Federal Agencies and Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

What are the the two main HHS bodies affecting healthcare change

A
  • Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  • Office of Inspector General (OIG)
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2
Q

Describe the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

A

HHS is the U.S. government’s principal agency for protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services.

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3
Q

CMS combines the oversight of which programs (5)

A
  • Medicare program (Title XVIII),
  • Federal portion of the Medicaid program (Title XIX)
  • Federal portion of State Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP)
  • Health Insurance Marketplace
  • Related quality assurance activities
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4
Q

Describe the Quality Improvement Organization (QIO) Program

A

CMS administers the Quality Improvement Organization (QIO) program to monitor and improve utilization and quality of care for Medicare beneficiaries. QIOs are required to review all written quality-of-service complaints submitted by Medicare beneficiaries. The review addresses whether the services met professionally-recognized standards of healthcare and may include whether the appropriate services were provided in appropriate settings.

Three core functions:
1. Improve quality of care for beneficiaries
2. Protect the integrity of the medicaid trust fund by making sure medicare only pays for services that are necessary and reasonable
3. Addressing complaints

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5
Q

Descsribe the Office of Inspector General (OIG)

A

The mission of the OIG is to protect the integrity of HHS programs and the health and welfare of the beneficiaries of those programs. The OIG has a major role in investigating fraud and abuse.

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6
Q

What does the acronym “OIG” stand for?

A

Office of Inspector General

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7
Q

What does the acronym “HHS” stand for?

A

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

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8
Q

What does the acronym “QIO” stand for?

A

Quality Improvement Organization (QIO) Program

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9
Q

What does the acronym “CHIP” stand for?

A

Children’s Health Insurance Program

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10
Q

What does the acronym “HIM” stand for?

A

Health Insurance Marketplace

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11
Q

What does the acronym “SCHIP” stand for?

A

State Children’s Health Insurance Program

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12
Q

What is another name for the Medicare program

A

Title XVIII

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13
Q

What is another name for the Medicaid program

A

Title XIX

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14
Q

What are the Operating Divisions of HHS (11)

A
  • National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  • Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  • Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR)
  • Indian Health Service (IHS)
  • Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
  • Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)
  • Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
  • Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  • Administration for Children and Families (ACF)
  • Administration for Community Living (ACL)
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15
Q

What does the acronym “ATSDR” stand for?

A

Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry

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16
Q

What does the acronym “IHS” stand for?

A

Indian Health Service

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17
Q

What does the acronym “HRSA” stand for?

A

Health Resources and Services Administration

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18
Q

What does the acronym “SAMHSA” stand for?

A

Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration

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19
Q

What does the acronym “AHRQ” stand for?

A

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality

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20
Q

What does the acronym “ACF” stand for?

A

Administration for Children and Families

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21
Q

What does the acronym “ACL” stand for?

A

Administration for Community Living

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22
Q

What is the “Patient’s Bill of Rights”

A

The American Hospital Association (AHA) adopted a “Patient’s Bill of Rights” in the 1970s that stated expectations that patients and their families can have about how they will be treated in healthcare situations. The AHA later replaced this bill of rights with a plain-language brochure called the Patient Care Partnership.

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23
Q

Desribe the Patient Care Partnership

A

This brochure is a plain language replacement for the AHA “Patient’s Bill of Rights”

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24
Q

According to the Patient Care Partnership brochure, what things can a patient expect during a hospital stay (6)

A
  • High quality hospital care
  • A clean and safe environment
  • Involvement in your care (Right to Participate in Treatment Decisions)
  • Protection of your privacy (Right to Privacy and Security of Health Information)
  • Help when leaving the hospital
  • Help with your billing claims
25
What does the acronym "HIPAA" stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
26
Describe Administrative Simplification
HIPAA included sections devoted to administrative simplification. The Administrative Simplification Rules had a huge impact on healthcare providers that is still being sorted out years later. The hoped-for savings have not materialized for most providers for many reasons. Most payers have not standardized their information requirements and often ask for non-standard information in situational fields. While many payers offer electronic remittance advices (ERAs), patient accounting software firms can charge prohibitive fees for parsing the ERA for posting purposes.
27
What act was passed to ensure a patient's Right to Participate in Treatment Decisions
Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)
28
What does the acronym "PSDA" stand for?
Patient Self-Determination Act
29
Describe the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)
Congress passed the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) to ensure that patients understood their right to participate in decisions about their own healthcare and to provide a means to ensure it. The act deals with **advance directives**, which are written statements of a patient’s wishes regarding medical treatment in the event that he or she becomes unable to make certain decisions.
30
What are the types of Advance Directives (3)
* Living Will * Healthcare Power of Attorney or Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare * Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order
31
Describe a Living Will
a document that specifies what treatments a patient does and does not wish to receive; it means that difficult decisions about future care are made while the person is alert; patients can choose the circumstances under which they will die; and patients' desires regarding organ donation are made known
32
Describe a Healthcare Power of Attorney or Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare
a document that designates someone else (known as a healthcare surrogate, agent, or proxy) to make decisions on the patient’s behalf if he or she is unable to do so
33
Describe a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order
a document that states that the patient does not wish to have CPR or similar interventions performed in the event of a medical emergency
34
What does the acronym "PPACA" stand for?
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
35
Describe the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
* Also known as simply the Affordable Care Act (ACA) * Aimed at decreasing the number of uninsured Americans and reducing the overall costs of healthcare. * Provides a number of mechanisms — including mandates, subsidies, and tax credits — to employers and individuals in order to increase the coverage rate.
36
Describe the term "Fraud"
* Intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made for the purpose of personal gain, or to harm or manipulate another person or organization * Includes incorrect reporting of diagnosis and procedure codes to maximize payments, billing for services not furnished, altering claims to receive payment, accepting kickbacks, the routine waiver of deductible and coinsurance amounts, etc.
37
Describe the term "Abuse"
* Incidents or practices of healthcare workers that, although not usually considered fraudulent, are inconsistent with accepted sound practices * Some forms of healthcare abuse include excessive or unwarranted use of technology, pharmaceuticals, and services; abuse of authority; and abuse of privacy, confidentiality, or duty to care. It also includes improper billing practices (like billing Medicare instead of primary insurer), increasing charges to Medicare beneficiaries but not to other patients, unbundling of services, and unnecessary transfers of patients.
38
Describe the False Claim Act
This protects against Fraud. The False Claims Act prohibits making a false record or statement to get a false/fraudulent claim paid by the government, submission of false/fraudulent claims, and conspiring to have false/fraudulent claims paid by the government.
39
What administrative sanctions can be imposed if CMS determines the existence of inappropriate/fraudulent behavior on the part of a provider (3)
* Denial or revocation of the provider number application * Suspension of provider payments * Impose Civil Monetary Penalties (CMPs)
40
What does the acronym "CMP" stand for
Civil Monetary Penalties (CMPs)
41
What does the acronym "TCPA" stand for?
Telephone Consumer Protection Act
42
Describe the Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA)
prohibits contact with a debtor on a cell phone using automated dialing equipment without express consent and limits the use of artificial or prerecorded voice messages, SMS (Short Message Service, or text) messages, and fax machines.
43
Describe the Truth in Lending Act
* Also known as Regulation Z * Deals with the **disclosure** of information before credit is extended * Requires that annual percentage rates (APR) and finance charges are clearly and conspicuously identified * Requires that written disclosures must be provided to the consumer
44
Regulation Z is a another term for what
the Truth in Lending Act
45
Describe the Fair Credit Billing Act
* Protects consumers from inaccurate or **unfair practices by issuers of open-ended credit**. * The act requires creditors to inform debtors of their rights and of the responsibilities of the creditor
46
Describe the Fair Credit Reporting Act
* Created to define what information from "consumer **reports**" can be used, by whom, and when. * The act provides the maximum protection of a consumer’s right to privacy and confidentiality of credit reports.
47
Describe the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA)
* The FDCPA was the result of evidence that debt collectors were using abusive, deceptive, and unfair **collection** practices. * This act imposes strict limitations on: Acquisition of information regarding the location of the debtor; Communication with the debtor or others in collection of a debt * The act prohibits: Harassment or abuse in the collection process; Use of false or misleading information in the collection process * The act prohibits the collector from communicating with the consumer: At any unusual/inconvenient time (not between 8am-9pm) or place (at the consumer's place of employment), if the collector knows legal counsel represents the debtor
48
What does the acronym "ECOA" stand for
Equal Credit Opportunity Act
49
Describe the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)
Prohibits credit **discrimination** on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, or because someone receives public assistance. Creditors may ask for most of the information, but they may not use it when deciding whether to give a person credit or when setting the terms of the credit.
50
Under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA), what information can creditors not ask?
* If the applicant is widowed or divorced. A creditor may use only the terms: married, unmarried, or separated. * Information about the applicant’s marital status if applying for a separate, unsecured account. * Information about the spouse, except: if the spouse is applying with the person, if the spouse will be allowed to use the account, if the person is relying on the spouse’s income or on alimony or child support income from a former spouse, or if the person lives in a community property state
51
What does the acronym "EMTALA" stand for
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
52
What is another name for the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
Federal Anti-Dumping Statute
53
The Federal Anti-Dumping Statute is another name for what
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)
54
Describe the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)
* Also known as the Federal Anti-Dumping Statute. * Enacted in response to concerns that hospitals were refusing to treat patients without insurance and even transferring them to other facilities and leaving them there, sometimes without notifying the receiving facility. * EMTALA establishes the following general requirements: Medical screening examination; Necessary stabilizing treatment; Restricting transfer until stabilization * While registration staff is allowed to gather basic demographic information from a patient seeking treatment, questions about how the patient intends to pay are prohibited until he or she has received a medical screening exam.
55
What does the acronym "CLIA" stand for
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment
56
Describe the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)
* Requires that all clinical laboratory services furnished to Medicare beneficiaries must be performed by a provider who has a CLIA certificate. * All qualifying providers of laboratory services are issued a CLIA number, which should be reported on the claim. * A state can become exempt from CLIA status if its legal requirements are equal to or more stringent than CLIA’s statutory and regulatory requirements. Presently only two states are exempt: **New York** and **Washington**.
57
Describe The Joint Commission (TJC)
* Private agency that seeks to protect and improve the quality and safety of care. * CMS allows TJC to accredit hospitals. * TJC inspects facilities and provides education on issues affecting patient care and safety. It has many standards meant to protect quality and safety. * Not all hospitals are accredited by TJC; some are accredited by their states or other agencies.
58
The Patient Access area can expect TJC surveys in which areas (9)
* Advanced directives * Patient rights and responsibilities * Organizational ethics * Continuum of care * Management of environment of care * Confidentiality * Privacy * Security * Communication
59
When does/can TJC conduct an audit?
TJC will conduct an audit of a **hospital every 39 months** and of a **laboratory every two years**. The organization can audit a healthcare facility **without advance notice**, and as early as **9-30 months after an initial audit**.