Fed Civ Pro Essay Rules Flashcards

1
Q

FQ jurisdiction requirements

A

P’s claim must “arise under” federal law

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2
Q

What is irrelevant in FQ jurisdiction?

A

Parties’ citizenship and AIC

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3
Q

Pleader must follow the well-pleaded complaint rule meaning

A

It is not enough that some federal issue is raised by the complaint, but rather, the complaint itself must arise under federal law

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4
Q

Diversity jurisdiction requirements

A

Complete diversity and AIC

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5
Q

Cases can be removed to federal court if there is ________ over the action

A

federal SMJ over action

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6
Q

For remand to be available, the case must have

A

Initially been filed in state court then removed to federal court

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7
Q

Who must join in the removal?

A

All Ds

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8
Q

Removal must be to ________

A

Federal district court embracing the place where state court is located

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9
Q

Removal must be within

A

30 days of receipt of amended pleading, order, or other court paper showing that a non-removable case had become removable

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10
Q

A case can be removed to federal court by a D if the case

A

Could have originally been filed in federal court

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11
Q

In-state D limitation for diversity of citizenship jurisdiction

A

No D may be a citizen of the state in which case was pending

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12
Q

Limitations on removal in diversity of citizenship cases - one-year rule

A

When SMJ is based on diversity, removal may not occur more than one year after the case was filed unless bad faith can be shown on part of P

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13
Q

Limitations on removal in diversity of citizenship cases - D citizen of forum state

A

When SMJ is based on diversity, no D may be a citizen of the state in which the case was pending

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14
Q

Individual citizenship is determined by

A

Where they are domiciled, meaning the state in which they are present with the intent to remain permanently or for an indefinite period

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15
Q

A person can only have ________ domicile, and that domicile is ________

A

1, retained until changed

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16
Q

Establishing a new domicile requires

A

1) The person’s physical presence in the new domicile and

2) The intent to make that place their home permanently or for the indefinite future

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17
Q

Courts look to all factors for domicile, including

A

Where a person works, owns a house, is registered to vote, as well as other factors

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18
Q

A corporation is considered a citizen of

A

Any state in which it is incorporated or the one state in which it has its PPB

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19
Q

Complete diversity means that

A

No plaintiff may be a citizen of the same state as any defendant

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20
Q

Personal jurisdiction refers to

A

The ability of a court to exercise power over a particular defendant

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21
Q

Whether a court has PJ over a defendant has two requirements

A

1) The exercise of PJ must fall within the state long arm statute, as a federal court is required to analyze whether it has personal jurisdiction over a D as if it were a state court in the forum state

2) The exercise of PJ must satisfy the US Constitution, meaning that the D must have such minimum contacts with the forum state that exercising jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice

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22
Q

An individual is a citizen of the state in which they are domiciled, meaning the state in which they are

A

Present with the intent to remain permanently or for an indefinite period

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23
Q

Personal jurisdiction refers to

A

The ability of a court to exercise power over a particular defendant

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24
Q

Whether a court has PJ over a defendant has two requirements. The exercise of PJ must

A

1) Fall within the state long arm statute, as a federal court is required to analyze whether it has personal jurisdiction over a D as if it were a state court in the forum state

2) Satisfy the US Constitution, meaning that the D must have such minimum contacts with the forum state that exercising jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice

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25
Q

VA long arm statute authorizes personal jurisdiction in these certain circumstances

A

1) Transacting any business in VA

2) Contracting to supply services or things in VA

3) Causing tortious injury by an act or omission in VA

4) Causing tortious injury in VA by an act or omission outside VA, if the person regularly does or solicits business or engages in any other persistent course of conduct from which she derives a substantial revenue from goods used or consumed in VA

5) Causing injury in VA to any person by breach of warranty

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26
Q

Venue relates to

A

The proper geographic district in which to bring a lawsuit

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27
Q

Venue in civil actions is proper in

A

1) A judicial district in which any D resides, if all Ds are residents of the state in which the district is located

2) A judicial district in which a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred, or a substantial part of property that is the subject of the action is situated; or

3) If there is no district anywhere in the US which satisfies 1 or 2, a judicial district in which any D is subject to the court’s personal jurisdiction with respect to the action

28
Q

Even though venue is proper, venue may be transferred to another federal district where

A

The action “might have been brought” or to which all parties have consented when the parties or witnesses might be greatly inconvenienced by trial in the current venue [in conformity with the rules governing 1) PJ over, 2) SMJ, and venue

29
Q

SMJ refers to

A

The ability of a court to exercise power over the case

30
Q

PJ refers to

A

The ability of a court to exercise power over a particular D

31
Q

A 12(b)(1) MTD may be filed

A

At any time during the proceeding

32
Q

Declarations are admissible in federal court and considered to have the same force and effect as an ________ or other sworn statement if the party, in writing, ________

A

Affidavit; declares that the information is true under penalty of perjury, dated, and signed by the declarator

33
Q

A motion to strike may be filed

A

Before responding to a pleading or, if no responsive pleading is permitted, within 21 days after service of the pleading, a party may move to have stricken any insufficient defense, or any redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter

34
Q

Venue will depend on

A

Where the c/a arose and on the nature of the parties (whether corporate or natural persons)

35
Q

By balancing the relative convenience offered by the alternative forums, the original court (if original venue proper) has discretion to transfer the action to a court in which the action “might have been brought” in conformity with the rules governing

A

1) PJ

2) SMJ; and

3) Venue

36
Q

In a motion based on convenience, the ________ choice of forum is taken into consideration

A

Plaintiff’s

37
Q

An independent physical or mental examination of a party may be had when

A

The party’s physical or mental condition is in controversy; that is, the condition is relevant to the case. A court order on a showing of good cause is required

38
Q

Under the federal rules, a party may use for any purpose the deposition of a witness, whether or not a party,

A

1) To impeach the witness;

2) If the witness is dead, more than 100 miles from the place of trial (unless the absence was procured by the party offering the deposition), or unable to testify due to age, imprisonment, etc.; or

3) For any purpose if exceptional circumstances exist

39
Q

T/F Under the federal rules, taking a deposition rather than live testimony merely to save money is not a ground for taking or using a deposition at trial

A

True

40
Q

Under the federal discovery rules, a party may assert evidentiary objections when the opposing party offers

A

A deposition into evidence

41
Q

Evidentiary objections may be opposed by ________ and/or ________

A

Relevancy; timing

42
Q

Under the federal rules, a deposition from previous litigation may not be used in another proceeding unless

A

It concerns the same subject matter and parties

43
Q

The pre-trial scheduling order may be modified for

A

Good cause

44
Q

With the consent of the judge, a pretrial scheduling order may be modified for

A

Good cause

45
Q

A notice of removal must be filed within

A

30 days of service of the complaint (or 30 days after a nonremovable case has become removable)

46
Q

A P can ask the federal court to remand her case to state court using a

A

Motion to remand

47
Q

Ordinarily, venue can depend on where the c/a arose, but for removed cases, the D

A

Removes a case to the federal district court “embracing” the state court where the case was filed. It does not matter if that venue would have been proper under the venue statutes

48
Q

T/F Only a D can exercise the right of removal

A

True

49
Q

T/F Improper venue does not defeat SMJ

A

True

50
Q

A pleading may be amended

A

Once within 21 days of serving it or, if the pleading is one to which a responsive pleading is required, 21 days after service of a responsive pleading or a pre-answer motion. Thereafter, a pleading may be amended only by the written consent of the adverse party or by leave of the court upon motion. Leave of the court is “freely given when justice so requires”

51
Q

Rule 11

A

Under Rule 11, an attorney who presents a written motion must certify that he conducted an “inquiry reasonable under the circumstances”:

1) The paper is not presented for any improper purpose

2) Legal contentions in the pleading are warranted by existing law or a nonfrivolous argument for the modification of existing law or the establishment of a new law;

3) The allegations and factual contentions either have, or upon further investigation or discovery are likely to have evidentiary support; and

4) Denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, where specified, are reasonably based on a lack of information and belief

52
Q

Rule 11 sanctions (safe harbor provision of rule 11)

A

A party who believed an opposing party presented a paper in violation of Rule 11 may serve a motion for sanctions on the party. If the party does not withdraw or correct the matter within 21 days, the moving party may then file the motion for sanctions with the court

53
Q

When injunctive relief is requested, the courts will look to

A

The cost of complying with the injunction or to the value of the injunction to the plaintiff; if either exceeds $75,000, the AIC is generally met

54
Q

A plaintiff may aggregate claims against several Ds when the claim against the Ds is

A

Joint, such as when there are joint tortfeasors. If the claims are based on separate liabilities, the claims may not be aggregated

55
Q

Supplemental jurisdiction

A

The claim invoking supplemental jurisdiction must arise from a common nucleus of operative fact as the claim with original federal SMJ, and the claim must not be withdrawn under section 1367(b) of the supplemental jurisdiction statute

56
Q

Supplemental jurisdiction based on diversity is withdrawn when the P is asserting a claim against a

A

Permissively joined D

57
Q

Permissive joinder requirements

A

Parties may join as Ps or be joined as Ds whenever

1) Some claim is made by each P and against each D relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences or transactions; and

2) There is a Q of fact or law common to all the parties

58
Q

With certain exceptions, only ________ may be appealed

A

Final orders

59
Q

A final order is one that

A

Disposes of all claims and parties

60
Q

Plaintiff’s choice of venue is

A

Rarely disturbed

61
Q

A defendant must serve an answer within

A

21 days after being served with the summons and complaint

62
Q

T/F When counting the number of days to file an answer, one excludes the day of the event (date of service)

A

True

63
Q
A
64
Q

A D has ________ days after being served with the complaint & summons, to serve a third-party summons and complaint on the non party

A

14 days

65
Q

A third party claim is

A

The joinder by the D in the original action (who is usually called the third-party P) of another person not originally a party to the action (who is called the third-party D). The impleader claim asserts that the third-party D is or may be liable to the D for all or part of the P’s claim against the D. [Impleader claim is for indemnity or contribution]

66
Q

An impleader claim is for

A

Indemnity or contribution