispense CS to non-registrants
177
Q

Emergency Medical Kits: Federal Law

A

-Pharmacy may place an EMK with CS in a non-dea registered long term care facility (LTCF); if the appropriate state agency or regulatory authority specifically approves the placement and procedures that delinate:

178
Q

Emergency medical Kits: Illinois Law

A

May maintain EMK if permitted by DPH standards for the facilities particular level of care:

179
Q

Narcotic treatment program

A

a program engaged in maintenance and/or detoxification treatment with narcotic drugs

180
Q

Maintenance tx under narcotic tx programs

A

Dispensing; for a period in excess of 21 days; of a narcotic or narcotic drugs in the treatment of an individual for dependence on heroin or other morphine-like drugs

181
Q

Detoxification treatment under narcotic tx programs

A

the dispensing; for a period not in excess of 21 days; of a narcotic drug in decreasing doses to an individual in order to alleviate adverse physiological or psychological effects incident to withdrawal from the continuous or sustained use of a narcotic drug and as a method of bringing the individual to a narcotic drug-free state within such period of time.

182
Q

Can a patient be prescribed methadone for analgesic purposes if they are on methadone for detoxification?

A

NO ABSOLUTELY NOT

183
Q

Can methadone be prescribed for analgesic purposes if patient is not undegoing maintenance or detoxification treatment?

A

YES

184
Q

Drug Addiction Treatment Act

A

This act allows authorized physicians to treat drug addiction with buprenorphine (subutex/suboxnoe) in office based practice where pharmacist dispenses drugs without requiring a separate registration. (is a waiver given to them by DEA). .

185
Q

Use of methadone outside a Narcotic treatment program

A

A practitioner may not prescribe methadone or any other narcotic medication soley for the tx of a patients narcotic addiction.

186
Q

Controlled Substance Prescription Monitoring Program

A
  • Replaces old “triplicate” requirement for CII Rx’s
187
Q

How often to report to the IL PMP?

A

All information must be transmitted not later than the end of next business day after the date which the CS was dispensed.

188
Q

How often Do LTCF’s have to report to IL PMP?

A

Transmit patient med profiles to PMP MONTHLY or more frequently if established by administrative rule. used for addressing oversite requirements

189
Q

Exceptions for reporting to IL PMP

A
  1. Inpatient orders
190
Q

Is it required to review IL PMP before each CS is prescribed or dispensed?

A

NO it is only mandatory to REPORT DISPENSING OF CS

191
Q

What is Medication Shopping?

A

When you intentionally seek any controlled substance while being supplied them from another prescriber or pharmacy

192
Q

What is Pharmacy Shopping?

A

It is fraud to obtain a CS from a pharmacy while being supplied with any CS by another pharmacy without disclosing.

193
Q

Mailing of CS Prescriptions

A

CS Prescriptions may be sent by:

194
Q

Does the FDA regulate the practice of pharmacy?

A

NO that is left to the states.

195
Q

When are pharmacies directly impacted by the Food; Drug; and Cosmetics Act (FDCA)

A
  1. when a pharmacy’s compounding activities crosses the line; and they are viewed as manufacturing drugs
196
Q

What does the FDA regulate?

A

Food; drugs; cosmetics. Does not regulate the practice of medicine or pharmacy.

197
Q

Foods

A

Dietary supplements

198
Q

FDA Drugs:

A

Prescription

199
Q

Biologics

A

Vaccines

200
Q

Medical Devices

A

Simple items like tongue depressors

201
Q

Electronic products that give off radiation

A

Microwave ovens

202
Q

Cosmetics:

A

Products applied to the face; skin; or hair to improve appearance.

203
Q

Veterinary products

A

Livestock feeds

204
Q

Virus-Toxin Law of 1902

A

Diphtheria vaccine “contaminated with tetanus;” law requires licensing …; inspections …; and pre- market approval …

205
Q

Food and Drug Act of 1906

A
  • Prohibited interstate commerce in adulterated or misbranded food; drinks; and drugs.
206
Q

Federal Food; Drug; and Cosmetic Act of 1938

A
  • Compelled manufacturers to demonstate SAFETY of new drugs PRIOR to marketing
207
Q

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

A

• Created a distinction between “OTC” and “Legend Drugs”.

208
Q

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

A

• Also known as the “Drug Efficacy Amendment”.

209
Q

Medical Device Amendment of 1976

A

Action of law: provides for

210
Q

Anti-Tampering Regulations

A
  • Cosmetic liquid oral hygeine products; vaginal products; contact lens solutions and most OTC drugs need to be tamper resistant.
211
Q

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

A
  • Drugs intended for the tx of rare disease and conditions
212
Q

Prescription Drug Marketing Act (PDMA) of 1987 and ammended in 1992

A

Amends the FDCA to:

213
Q

Prescription Drug User Fee Act of 1992 (PDUFA)

A

Allows FDA to collect fees from drug manufacturers to fund the new drug approval process

214
Q

Nutrition Labeling and Education Act of 1990 (NLEA)

A

-Allowed use of FDA-approved health claims on food labels

215
Q

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 (DSHEA)

A
  • Vitamins; herbs; and minerals are exempt from food additive provisions
216
Q

Food and Drug Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA)

A
  • Fast track approval for certain new drugs and innovative devices by exempting certain devices from pre-market notification requirements
217
Q

Product Registration requirements

A

If a drug manufacturer or repackagers fail to register with FDA; their products are deemed to be misbranded

218
Q

Do pharmacies have to register with the FDA?

A

NO. If they are in conformance with local law and do not manufacture; prepare; propagate; compound; or process drugs or devices for resale other than in the regular course of their business of dispensing or selling at retail.

219
Q

a drug is a substance which is

A

-recognized in the USP; NF or homeopathic pharmacopoeia OR

220
Q

Three KEY POINTS to drug classification

A
  1. No distinction between rx and otc
221
Q

Definition of dietary supplement

A
  • Think of as “food” products
222
Q

Definition of Prescription Drugs

A
  • Cannot be made safe by including adequate directions for use
223
Q

Non-Prescription Drug Definition

A
  • Drugs which are recognized by experts to be safe and effective
224
Q

What is the drug law most likely to be violated by Pharmacists?

A

Durham Humphrey Ammendment which provides drugs can be dispensed:

225
Q

Misbranded Drugs

A

Drugs which are sold; dispensed; or distributed in violation of the labeling requirements of the FDCA are misbranded. IL and Federal law consider it misbranded if:

226
Q

Adulterated Drugs

A

Failure of a drug or device to satisfy FDA purity standards. A drug is deemed adulterated if:

227
Q

Good Manufacturing Practices and Compounding

A
  • GMP refers to standards by which drugs are to be manufactured; processed; and packaged
228
Q

For office use only compounds in IL

A
  • No longer permitted
229
Q

What is anticipatory compounding?

A

rph compounds small amounts of drug before receiving a rx; based on previously filled valid rx’s; within an established practitioner-patient-rph relationship; and the rx is kept on file.

230
Q

Can you sell a compounded product OTC?

A

NOPE; FDA would view that as manufacturing.

231
Q

Can a pharmacist compound commercially available products?

A

A rph is permitted to compound a drug that differs slightly from a commercially available product in response to an individual patient’s medical need that the rph has documented after consulting pt’s physician.

232
Q

Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA)

A

Attempts to strike balance between “traditional” compounding and non-patient specific compounding

233
Q

503a - Traditional Compounding

A
  • if done properly is exempt from FDCA NDCA; cGMP; and labeling requirements
234
Q

503B outsourcing facility

A
  • Large scale compounders can elect to register with FDA as an outsourcing facility; strictly voluntary
235
Q

USP 797 vs cGMP

A

USP 797: the standart followed by 503A; adopted by most states in pharmacy practice laws and regulations

236
Q

Repackaging of OTC products

A

Repackage label must contain same info required for commercial product:

237
Q

Seizure definition: removing drugs from the market

A

FDA may “seize” drugs which are “misbranded” or “adulterated”. The physical isolation of a drug while the fda or state agency files a civil lawsuit

238
Q

Recall: removing drugs from the market

A

The correction or removal and notification to the company; of a product which is in violation of the law. Three levels of recall

239
Q

Class I Recall

A

Recall class where there is a reasonable possibility that the use/exposure to a violative product will cause serous adverse effects on health or death

240
Q

Class II Recall

A

use or exposure will cause temporary/reversible adverse health consequences; or where proability of harm is remote

241
Q

Class III Recall

A

Not likely to cause any serious adverse effects

242
Q

Drug Approval Process

A

Step 1: In vivo animal studies (Pre-clinical data”

243
Q

Step 1 of Drug approval Process

A

In vivo animal studies - Primarily evaluate pharmacology and potential toxicities. Once complete; sponsor submits an investigational new drug application (IND)

244
Q

Step 2 of drug approval process

A

IND - Contains pre-clinical data; proposed use and safety data; and proposed plan for study in humans. Data is reviewed by FDA; and decision is made whether to allow sponsor to begin in human trials.

245
Q

Step 3 of Drug approval process: Clinical Trials

A

Phase I: Small group of healthy subjects (~20); evaluation of toxicological; pharmacokinetic; and pharmacologic properties; assessment of safety in humans

246
Q

Step 4 of drug approval process

A

NDA: New drug application. Presents FDA reviewers the entire history of development of the drug products. FDA reviews data and determines whether product meets criteria for marketing in US

247
Q

Treatment IND

A

Drug in phase 2 or 3 with some safety and efficacy evidence can be given to pts who are in imminent life threatening stages of an illness w/ no cure.

248
Q

New Drug Application Process

A

All data concerning efficacy; safety; stability; production methods; packaging; and data from clinical trials are submitted to FDA for review.

249
Q

Phase 4 studies

A

Post Marketing Surveillance - monitor use of drug for additional info on safety and efficacy. Manufacturer collects data; and submits yearly reports to the FDA.

250
Q

aNDA

A

Abbreviated New Drug Application

251
Q

sNDA

A

Supplemental New Drug Application

252
Q

Requirement for Package inserts in estrogens

A

Each estrogen drug product restricted to rx distribution; including products containing estrogens in fixed combo’s; shall be dispensed to patients with a package insert containing information information concerning the drug’s benefits and risks.

253
Q

Distribution requirements of estrogen products

A

The manufacturer and distributor shall provide a patient package insert in or with EACH PACKAGE of the drug product that the manufacturer or distributor intends to be dispensed to a patient.

254
Q

Estrogen injectable multi-dose vial distribution requirements

A

A sufficient number of patient labeling pieces shall be included in or with each packaage to assure that one piece can be included with each package or dose dispensed or administered to every patient.

255
Q

Estrogen distribution requirements for hosptials and LTCF’s

A

Package insert provided to the patient before the first estrogen and every 30 days thereafter; as long as therapy continues

256
Q

Patient Package Insert contents for Estrogen

A
  • Name of drug
257
Q

Estrogen-Progesterone contraceptives

A

Labeling requirements set by oral contraceptive section and not estrogen section

258
Q

Oral Contraceptive requirement for patient package insert and distribution requirements

A

Same as estrogen

259
Q

Contents of Package Insert for Oral Contraceptives

A
  • name of drug
260
Q

Ipecac Syrup Labeling Requirement

A

Available in 1 oz quantities and label bears the following in a prominent and conspicuous manner:

261
Q

OTC products with salicylates labeling

A

-“Keep out of reach of children; in case of overdose; contact poison control”.

262
Q

NDC Drug Code Numbers

A

Series of 10 or 11 digits.

263
Q

Pregnancy Category A

A

Adequate; well controlled studies reveal no risk to fetus during 1st; 2nd; or 3rd trimesters of pregnancy

264
Q

Pregnancy Category B

A

-No adequate; well controlled studies have been conducted in women

265
Q

Pregnancy Category C

A
  • Safety of the drug during human pregnancy has not been established; and animal studies are either positive for fetal risk; or have not been conducted.
266
Q

Pregnancy Category D

A
  • Positive evidence of risk to human fetus; based mainly on ADR date from investigational or marketing experience.
267
Q

Pregnancy Category X

A
  • Studies in animals; or reports in pregnant women; indicate that the risk of damage to the fetus clearly outweighs any possible benefit to the pregnant woman.
268
Q

Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule

A

Now requires package insert to have a separate pregnancy; lactation; and females and males of reproductive potential sections that lays out risk summary; clinical considerations; and data to those populations.

269
Q

Tamper-Resistant Packaging

A

An OTC drug product (except dermatological; dentifrice; insulin; or lozenge product) for retail sale that is not packaged in tamper-resistant packaging or that is not properly labeled under this section is adulterated; misbranded; or both.

270
Q

Regulation of Alcohol

A
  • Alcohol is regulated by the federal bureau of alcohol; tobacco; and firearms